Castleport Test Prep

Free CMSRN Practice Test: 50 Questions With Rationales

This free CMSRN practice test has 50 original questions for U.S. adult medical-surgical nursing, sampling all five MSNCB exam domains, each with a rationale and a source. They're unofficial: this isn't a full-length exam or a predictor of passing.

Practice questions

Question 1 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Delegation and Supervision · CMSRN-TC01

A medical-surgical registered nurse (RN) works with an assistive personnel (AP) team member trained and competent in routine vital signs. State rules and facility policy permit the task. Which assignment is most appropriate?

  • A. Assessing a patient just admitted with community-acquired pneumonia
  • B. Measuring and recording vital signs for a patient two days after surgery whose vital signs have been stable
  • C. Evaluating a patient's response to IV morphine and deciding whether further treatment is needed
  • D. Teaching a patient how to self-inject enoxaparin before discharge
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. In this scenario, routine vital signs on a patient whose condition is stable and predictable fit the AP's established role. The ANA–NCSBN guidelines distinguish this routine assignment from delegating nursing judgment, and the RN stays accountable for the patient.

Why not the others:

  • A: An initial assessment of a new admission is nursing judgment. The guidelines say nursing judgment and clinical reasoning can't be delegated.
  • C: Deciding whether an intervention worked is evaluation, which is also nursing judgment.
  • D: Teaching a new self-injection means assessing what the patient understood and adjusting the teaching. That stays with the RN.

Keep in mind: Your state nurse practice act and facility policy set the exact limits.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), pp. 2–4 and 7: definitions, Five Rights, licensed nurse responsibilities.

Question 2 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Medication Management · CMSRN-PC01

An adult receiving insulin says she feels shaky before lunch. Bedside glucose is 58 mg/dL. She is alert, swallows safely, and the unit's hypoglycemia protocol lets the nurse give oral glucose. Which action is best now?

  • A. Wait for the lunch tray, then recheck glucose after the meal
  • B. Give a chocolate bar and recheck glucose in 1 hour
  • C. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate per protocol and recheck glucose in 15 minutes
  • D. Give the scheduled mealtime insulin now so it is working when the tray arrives
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. CDC's 15-15 rule: give 15 g of carbohydrate, wait 15 minutes, and recheck. If glucose is still under 70 mg/dL, repeat. She is alert and swallows safely, so oral treatment under the protocol fits.

Why not the others:

  • A: Waiting for the tray delays treatment of a low that is happening now.
  • B: Fat, as in chocolate, slows how fast sugar is absorbed, and a 1-hour recheck is too late.
  • D: More insulin lowers glucose further.

Keep in mind: A patient who can't swallow safely needs the facility's emergency pathway, not food or drink by mouth.

Source: CDC — Treatment of Low Blood Sugar (Hypoglycemia), The 15-15 rule; Foods to treat low blood sugar.

Question 3 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Education of Patients and Families · CMSRN-HC01

After teaching a patient about a new anticoagulant, the nurse asks him to explain when he should call for help. His answer is incorrect. What should the nurse do next?

  • A. Re-explain that point in a different, simpler way, then ask him to explain it again in his own words
  • B. Repeat the original explanation word for word so the message stays consistent
  • C. Ask, "Do you understand now?" and document that teaching is complete
  • D. Give him the written handout and ask him to read it at home
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. Teach-back checks whether the nurse explained clearly by having the patient explain it in his own words. A wrong answer means the explanation didn't land. Explain it another way, then check again.

Why not the others:

  • B: Repeating the same words that didn't work is unlikely to fix the misunderstanding.
  • C: A yes/no question doesn't show what he actually understood.
  • D: A handout alone skips the check and sends him home with the gap.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 7, Teach-Back.

Question 4 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Care Coordination and Transition Management · CMSRN-IP01

On admission, a patient's pharmacy fill history lists metoprolol 25 mg twice daily. The patient says his cardiologist stopped it last month. The admission orders include metoprolol. What is the nurse's best action?

  • A. Give the ordered dose, because the pharmacy list is the official record
  • B. Hold the medication and delete it from the home list without telling anyone
  • C. Give half the ordered dose until morning rounds
  • D. Verify the information with the patient and available sources, and bring the discrepancy to the prescriber to resolve
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. Medication reconciliation compares what the patient actually takes with the admission orders to find unintended discrepancies. Unintended discrepancies go to the prescriber to resolve. The nurse's job is to verify and communicate.

Why not the others:

  • A: The patient has just given new information that conflicts with the list. Giving the dose ignores it.
  • B: Changing the record quietly leaves the order unresolved and hides the problem.
  • C: Nurses don't invent a new dose. That's an unordered change.

Source: AHRQ — MATCH Toolkit for Medication Reconciliation, Introduction, Introduction: obtaining, verifying, and documenting the home list; discussing unintended discrepancies with the physician.

Question 5 of 50

Professional Concepts · Communication · CMSRN-PR01

A nurse calls about a patient one day after hip replacement. Heart rate has risen from 88 to 118, blood pressure has fallen from 128/76 to 96/58, and the dressing is saturated. Which statement is the Assessment part of SBAR?

  • A. "Mr. Diaz had a hip replacement yesterday and is on enoxaparin."
  • B. "I'm calling about Mr. Diaz in room 412. His heart rate is 118 and his blood pressure is 96/58."
  • C. "I'm concerned he may be bleeding. His dressing is saturated and his pressure has dropped since this morning."
  • D. "I'd like you to come see him now. Do you want a CBC drawn?"
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. In SBAR, Assessment answers "What do I think the problem is?" Choice C states the nurse's concern and the findings behind it.

Why not the others:

  • A: This is Background, the clinical context.
  • B: This is Situation: who the patient is and what's going on right now.
  • D: This is the Recommendation or Request.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 5, SBAR.

Question 6 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Patient Safety · CMSRN-PC02

While helping a patient with breakfast, the nurse notices sudden right-sided facial droop, right arm drift, and slurred speech. The patient was talking normally 10 minutes ago. What should the nurse do first?

  • A. Activate the facility's stroke or rapid response process and report both the time symptoms were first observed and when the patient was last known to be normal
  • B. Finish breakfast, then recheck in 30 minutes to see whether the symptoms resolve
  • C. Give the patient's scheduled morning aspirin now
  • D. Document the findings and report them at the next scheduled rounds
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. Sudden face, arm, and speech changes are stroke warning signs that need emergency evaluation right away. CDC stresses noting when symptoms first appeared. Report the earlier normal observation too; the time a change is discovered is not necessarily its onset.

Why not the others:

  • B: Waiting delays emergency evaluation. Symptoms that go away still need emergency evaluation.
  • C: Treatment depends on emergency evaluation of what kind of stroke this is. A routine oral dose isn't the first action.
  • D: Waiting for rounds delays time-critical care.

Source: CDC — Signs and Symptoms of Stroke, Signs and symptoms; What to do if you think someone is having a stroke; NHLBI — Stroke: Diagnosis, Diagnostic tests; Medical history and physical exam.

Question 7 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Delegation and Supervision · CMSRN-TC02

A patient care technician (PCT) taking routine 1400 vital signs on a stable postoperative patient reports that the patient now says she "can't catch her breath." Her oxygen saturation (SpO2) reads 89%. What should the RN do?

  • A. Tell the PCT to start oxygen at 2 L/min and recheck in 15 minutes
  • B. Ask the PCT to finish the remaining vital signs, then reassess
  • C. Tell the PCT to reposition the patient and report back if she doesn't improve
  • D. Go assess the patient now. Her condition has changed, so the RN reassesses and decides what happens next
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. Delegation depends on the right circumstance: a stable patient. When the condition changes, the delegatee reports it and the licensed nurse reassesses the patient and whether the delegation still fits.

Why not the others:

  • A: Starting oxygen does not replace the RN's assessment of the new breathing problem; this option delays that assessment for 15 minutes.
  • B: A new breathing complaint with low SpO2 can't wait behind routine tasks.
  • C: Repositioning does not replace the RN's prompt assessment of the changed condition.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), p. 4, Right circumstance; Right supervision and evaluation.

Question 8 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Surgical/Procedural Nursing Management · CMSRN-PC03

Two days after abdominal surgery, a patient suddenly reports shortness of breath and sharp chest pain that gets worse when she takes a deep breath. Her heart rate is 124 beats/min. What is the nurse's priority?

  • A. Coach incentive spirometry and reassess in an hour
  • B. Start the facility's rapid response or escalation process for urgent evaluation
  • C. Give the as-needed oral pain medication and reassess at the next check
  • D. Walk the patient in the hallway to help open the lungs
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. Sudden trouble breathing, chest pain that worsens with a deep breath, and a fast heart rate are warning signs of pulmonary embolism. CDC says these symptoms call for medical help immediately. These findings don't confirm a PE, but they do call for urgent evaluation.

Why not the others:

  • A: Spirometry and an hour's wait delay the evaluation.
  • C: Treating the pain alone doesn't address the cause.
  • D: Hallway walking delays urgent assessment of acute breathlessness and chest pain.

Source: CDC — About Venous Thromboembolism (Blood Clots), Signs and symptoms: PE.

Question 9 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Care Coordination and Transition Management · CMSRN-IP02

At shift change, using I-PASS and the documented patient-specific plan, the oncoming nurse says: "So she's a watcher, the potassium recheck is due at 2200, and if it's under 3.5 mmol/L I call the resident. Did I get that right?" Which I-PASS element is this?

  • A. Illness severity
  • B. Patient summary
  • C. Synthesis by receiver
  • D. Situation awareness and contingency planning
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. In Synthesis by receiver, the receiving clinician summarizes what they heard, asks questions, and restates the key actions. That's what this nurse is doing.

Why not the others:

  • A: Illness severity is the sender's label (stable, watcher, or unstable).
  • B: The patient summary is the sender's account of events and the plan.
  • D: Situation awareness and contingency planning is the sender's "if this, then that" plan. Here the receiver is restating it back.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 9, I-PASS.

Question 10 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Diversity and Inclusion · CMSRN-HC02

At a hospital covered by Section 1557, an adult with limited English proficiency needs discharge teaching on a new insulin regimen in Spanish. Her adult son is bilingual and offers to interpret. A qualified medical interpreter is available by video. It is not an emergency, and the patient hasn't asked for her son to interpret. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Use the qualified interpreter and speak directly to the patient
  • B. Let her son interpret, since he'll be helping her at home
  • C. Ask a bilingual housekeeper who is not qualified as an interpreter or bilingual patient-service staff member to interpret
  • D. Teach in slow, simple English and give a Spanish handout
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. When interpretation is required for meaningful access, a covered hospital must offer a qualified interpreter. The available qualified interpreter fits this patient's need; neither routine reliance on a relative nor unqualified bilingual staff is appropriate in this scenario.

Why not the others:

  • B: The son can take part in the teaching with the patient's permission, but his availability alone does not meet the rule's conditions for relying on an accompanying adult to interpret.
  • C: The rule doesn't allow relying on staff who aren't qualified interpreters or qualified bilingual staff.
  • D: Insulin teaching needs two-way communication in the patient's language, and a handout doesn't provide that.

Source: 45 CFR 92.201 — Meaningful access for individuals with limited English proficiency (eCFR), §92.201(a)–(c), (e)(2), (e)(4), and (h).

Question 11 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Medication Management · CMSRN-PC04

A nurse finds a vial of potassium chloride concentrate and an order that reads "KCl 10 mEq IV push now." What is the nurse's best action?

  • A. Give it slowly over 5 minutes through the peripheral IV
  • B. Dilute it in a 10 mL saline flush syringe and give it IV push
  • C. Give it IV push, then flush with saline to protect the vein
  • D. Do not give it. Contact the prescriber and pharmacy to clarify the order for a properly diluted infusion
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. The manufacturer's warning is blunt: direct injection of potassium chloride concentrate may be instantly fatal. The concentrate must be diluted before use, and potassium solutions must not be infused rapidly. An IV push order for concentrate can't be given as written.

Why not the others:

  • A: Pushing it slowly is still direct injection of the concentrate.
  • B: A syringe push is still rapid administration. Preparing the dilution belongs in the proper order-and-pharmacy process.
  • C: Flushing afterward doesn't make an undiluted push safe.

Source: Pfizer prescribing information — Potassium Chloride for Injection Concentrate, Warnings, Warnings: Potentially Fatal Cardiac Adverse Reactions with Undiluted Intravenous Administration.

Question 12 of 50

Professional Concepts · Communication · CMSRN-PR02

The charge nurse says, "Maria, please do the 1600 glucose check on room 7 and tell me the result." Maria replies, "Room 7, 1600 glucose check, and I'll report the result to you." What completes the check-back?

  • A. Maria does the task. No further reply is needed
  • B. The charge nurse confirms, "That's correct"
  • C. The charge nurse gives Maria a different task without confirming this message
  • D. Maria writes the task on the unit whiteboard
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. Check-back is a closed loop. The sender gives the message, the receiver repeats it, and the sender confirms it's correct. The loop isn't closed until that confirmation.

Why not the others:

  • A: Without the sender's confirmation, a misheard detail could go unnoticed.
  • C: A new instruction does not confirm that the previous message was received accurately.
  • D: Writing it down may help, but it doesn't close the loop.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 7, Check-Back.

Question 13 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Leadership · CMSRN-TC03

A unit launches bedside shift report. In the first week, several nurses ask, "Why are we doing this? The old way worked fine." Using the ADKAR model, which element should the manager address first?

  • A. Awareness: explain why the change is needed
  • B. Knowledge: schedule more training on the report steps
  • C. Ability: observe report at the bedside and coach technique
  • D. Reinforcement: recognize nurses who use the new process
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. Prosci's ADKAR model says to find the earliest element that's missing and work on that first. "Why are we doing this?" means Awareness, the first building block, is missing.

Why not the others:

  • B: More instruction on the steps doesn't answer why the change is needed.
  • C: Technique coaching doesn't answer the stated question about why the change is needed.
  • D: Reinforcement sustains a change people have already adopted.

Source: Prosci — The ADKAR Model, Five elements; focus on the earliest barrier point.

Question 14 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Pain Management · CMSRN-PC05

Forty minutes after IV morphine, a postoperative patient is hard to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 7/min with shallow breaths. What is the nurse's priority?

  • A. Let the patient sleep, since rest means the pain is controlled
  • B. Give the next scheduled dose early so pain doesn't break through when she wakes
  • C. Stay with the patient, stimulate and support her breathing, and call for emergency help under the facility's protocol
  • D. Recheck the respiratory rate in one hour
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. The morphine label warns that respiratory depression can progress to respiratory arrest and death if it isn't recognized and treated immediately. Management may include close observation, supportive measures, and an opioid antagonist, depending on the patient's status.

Why not the others:

  • A: Being hard to arouse with slow, shallow breathing is not normal sleep.
  • B: More opioid would deepen the respiratory depression.
  • D: Waiting an hour could allow respiratory arrest.

Source: Pfizer prescribing information — Morphine Sulfate Injection, Warnings and Precautions, §5.2 Life-Threatening Respiratory Depression.

Question 15 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Patient-Centered Care · CMSRN-HC03

During admission, a patient mentions that her faith shapes what she eats, but she doesn't say how. The current order is a standard diet. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Order the meal plan most people of her stated faith follow
  • B. Keep the standard diet, since religious preferences aren't part of the medical plan
  • C. Ask the chaplain to decide which diet is appropriate
  • D. Ask her what her beliefs mean for her meals, then plan with her and the dietary team
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. AHRQ describes the patient as the expert on herself and asks clinicians to build plans that fit her culture and beliefs. Asking her directly avoids guessing.

Why not the others:

  • A: Practices vary from person to person. Assuming from a group label is stereotyping.
  • B: Ignoring a stated preference works against patient-centered care.
  • C: A chaplain may help, but the patient is the one who can say what she needs.

Source: AHRQ — Consider Culture: Tool 10 (3rd edition, 2024), Overview and actions: recognize patients' expertise about themselves.

Question 16 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Delegation and Supervision · CMSRN-TC04

The plan of care for a stable patient says blood pressure may be taken on the right arm only. The RN is handing routine vital signs to a competent PCT under applicable rules and facility policy. Which instruction best meets the "right directions and communication" part of delegation?

  • A. "Get vitals on 12 when you can, and let me know if anything looks off."
  • B. "Take vitals on 12 by 1000, using the right arm only for blood pressure. Tell me right away if the systolic is under 100 mmHg or the heart rate is over 110 beats/min."
  • C. "Take vitals on 12 and chart them. I'll look later."
  • D. "Take vitals on 12 and decide whether she needs her 1000 blood pressure pill."
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. Right directions means specific instructions. That includes which data to collect, the time frame for reporting it, patient-specific limits (the guidelines' own example is "no blood draws in the right arm"), and exactly what to report back.

Why not the others:

  • A: "Anything off" gives no report parameters.
  • C: There's no reporting expectation, so an abnormal value could sit unread.
  • D: Deciding whether to give a medication is nursing judgment and can't be delegated.

Keep in mind: Report thresholds come from the RN's plan for this patient; the ones in option B are an example.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), pp. 4 and 7: Right directions and communication; licensed nurse responsibilities.

Question 17 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Infection Prevention · CMSRN-PC06

On day 5 of IV antibiotics, a patient has had four loose stools since midnight. He has had no laxatives or stool softeners. A C. diff test has been sent and is pending. What should the nurse do now?

  • A. Start contact precautions in a single room with a dedicated toilet, per facility protocol, while the test is pending
  • B. Wait for the test result before starting precautions
  • C. Use standard precautions only until diarrhea is confirmed to be infectious
  • D. Room the patient with another patient who has diarrhea of unknown cause
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. CDC guidance says to isolate patients with suspected C. diff and start contact precautions while evaluation continues. Symptomatic patients go in a single room with a dedicated toilet.

Why not the others:

  • B: Waiting for results lets spores spread in the meantime.
  • C: CDC calls for isolation of suspected cases, not just standard precautions.
  • D: If single rooms run out, CDC says to room together only patients with confirmed C. diff.

Source: CDC — Clinical Guidance for C. diff Infection Prevention in Acute Care Facilities, Isolate and initiate contact precautions; CDC — Isolation Precautions Guideline (2007), Part III, III.B.1 Contact precautions.

Question 18 of 50

Professional Concepts · Communication · CMSRN-PR03

A nurse sees a physician about to perform a nonemergency central-line insertion without a full-body sterile drape. She says, "I'm concerned. We need a full-body drape." The physician keeps going. She repeats the concern clearly, and he says, "It's fine." What should she do next?

  • A. Stay quiet and document the breach afterward
  • B. Leave the room so she isn't part of the breach
  • C. Take stronger action: stop the procedure if she can do so safely, and escalate through the chain of command
  • D. Wait until the procedure is over and discuss it privately
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. Under the Two-Challenge Rule, if a concern is voiced twice and the safety issue still isn't addressed, the team member takes stronger action, brings in others, and uses the supervisor or chain of command. A full-body sterile drape is part of CDC's maximal sterile barrier precautions for line insertion.

Why not the others:

  • A: Documenting after the fact doesn't protect this patient.
  • B: Leaving removes a safety check without stopping the breach.
  • D: By then the line has already been placed with a broken sterile field.

Keep in mind: An immediate threat to patient safety requires prompt protective action; do not delay it just to complete a scripted number of challenges.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 25, Two-Challenge Rule; CDC — Checklist for Prevention of Central Line Associated Blood Stream Infections, Insertion: maximal sterile barrier precautions.

Question 19 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Documentation · CMSRN-IP03

The electronic health record (EHR) goes down unexpectedly at 0200, and the facility activates its approved paper-documentation downtime plan. A nurse needs to document a 0300 medication and an assessment. What should she do?

  • A. Keep notes on her phone and enter them when the system is back
  • B. Hold all documentation and chart it from memory at the end of the shift
  • C. Skip routine documentation until the EHR returns
  • D. Document at the time of care on the facility's approved downtime paper forms, then follow the recovery process to get the information into the EHR
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. The SAFER Contingency Planning guide expects paper forms to be available to replace key EHR functions during downtime, with staff trained on downtime and recovery procedures. Charting when care happens keeps the record accurate.

Why not the others:

  • A: Personal-phone notes are outside the approved paper-documentation process specified here.
  • B: Charting from memory hours later invites errors.
  • C: Care still has to be recorded, and the next nurse needs it.

Source: ONC/ASTP — SAFER Guide: Contingency Planning (2025), PDF p. 12, Recommended Practice 1.3: paper forms and reconciliation after EHR restart; p. 15, Recommended Practice 2.1.

Question 20 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Infection Prevention · CMSRN-PC07

Three days after hip surgery, a patient can stand to void and has no urinary retention. His indwelling urinary catheter has no documented ongoing indication, and the unit's nurse-driven removal protocol applies. A colleague suggests keeping it "so we can get a urine culture easily later." What is the best response?

  • A. Keep it until discharge to save trips to the bathroom
  • B. Remove it under the protocol. Collecting a urine specimen isn't a reason to keep a catheter in a patient who can void
  • C. Keep it and change the drainage bag daily to lower infection risk
  • D. Keep it and ask for a preventive antibiotic
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. CDC's CAUTI guideline says to leave catheters in only as long as needed. It lists obtaining urine for culture from a patient who can void as an inappropriate reason for an indwelling catheter.

Why not the others:

  • A: Convenience isn't an indication.
  • C: CDC doesn't recommend changing drainage bags at routine, fixed intervals.
  • D: CDC advises against routine systemic antibiotics to prevent CAUTI.

Source: CDC — CAUTI Guideline: Summary of Recommendations, I.A and examples of inappropriate uses; III (maintenance and antimicrobials).

Case study: questions 21–23
Mr. Okafor, 81, was admitted to a CMS-participating hospital two days ago with pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics through a peripheral IV in his left forearm. Tonight he is newly confused. He keeps picking at the IV and has pulled at the tape twice. He is not aggressive toward staff, and his vital signs and oxygen saturation are unchanged from the evening check.

Question 21 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Patient Safety · CMSRN-PC08

Based on the case above, what should the nurse do first?

  • A. Apply bilateral soft wrist restraints to protect the IV
  • B. Give the as-needed sleep medication ordered for insomnia so he settles
  • C. Assess the new confusion promptly, notify the provider, and use less restrictive measures such as reorientation and closer observation under facility policy
  • D. Apply a vest restraint so both arms stay free
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. New confusion needs prompt assessment for possible causes and the provider's attention. Under CMS hospital rules, restraint is limited to protecting immediate physical safety when less restrictive interventions are ineffective. When it is used, it must be the least restrictive option that works. Pulling at an IV does not by itself establish that restraint is necessary.

Why not the others:

  • A: This skips assessment and less restrictive options without establishing the immediate physical danger that would justify restraint.
  • B: Giving an insomnia medication to settle him does not assess the new confusion. A medication used to restrict behavior or movement, rather than as standard treatment or dosage for his condition, can meet the rule's definition of restraint.
  • D: A vest is still a restraint; this option also skips assessment of need and less restrictive measures.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(e) introductory text; (e)(1)(i)(B), (e)(2), and (e)(3); MedlinePlus (NIH) — Delirium, How is delirium diagnosed?; What are the treatments for delirium?.

Question 22 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Patient Safety · CMSRN-PC09

(Uses the case study above question 21.)

Despite those measures, Mr. Okafor pulls out the IV, and it has to be restarted. The provider enters this order: "Soft wrist restraints PRN for pulling at lines." What should the nurse do?

  • A. Contact the provider to clarify, because restraint orders can't be written as PRN
  • B. Apply restraints whenever he reaches for the IV, as the order allows
  • C. Apply restraints now and keep them on until morning rounds
  • D. Ask the family to sign consent for PRN restraints
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. Federal rules say restraint orders must never be written as a standing order or on an as-needed (PRN) basis. Any restraint must also be removed at the earliest possible time.

Why not the others:

  • B: This follows an order the rule doesn't allow.
  • C: Restraint ends at the earliest possible time, not at a set time like morning rounds.
  • D: Family consent doesn't make a PRN order acceptable.

Keep in mind: A valid order alone does not establish that restraints are necessary. Immediate physical safety, ineffective less restrictive measures, and continued need must also be assessed; restraints end at the earliest possible time.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(e) introductory text, (e)(2)–(3), (e)(6), and (e)(9).

Question 23 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Documentation · CMSRN-IP04

(Uses the case study above question 21.)

During a chart review after restraint use, the nurse finds documentation of Mr. Okafor's behavior, the less restrictive measures attempted, the restraint applied, and his response. The note says only "needed to protect the IV" to explain why restraint was used and continued. Which documentation issue should the nurse identify?

  • A. A valid restraint order makes further explanation of necessity unnecessary
  • B. The word "confused" is enough to establish why restraint was necessary
  • C. The note should list staffing convenience as the reason to continue restraint
  • D. The record must identify the condition or symptoms that warranted restraint to protect immediate physical safety and explain why continued use was needed
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. The record must describe the patient's behavior and the intervention used, less restrictive measures tried as applicable, the condition or symptoms that warranted restraint, and the patient's response, including the rationale for continued use. An IV-protection label alone does not explain the immediate physical safety need or continued necessity.

Why not the others:

  • A: An order does not replace documentation of the clinical indication, response, and continued need.
  • B: Confusion alone does not identify the physical danger or establish why restraint was necessary.
  • C: Restraint for staff convenience is prohibited outright.

Keep in mind: This is a documentation review, not a conclusion that restraints were indicated for Mr. Okafor.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(e) introductory text and (e)(16)(ii)–(v).

Question 24 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Patient-Centered Care · CMSRN-HC04

An alert, oriented adult who can make his own decisions refuses his scheduled bowel prep and colonoscopy, saying he's scared. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Start the prep anyway, since he signed consent yesterday
  • B. Explore his concerns, make sure he has the information he needs, notify the provider, and document his decision
  • C. Tell him the hospital requires him to complete ordered tests
  • D. Ask his daughter to override his decision
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. CMS patient-rights rules protect a patient's right to make informed decisions, including the right to request or refuse treatment. Advocacy here means addressing his fear and making sure the decision is informed and communicated.

Why not the others:

  • A: A patient can withdraw consent.
  • C: This misstates his rights.
  • D: A capable adult's decision isn't handed to family.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(b)(2).

Question 25 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Delegation and Supervision · CMSRN-TC05

Under applicable state rules and facility policy, an RN delegates a blood glucose check on a stable patient to a PCT who is competent to do it. The PCT gets busy and asks another PCT to do it instead. Which statement is correct?

  • A. The PCT should not pass the task on. She should tell the RN, who decides how to reassign it
  • B. Passing it on is fine as long as both PCTs are trained
  • C. The second PCT now becomes accountable for the patient
  • D. The RN is no longer responsible once the task is delegated
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. The ANA–NCSBN guidelines are explicit: the delegatee can't delegate to another person. If she can't complete the task, she tells the licensed nurse, who decides what happens next.

Why not the others:

  • B: Only a licensed nurse can delegate.
  • C: The licensed nurse keeps overall accountability for the patient.
  • D: Delegating doesn't transfer the RN's accountability.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), pp. 8–9, Delegatee responsibilities 4.

Question 26 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Medication Management · CMSRN-PC10

A peripheral IV running normal saline only is warm, red, and tender along the vein, with a firm cord above the insertion site. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Slow the infusion and reassess in 4 hours
  • B. Put on a new transparent dressing and keep using the site
  • C. Stop the infusion, remove the peripheral catheter, and get new access at another site if therapy is still needed
  • D. Flush the catheter firmly to clear it
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. The CDC/HICPAC guideline says to remove a peripheral venous catheter when signs of phlebitis appear: warmth, tenderness, redness, or a palpable venous cord.

Why not the others:

  • A: Slowing the rate leaves an inflamed catheter in place.
  • B: A new dressing doesn't treat the phlebitis.
  • D: Flushing does not correct phlebitis or replace the indicated catheter removal.

Keep in mind: This item covers a peripheral line with a non-vesicant fluid. Suspected vesicant extravasation and central lines follow their own protocols.

Source: CDC/HICPAC — Guidelines for the Prevention of Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections (2011; October 2017 update), PDF p. 9, Peripheral Catheters and Midline Catheters, recommendation 7.

Question 27 of 50

Professional Concepts · Quality Management · CMSRN-PR04

Before giving a medication, a nurse notices the pharmacy-labeled syringe is for a different patient. Nothing reached the patient, and the correct dose has been obtained. What should the nurse do next?

  • A. Nothing more, since no harm occurred
  • B. Mention it informally to the pharmacist and skip the report
  • C. Report it only if it happens again
  • D. Report the near miss through the facility's safety event reporting system
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. AHRQ PSNet explains that reporting near misses, not just adverse events, lets organizations find weak spots and build prevention before someone is harmed.

Why not the others:

  • A: No harm this time doesn't mean the process is safe.
  • B: An informal mention leaves no record for the organization to learn from.
  • C: Waiting for a repeat defeats the purpose.

Source: AHRQ PSNet — Strategies and Approaches for Investigating Patient Safety Events, Incident Reporting Systems; AHRQ PSNet — Reporting Patient Safety Events, Background.

Question 28 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Nursing Process/Clinical Judgement Measurement Model · CMSRN-IP05

A patient who has been on contact precautions for several days tells the nurse, "Nobody comes in unless they have to. I feel forgotten." Which action best individualizes her care?

  • A. Cluster care to limit room entries, since fewer entries reduce transmission
  • B. Acknowledge her feelings, schedule regular check-ins within precautions, and add her concern to the care plan
  • C. End precautions early to improve her mood
  • D. Explain that isolation is required and nothing can be changed
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. CDC's isolation guideline says staff must work to counteract the adverse effects of transmission-based precautions. It names anxiety, depression, and reduced contact with staff.

Why not the others:

  • A: This deepens the exact problem she's describing.
  • C: Precautions end based on infection risk, not mood.
  • D: Something can be done: more contact within the precautions.

Source: CDC — Isolation Precautions Guideline (2007), Part III, III.B Transmission-Based Precautions (adverse effects paragraph).

Question 29 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Infection Prevention / Medication Management · CMSRN-PC11

A nurse draws 2 mL from a 10 mL single-dose vial for one patient. A coworker suggests using the rest for another patient's dose with a new needle and syringe. What is correct?

  • A. Don't use it for a second patient. Single-dose vials are for one patient, and leftover contents aren't saved
  • B. It's fine, because the needle and syringe are new
  • C. It's fine if the second dose is drawn up within 1 hour
  • D. Store the vial in the medication room for the same patient's next dose
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. CDC says never to use single-dose vials for more than one patient. Don't keep them for later, even for the same patient, and don't combine or store leftover contents.

Why not the others:

  • B: New equipment doesn't make the leftover contents safe to share.
  • C: No time window makes sharing acceptable.
  • D: CDC says not to retain it for future use, even for the same patient.

Source: CDC — Preventing Unsafe Injection Practices, Single-dose vials.

Question 30 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Palliative/End-of-Life Care · CMSRN-HC05

A patient receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer is offered a palliative care consult for pain and fatigue. She asks, "Does this mean I have to stop my treatment?" Which reply is accurate?

  • A. "Yes. Palliative care starts when cancer treatment stops."
  • B. "Palliative care and hospice are the same thing."
  • C. "No. Palliative care can be given alongside your cancer treatment to help with symptoms and side effects."
  • D. "Only people expected to live less than six months can get palliative care."
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. The National Cancer Institute says palliative care can be given with or without curative care. It's available to anyone, at any age or stage of disease.

Why not the others:

  • A: Palliative care doesn't require stopping treatment.
  • B: Hospice includes palliative care, but palliative care isn't limited to hospice.
  • D: There's no life-expectancy requirement for palliative care.

Source: National Cancer Institute — Palliative Care in Cancer, What is palliative care?.

Question 31 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Disaster Planning and Management · CMSRN-TC06

During a mass-casualty incident, the hospital activates an incident command system using standard ICS section roles. A unit needs more IV pumps, linens, and meals for staff. Which section coordinates these operational support resources, rather than tracking their costs?

  • A. Operations
  • B. Logistics
  • C. Planning
  • D. Finance/Administration
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. In the incident command structure, the Logistics Section manages resources, including supplies, personnel, and equipment.

Why not the others:

  • A: Operations carries out the response work itself, such as patient care.
  • C: Planning collects and analyzes information and maintains documentation.
  • D: Finance/Administration monitors costs and handles accounting and procurement records.

Source: FEMA Emergency Management Institute — ICS General Staff (IS-362), General Staff: Logistics, Operations, Planning, and Finance/Administration roles.

Question 32 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Infection Prevention · CMSRN-PC12

A patient admitted for weight loss has had a cough for two months, night sweats, and blood-streaked sputum. Sputum tests for tuberculosis are pending. Which precautions should the nurse start?

  • A. Standard precautions until the sputum results return
  • B. Droplet precautions, with staff wearing a surgical mask
  • C. Contact precautions, with gown and gloves
  • D. Airborne precautions in an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR), with staff using a fit-tested N95 or an appropriate higher-level respirator
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. CDC places M. tuberculosis under Airborne Precautions, with an AIIR as the preferred room. Precautions start empirically, based on the clinical picture, while tests are pending.

Why not the others:

  • A: Waiting for results exposes others.
  • B: Droplet precautions don't protect against airborne spread.
  • C: Contact precautions don't address the airborne route.

Source: CDC — Isolation Precautions Guideline (2007), Part III, III.B.3 Airborne precautions; III.C Syndromic and empiric applications; CDC — Tuberculosis Infection Control, Respiratory Protection Controls; respiratory protection program and fit testing.

Question 33 of 50

Professional Concepts · Healthy Practice Environment / Scope of Practice and Ethics · CMSRN-PR05

Near the end of a hectic shift, a coworker asks a nurse to chart a set of vital signs for a patient "since they're always normal," even though they weren't taken. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Decline to chart data that wasn't collected, take the vital signs if they're still needed, and raise the concern through appropriate channels
  • B. Chart the usual values this once, since the patient has been stable
  • C. Chart the values and add a note that they were estimated
  • D. Leave the vital signs blank and say nothing
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. ANA's Code of Ethics names requests to falsify records as a threat to a nurse's integrity. It says nurses have an obligation to voice concern when patterns in the workplace erode the ethical environment.

Why not the others:

  • B: This falsifies the record.
  • C: Estimated values presented as vital signs are still not real data.
  • D: Silence leaves the care gap and the falsification request unaddressed.

Source: ANA — 2025 Code of Ethics for Nurses, Provision 5.3, Provision 5.3 interpretive statement.

Question 34 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Interprofessional Collaboration / Care Coordination · CMSRN-IP06

At 1900, a day-shift RN transfers responsibility for five patients to the night-shift RN. Under the ANA–NCSBN delegation guidelines, what is this transfer called?

  • A. Delegation
  • B. Assignment to assistive personnel
  • C. A handoff
  • D. Supervision
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. The guidelines say they don't apply when responsibility for a patient moves between licensed providers, such as RN to RN. That transfer is a handoff.

Why not the others:

  • A: Delegation hands a specific task to a delegatee while the delegator keeps accountability.
  • B: The receiver here is an RN, not assistive personnel.
  • D: Supervision is part of delegation, not a transfer of responsibility.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), p. 1, Note under Purpose.

Question 35 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Patient Safety · CMSRN-PC13

Two nurses on different shifts make the same slip: each grabs the wrong concentration from look-alike bags stored side by side. One patient has no harm; the other needs extra monitoring. In a just culture, how should leaders respond?

  • A. Discipline the nurse whose patient needed monitoring, and counsel the other
  • B. Respond the same way to both, based on the behavior (a slip), and fix the look-alike storage
  • C. Take no action, since slips can't be prevented
  • D. Suspend both nurses to show errors aren't tolerated
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. AHRQ PSNet explains that in a just culture, the response depends on the type of behavior, not on how severe the outcome was. A slip is human error. The response is to address the system issue that set it up, here the storage.

Why not the others:

  • A: This punishes the outcome, not the behavior.
  • C: The storage problem can and should be fixed.
  • D: Punishing a slip discourages reporting and ignores the system cause.

Source: AHRQ PSNet — Culture of Safety primer, Just culture section.

Question 36 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Patient-Centered Care · CMSRN-HC06

A patient tells the nurse, "I want to file a formal complaint about how the night staff treated me." What should the nurse do?

  • A. Suggest he fill out the satisfaction survey after discharge
  • B. Promise him the night staff will be disciplined
  • C. Suggest he wait until he's calmer and see whether it still matters
  • D. Tell him how to submit a grievance through the hospital's process, including whom to contact, and notify the charge nurse or manager per policy
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. CMS requires hospitals to have a grievance process and to tell each patient whom to contact to file a grievance. The nurse connects him to that process.

Why not the others:

  • A: A survey isn't the grievance process he asked for.
  • B: The nurse can't promise an outcome of a review that hasn't happened.
  • C: This discourages a complaint he's entitled to make.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(a)(2).

Question 37 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Leadership · CMSRN-TC07

After training and coaching, staff used a new fall-risk huddle consistently for two months. They can explain why it matters, still support the change, and can demonstrate the steps. No new workflow barrier has emerged. Leaders then stopped feedback and follow-up, and use has slid back to old habits. Which ADKAR element needs attention?

  • A. Reinforcement
  • B. Awareness
  • C. Knowledge
  • D. Desire
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. In ADKAR, Reinforcement sustains a change and prevents backsliding. Here, understanding, support, and ability are established; ongoing reinforcement is the missing element.

Why not the others:

  • B: They can explain why the change matters.
  • C: They can demonstrate the steps.
  • D: They still support the change.

Source: Prosci — The ADKAR Model, Five elements.

Question 38 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Patient Safety · CMSRN-PC14

A unit will switch to a new smart infusion pump next month. The manager wants to find where the new process could fail before any patient is harmed. Which method fits best?

  • A. Root cause analysis (RCA)
  • B. A review of last year's incident reports
  • C. Failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA)
  • D. Peer review of individual nurses
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. FMEA looks ahead. It identifies how a process could fail, then prioritizes and fixes the weak points before anyone is hurt. That's exactly the manager's goal.

Why not the others:

  • A: RCA looks back at an event that has already happened.
  • B: Past reports can inform the analysis, but reviewing them alone is not a systematic prospective assessment of the new workflow.
  • D: Peer review looks at individual practice, not the process.

Source: AHRQ PSNet — Strategies and Approaches for Investigating Patient Safety Events, Root Cause Analysis; Failure Modes and Effects Analysis.

Question 39 of 50

Professional Concepts · Healthy Practice Environment · CMSRN-PR06

A nurse is asked to stay four extra hours after a 12-hour shift. She slept poorly, skipped meals, and took a sedating antihistamine this morning. She is struggling to stay alert and judges that she cannot safely work the extra hours. Her unit uses the TeamSTEPPS I'M SAFE checklist. What should she do?

  • A. Stay, and drink coffee to stay alert
  • B. Stay, but quietly take only the lowest-acuity patients
  • C. Stay, since declining extra hours looks unsupportive
  • D. Tell the charge nurse she can't safely work the extra hours today
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. TeamSTEPPS describes I'M SAFE as a checklist for deciding whether you, or a teammate, can perform safely. It prompts consideration of factors such as medication, fatigue, and eating; it does not assign a numerical cutoff. Her stated difficulty staying alert and inability to work safely support raising the concern now.

Why not the others:

  • A: Promising to drink coffee does not resolve her identified difficulty staying alert.
  • B: Even low-acuity patients need a nurse who can work safely, and the team needs to know.
  • C: Speaking up about fitness to work supports the team.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 19, I'M SAFE Checklist.

Question 40 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Interprofessional Collaboration · CMSRN-IP07

Midway through a day shift, two admissions arrive at once and one patient transfers to the ICU. The team's start-of-shift plan no longer fits the workload. No one needs emergency rescue right now. What should the charge nurse do?

  • A. Wait for the end-of-shift debrief to discuss what happened
  • B. Call a brief huddle to update priorities, assignments, and the plan
  • C. Keep the original assignments so no one gets confused
  • D. Hold a full staff meeting after the next shift change
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. TeamSTEPPS describes a huddle as an ad hoc meeting to re-establish situation awareness and adjust the plan as conditions change.

Why not the others:

  • A: A debrief reviews performance afterward. It doesn't fix the current plan.
  • C: The old plan no longer matches the work.
  • D: That's far too late to help this shift.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 13, Effective Team Event Tools.

Question 41 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Infection Prevention / Medication Management · CMSRN-PC15

Before giving an IV medication through a central line's needleless connector, what should the nurse do?

  • A. Scrub the access hub with friction using an appropriate antiseptic immediately before accessing it
  • B. Wipe the hub once at the start of the shift to cover the whole shift
  • C. Skip cleaning, since the connector cap stays closed between uses
  • D. Flush first, then clean the hub after the medication is given
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. CDC's CLABSI prevention checklist says to scrub the access port or hub with friction immediately before each use, using an appropriate antiseptic.

Why not the others:

  • B: Once per shift doesn't cover every access.
  • C: A closed connector can still be contaminated.
  • D: Cleaning afterward is too late. The hub is entered during the flush.

Source: CDC — Checklist for Prevention of Central Line Associated Blood Stream Infections, Handle and maintain central lines appropriately.

Question 42 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Palliative/End-of-Life Care · CMSRN-HC07

A ventilated patient's death is imminent under the hospital's agreed OPO referral protocol. The family is at the bedside. The nurse is not a trained designated requestor. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Ask the family now whether they would consider organ donation
  • B. Wait until death is declared, then notify the organ procurement organization (OPO)
  • C. Notify the OPO under the hospital's protocol, and leave the formal donation request to the OPO representative or a trained designated requestor
  • D. Ask the physician to decide whether the patient is a suitable donor before calling the OPO
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. CMS requires hospitals to notify their OPO in a timely way about patients whose death is imminent or who have died. Only an OPO representative or a trained designated requestor may start the donation request with the family.

Why not the others:

  • A: This nurse isn't a designated requestor.
  • B: Imminent death already triggers notification.
  • D: The OPO determines medical suitability for organ donation, not the bedside team.

Source: 42 CFR 482.45 — Organ, tissue, and eye procurement (eCFR), §482.45(a)(1) and (a)(3).

Question 43 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Career Development Relationships / Professional Development · CMSRN-TC08

An RN asks a new PCT to remove a patient's peripheral IV. Applicable state rules and unit policy permit PCTs to do that task after competency validation. The PCT says she hasn't been trained or checked off yet. What is the best response?

  • A. Coach her through it verbally from the doorway
  • B. Have her watch a video, then do it
  • C. Tell her it's simple and she should try
  • D. Accept her decline, do it yourself or assign someone competent, and let the unit leader know she needs training
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. The guidelines say a delegatee accepts only tasks she is trained and competent to do and tells leadership when training is missing. The employer provides training and competency validation. If delegation isn't appropriate, the RN does the task.

Why not the others:

  • A: Coaching doesn't replace competency validation.
  • B: A video isn't validated competence.
  • C: This pressures her into an unsafe task.

Source: ANA–NCSBN — National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (2019), pp. 6–8: Employer responsibility 5; Licensed nurse responsibilities; Delegatee responsibility 1.

Question 44 of 50

Patient/Care Management · Nutrition · CMSRN-PC16

A patient receiving chemotherapy has painful mouth sores. He swallows safely and has no other diet restrictions. Which lunch is the best choice?

  • A. Toasted sandwich with potato chips and orange juice
  • B. Scrambled eggs, mashed potatoes, and a glass of cool milk
  • C. Spicy chicken curry with rice
  • D. Raw vegetable salad with vinaigrette
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. The American Cancer Society advises soft, moist, bland foods for mouth sores. It says to avoid spicy, salty, and acidic foods, raw vegetables, and hard, dry, or crusty foods.

Why not the others:

  • A: Toast and chips are crusty, and orange juice is acidic.
  • C: Spicy food irritates mouth sores.
  • D: Raw vegetables are rough, and vinegar is acidic.

Source: American Cancer Society — What to Do for Mouth Sores (revised January 2026), When you eat.

Question 45 of 50

Professional Concepts · Critical Thinking · CMSRN-PR07

At the start of shift, a charge nurse runs through STEP. She notes that the unit's only bariatric lift is out of service and that there are no open beds for tonight's expected admissions. Which part of STEP is she assessing?

  • A. Status of the patient
  • B. Team members
  • C. Environment
  • D. Progress toward the goal
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. In TeamSTEPPS, the Environment part of STEP covers facility information, administrative information, human resources, triage acuity, and equipment. A broken lift and a full unit are both environment factors.

Why not the others:

  • A: Status covers the patient's history, vital signs, medications, and plan.
  • B: Team members covers the unit team's own fatigue, workload, skill, and stress.
  • D: Progress covers whether the team is meeting its goals and whether the plan still fits.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 18, STEP.

Question 46 of 50

Elements of Interprofessional Care · Documentation · CMSRN-IP08

A patient asks for a copy of his current medical record, including this admission, in electronic form. The hospital keeps its records electronically. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Route the request through the hospital's records-access process. He has the right to his records, in the form he asks for if it's readily producible
  • B. Tell him records can only be released after discharge
  • C. Tell him his physician must approve the request first
  • D. Provide a paper copy instead without checking whether the requested electronic format is readily producible
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. CMS rules give patients the right to access their current records on oral or written request. The hospital must provide them in the form and format requested if they're readily producible, within a reasonable time, and must not frustrate the request.

Why not the others:

  • B: The right covers current records, not just records after discharge.
  • C: The rule doesn't add a physician-approval step.
  • D: This substitutes a different format without checking whether the requested electronic format can be provided.

Source: 42 CFR 482.13 — Condition of participation: Patient's rights (eCFR), §482.13(d)(2).

Question 47 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Career Development Relationships · CMSRN-TC09

A preceptor notices that her orientee's SBAR calls to providers leave out a clear request. The calls have been safe but slow. Which feedback approach is best?

  • A. Wait until the orientee's 90-day evaluation to bring it up
  • B. Tell the orientee, in front of the team, that her calls are disorganized
  • C. Say "You're doing great!" to protect her confidence
  • D. Soon after the next call, point out the specific missing piece privately, explain its effect, and agree on how she'll include it next time
Show answer and rationale

Answer: D. TeamSTEPPS describes good formative feedback as timely, respectful, specific, directed toward improvement, and considerate. Choice D has all of those.

Why not the others:

  • A: This isn't timely.
  • B: This isn't respectful or specific.
  • C: This isn't directed toward improvement.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 23, Formative Feedback.

Question 48 of 50

Holistic Patient Care · Education of Patients and Families / Health Promotion · CMSRN-HC08

A patient with diabetes reports several treated low-glucose episodes over the past week. His glucose is currently in his usual target range and he feels well. Which statement shows he understands the next step for preventing repeated lows?

  • A. "I will stop all insulin on my own until I have a week without a low."
  • B. "I will contact my diabetes care team, share my glucose readings and details about medicines, meals, and activity, and follow their advice before changing my medicines."
  • C. "I do not need to tell anyone because each episode improved after treatment."
  • D. "I will report only the glucose numbers; my medicine timing, meals, and activity do not matter."
Show answer and rationale

Answer: B. CDC advises contacting the doctor when low blood sugar occurs and sharing records of glucose levels, medicines, food, and physical activity. The care team can use that information to review the plan. The patient should not change medicines without advice from the treating clinician.

Why not the others:

  • A: An independent medication change is not the recommended response; the treating team needs to review the pattern and plan.
  • C: Successfully treating an episode does not explain why lows are recurring or remove the need to discuss them.
  • D: Medicine, meal, and activity information helps the clinician interpret the glucose pattern.

Keep in mind: This question concerns follow-up after treated episodes. A new low or inability to swallow safely requires prompt treatment through the appropriate hypoglycemia pathway.

Source: CDC — Treatment of Low Blood Sugar (Hypoglycemia), Preventing low blood sugar.

Question 49 of 50

Professional Concepts · Quality Management · CMSRN-PR08

A quality report defines fall rate as falls ÷ patient-days × 1,000. Last quarter, Unit A had 5 falls in 2,500 patient-days, and Unit B had 4 falls in 1,000 patient-days. Which statement is accurate? (The data are fictional.)

  • A. Unit A has the higher fall rate, because it had more falls
  • B. The two units have the same fall rate
  • C. Unit A's rate is 2.0 and Unit B's is 4.0 falls per 1,000 patient-days, so Unit B's observed rate is twice Unit A's
  • D. Unit A's rate is 5.0 and Unit B's is 4.0 falls per 1,000 patient-days
Show answer and rationale

Answer: C. Unit A: 5 ÷ 2,500 × 1,000 = 2.0. Unit B: 4 ÷ 1,000 × 1,000 = 4.0. Dividing by patient-days puts units of different sizes on the same scale.

Why not the others:

  • A: This compares raw counts and ignores the denominator.
  • B: The rates are 2.0 and 4.0, not equal.
  • D: This treats raw fall counts as rates.

Keep in mind: These are unadjusted rates. On their own they don't show why the units differ or which one gives better care.

Source: Castleport calculation from the fictional numbers in the question: 5 ÷ 2,500 × 1,000 = 2.0; 4 ÷ 1,000 × 1,000 = 4.0.

Question 50 of 50

Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration · Leadership · CMSRN-TC10

Two nurses keep clashing because one routinely leaves IV pump alarms for the next shift. No patient is in danger right now. Using the DESC script, what should the nurse say first?

  • A. "Last night, three pump alarms were still unresolved at the 0700 handoff."
  • B. "You're always lazy about alarms."
  • C. "If this keeps up, I'm going to report you."
  • D. "Let's agree that pump-alarm problems are addressed and any outstanding concerns are handed over before report ends."
Show answer and rationale

Answer: A. DESC starts with Describe: state the specific situation or behavior, with concrete data. Then come Express (your concern), Suggest (alternatives), and Consequences.

Why not the others:

  • B: A personal label is not an objective description of the behavior.
  • C: This jumps to a threat instead of the patient-focused Consequences step.
  • D: This is the Suggest step, which comes after Describe and Express.

Source: AHRQ — TeamSTEPPS Pocket Guide (Pub. No. 23-0043, rev. May 2023), p. 27, DESC.

Score your set

Record your answer before opening its explanation. Count that first answer as correct or incorrect; do not change the score after reading the rationale. An explanation opened before you chose an answer is review without an attempt, not a wrong answer.

Each row lists the question numbers for one domain. Enter both your correct answers and your attempted answers. Your practice percentage is correct ÷ attempted × 100; use the attempted count for that row, not every question in the domain. With no attempted answers, no percentage is available. A result with fewer than 50 attempted answers is partial. Record skipped questions and answers reviewed without an attempt separately.

The full answer key reveals every answer. Choose and record your responses before opening it; otherwise treat the newly exposed answers as review rather than unassisted attempts.

Score your set
DomainQuestion numbersQuestionsYour correctYour attempted
Patient/Care Management2, 6, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20, 21, 22, 26, 29, 32, 35, 38, 41, 4416______
Holistic Patient Care3, 10, 15, 24, 30, 36, 42, 488______
Elements of Interprofessional Care4, 9, 19, 23, 28, 34, 40, 468______
Professional Concepts5, 12, 18, 27, 33, 39, 45, 498______
Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration1, 7, 13, 16, 25, 31, 37, 43, 47, 5010______
Total50______
Show the full answer key
ASWB exam resource table
#Answer#Answer#Answer#Answer#Answer
1B11D21C31B41A
2C12B22A32D42C
3A13A23D33A43D
4D14C24B34C44B
5C15D25A35B45C
6A16B26C36D46A
7D17A27D37A47D
8B18C28B38C48B
9C19D29A39D49C
10A20B30C40B50A

How this set lines up with the CMSRN exam

The real CMSRN has 150 multiple-choice questions and a three-hour time limit. Only 125 of the 150 count toward your score. The other 25 are unscored pilot questions, and you can't tell which ones they are (MSNCB, CMSRN Certification — Exam Details; CMSRN Certification Handbook, pp. 10–11). The handbook also tells candidates to know how to read case studies, which is why questions 21–23 share one patient.

This set approximates the domain allocation of the 2023 CMSRN Exam Blueprint, active since May 15, 2023:

How this set lines up with the CMSRN exam
DomainExam weightScored questions on the examQuestions in this set
Patient/Care Management32%4016
Holistic Patient Care15%198
Elements of Interprofessional Care17%218
Professional Concepts15%198
Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration21%2610
Total100%12550

The exam weights and scored-question counts are MSNCB's. This set's actual shares are 32%, 16%, 16%, 16%, and 20%, so they do not exactly reproduce all five published weights. The last column is our scaling: 50 ÷ 125 = 0.4, so each domain's official count × 0.4, rounded to whole questions (16, 7.6, 8.4, 7.6, 10.4 become 16, 8, 8, 8, 10).

Notice that 18 of the 50 questions come from Professional Concepts and Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration. That's 36%, the same share those two domains hold on the exam (45 of 125 scored questions). It covers delegation, communication tools, ethics, change management, and disaster roles.

Fifty questions can't cover every topic in the blueprint. This set samples each domain. It doesn't cover every disease, procedure, or leadership concept you could see.

What your score on this set means

Your score tells you which of these 50 questions you missed and why. It can't tell you whether you'd pass.

MSNCB requires a standard score of 95 to pass, which it describes as about 71% correct. Your raw score out of 125 is converted to that standard score so that different exam forms are compared fairly (MSNCB, Exam Details). This set isn't one of those forms. It hasn't been equated to the exam, so a percentage here can't be converted into a CMSRN score.

Domain rows are small too. After all 8 questions in an eight-item domain are attempted, one question moves that result by 12.5 percentage points. Review the concepts behind your misses; a small sample is not a precise measure of what you know about the whole domain.

Reviewing what you missed

Speed isn't the goal. For each miss, write three short lines:

  1. The cue I missed. Which fact in the question decided the answer? It might be the patient's stability, what was already tried, who is licensed to do what, or the exact wording of the order.
  2. Why my choice failed. Use the "Why not the others" note. Some wrong options fit a different situation; others are unsafe or violate the rule being tested.
  3. What to review. Name the rule or concept, then open the linked source.

For example: Cue I missed: the question said a less restrictive step hadn't been tried yet. Why my choice failed: I jumped to the stronger intervention. Review: the least-restrictive principle and when escalation is allowed.

Come back to your missed questions a day or two later and answer them again before you open the rationale.

Timing yourself (optional)

The real exam gives you 180 minutes for 150 questions, an average of 72 seconds per question. At that pace, these 50 questions take 60 minutes. That's our arithmetic, not an MSNCB rule. One option is a timed first pass followed by an untimed review of the rationales. This pacing suggestion does not replace approved exam accommodations.

Official exam resources

MSNCB's CMSRN Resources page links the handbook, the blueprint, and the exam reference list. The handbook says these resources don't include current exam questions, aren't required, and aren't the only or preferred way to prepare (Handbook, p. 21).

Stay away from anything sold as "real" or "recalled" CMSRN questions. MSNCB lists suspected pre-knowledge of test content and sharing exam knowledge among the reasons it may deny or revoke certification (Handbook, Appendix D).

For eligibility, use MSNCB's certification page. For fees, scheduling, and exam-day details, use MSNCB's exam processes page.

Sources and how we checked

Each question lists its source inside its rationale. The exam format, passing standard, and domain weights come from MSNCB's official pages and documents. The answers themselves rest on the clinical guidance, federal regulations, professional standards, and named communication or change models linked in each rationale, not on the blueprint. Federal hospital-rights questions use the CMS hospital Conditions of Participation; language-access questions state when Section 1557 applies. The blueprint tells us what to cover, not what's correct.

Exam facts:

Teaching sources used in the questions:

Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team with AI assistance. Last source-checked: September 23, 2026 — the exam facts and the passages cited in the question explanations. This version has no documented named professional review; source checking is not clinical or psychometric review. See how we verify exam claims, our reviewer status, and our corrections log.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Medical-Surgical Nursing Certification Board (MSNCB) or the Academy of Medical-Surgical Nurses (AMSN). CMSRN and other exam and credential names are used only to identify the exam discussed; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and unofficial, not actual exam questions. Passing, a particular score, and certification are not guaranteed.