Free PTCB Practice Test: 80 Questions
This free PTCB practice test has 80 original, unofficial questions—not a full-length PTCE or a pass predictor—and requires no signup. Pick an answer, then open the explanation.
Practice questions
Question 1 of 80
A liquid contains 125 mg per 5 mL. The prescribed dose is 250 mg. How many milliliters provide one dose?
- A. 2.5 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 10 mL
- D. 20 mL
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O01
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 10 mL. 250 mg × (5 mL ÷ 125 mg) = 10 mL. Quick check: the liquid has 25 mg in each mL, so 10 mL holds 250 mg.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 2.5 mL holds only 62.5 mg.
- B: 5 mL holds 125 mg, half the dose.
- D: 20 mL holds 500 mg, double the dose.
Takeaway: Dose ÷ concentration, with units on every line.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (250 × 5 ÷ 125 = 10)
Question 2 of 80
A shelf tag reads LIPITOR. What is the generic name of this medicine?
- A. Simvastatin
- B. Atorvastatin
- C. Amlodipine
- D. Rosuvastatin
Medications · Knowledge area 1.1 · PTCB-M01
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Atorvastatin. Lipitor is the brand name for atorvastatin calcium. Its label calls it an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, which is the drug class people shorten to "statin."
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Simvastatin is also a statin, but it is a different drug with its own brand name.
- C: Amlodipine is a blood pressure medicine, not a statin, and not Lipitor.
- D: Rosuvastatin is another statin. Sharing a class doesn't make it the same drug.
Takeaway: Lipitor = atorvastatin. Same class as other "-statins," but not interchangeable by name.
Source: LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 11 Description; ZOCOR (simvastatin) prescribing information, Organon, Highlights; Section 12.1; Amlodipine besylate tablets label, DailyMed, Indications and Usage; patient information; CRESTOR (rosuvastatin) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 12.1
Question 3 of 80
A pharmacy policy labels certain medicines "high-alert." What does that designation mean?
- A. They are the most commonly prescribed medicines
- B. They carry a heightened risk of significant patient harm when used in error
- C. They are always controlled substances
- D. They must be refrigerated
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.1 · PTCB-S01
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. They carry a heightened risk of significant patient harm when used in error. ISMP defines high-alert medications as drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error. Mistakes may or may not be more common with them. The point is that the consequences are worse, so extra safeguards are used.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: How often a drug is prescribed isn't what makes it high-alert.
- C: Some high-alert drugs are controlled substances and many aren't.
- D: Storage temperature has nothing to do with the designation.
Takeaway: High-alert = worse harm when an error happens, not necessarily more errors.
Source: ISMP (ECRI), High-Alert Medications in Community/Ambulatory Care Settings, Definition
Question 4 of 80
Under federal law, a patient asks for a refill of a Schedule II prescription that was completely filled last month. What is the rule?
- A. Up to 5 refills are allowed within 6 months
- B. One refill is allowed if the prescriber calls it in
- C. Refilling a Schedule II prescription is prohibited
- D. Refills are allowed for 30 days after the first fill
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.2 · PTCB-F01
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Refilling a Schedule II prescription is prohibited. 21 CFR 1306.12(a) says the refilling of a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance is prohibited. The patient needs a new prescription. (Separate rules allow a prescriber to issue multiple Schedule II prescriptions with fill dates, but those are new prescriptions, not refills.)
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: That's the federal refill limit for Schedules III and IV.
- B: A phone call can't create a Schedule II refill.
- D: There's no 30-day refill window for Schedule II.
Takeaway: Schedule II: no refills. Ever.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.12(a)
Question 5 of 80
A technician is building a study card for sertraline (Zoloft). Which drug class belongs on the card?
- A. Benzodiazepine
- B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
- C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
- D. Beta-blocker
Medications · Knowledge area 1.1 · PTCB-M02
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The Zoloft label describes sertraline as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). That class name tells you it works on serotonin reuptake, which is also why the label warns about combining it with other serotonergic drugs.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Benzodiazepines are a different class (for example, alprazolam). Sertraline isn't one.
- B: MAOIs are a separate antidepressant class. The Zoloft label actually lists MAOIs as a contraindication, so mixing up these two classes is a real safety problem.
- D: Beta-blockers (the "-olol" drugs) treat heart and blood pressure conditions.
Takeaway: Sertraline is an SSRI, and MAOIs are a different class it must not be combined with.
Source: ZOLOFT (sertraline) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 4 Contraindications; XANAX (alprazolam) label, DailyMed, Sections 11 and 12.1; LOPRESSOR (metoprolol tartrate) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 1
Question 6 of 80
Which of these is an example ISMP gives of a high-alert medication?
- A. Insulin
- B. Saline nasal spray
- C. Calcium carbonate antacid
- D. Artificial tears
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.1 · PTCB-S02
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Insulin. ISMP's high-alert materials list insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants among the examples of high-alert medications. A dosing error with insulin can quickly cause serious harm, such as severe low blood sugar.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Saline nasal spray isn't given as a high-alert example.
- C: A calcium antacid can interact with other drugs, but it isn't a high-alert example.
- D: Artificial tears aren't a high-alert example.
Takeaway: Insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants are classic high-alert examples.
Source: ISMP, Medication Safety Self Assessment for High-Alert Medications, Definition of high-alert medications, examples
Question 7 of 80
A prescription is for 180 tablets. Directions: take 1 tablet by mouth twice daily. What is the days supply?
- A. 60 days
- B. 90 days
- C. 180 days
- D. 360 days
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O02
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 90 days. Twice daily means 2 tablets a day. 180 ÷ 2 = 90 days. Check: 90 days × 2 tablets = 180.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 60 days would mean 3 tablets a day.
- C: 180 days would mean 1 tablet a day.
- D: 360 days would mean half a tablet a day.
Takeaway: Days supply = quantity ÷ units used per day.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (180 ÷ 2 = 90)
Question 8 of 80
A training spreadsheet lists lisinopril as an "angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)." What should the class field say instead?
- A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
- B. Calcium channel blocker
- C. Thiazide diuretic
- D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Medications · Knowledge area 1.1 · PTCB-M03
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The lisinopril label identifies it as an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ARBs (the "-sartan" drugs) act on the same system but at a different step, so the two classes aren't interchangeable labels.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Calcium channel blockers (for example, amlodipine) lower blood pressure by a different mechanism.
- C: Thiazide diuretics (for example, hydrochlorothiazide) are sometimes combined with lisinopril in one tablet, but lisinopril itself is not a diuretic.
- D: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are statins, used for cholesterol.
Takeaway: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. The "-pril" ending is a useful memory hook; the label is the proof.
Source: Lisinopril tablets label (Camber), DailyMed, Highlights, Indications and Usage; Amlodipine besylate tablets label, DailyMed, Indications and Usage; Clinical Pharmacology; Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide tablets label, DailyMed, Description; Clinical Pharmacology; COZAAR (losartan potassium) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 12.1; LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed, Highlights
Question 9 of 80
A Schedule IV prescription is written with "refills: 11." Under federal law, what is the most refills that can be dispensed on it?
- A. 5 refills, and none more than 6 months after the date it was issued
- B. 11 refills, as written
- C. 11 refills, as long as they're all within 1 year
- D. None; Schedule IV prescriptions can't be refilled
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.2 · PTCB-F02
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 5 refills, and none more than 6 months after the date it was issued. 21 CFR 1306.22(a) says a Schedule III or IV prescription may not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after it was issued, and may not be refilled more than 5 times. Both limits apply, whichever comes first. State law can be stricter.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: The prescriber can't authorize more than the federal limit.
- C: The federal time limit is 6 months, not 1 year.
- D: Schedule IV prescriptions can be refilled within the limits.
Takeaway: Schedules III and IV: 5 refills or 6 months, whichever comes first.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.22(a)
Question 10 of 80
Ventolin HFA is a brand of which medicine, and what class is it?
- A. Budesonide; inhaled corticosteroid
- B. Ipratropium; anticholinergic
- C. Montelukast; leukotriene receptor antagonist
- D. Albuterol sulfate; beta2-adrenergic agonist
Medications · Knowledge area 1.1 · PTCB-M04
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Albuterol sulfate; beta2-adrenergic agonist. The Ventolin HFA label names the active ingredient as albuterol sulfate and describes it as a beta2-adrenergic agonist. It relaxes the airway muscles.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Budesonide is an inhaled steroid, a different ingredient and class.
- B: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator, not the ingredient in Ventolin HFA.
- C: Montelukast is taken by mouth and is in a different class entirely; its oral forms include tablets and granules.
Takeaway: Ventolin HFA = albuterol sulfate, a beta2-adrenergic agonist.
Source: VENTOLIN HFA (albuterol sulfate) label, DailyMed, Highlights, Indications and Usage; Budesonide inhalation suspension label, DailyMed, Highlights, Indications and Usage; ATROVENT HFA (ipratropium bromide) label, DailyMed, Highlights, Indications and Usage; SINGULAIR (montelukast) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Dosage Forms and Strengths
Question 11 of 80
Why are drug names like hydrALAZINE and hydrOXYzine printed with some letters in capitals?
- A. To show which drug is more expensive
- B. To mark controlled substances
- C. To show the brand name
- D. To draw attention to the letters that differ, so look-alike names aren't confused
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.2 · PTCB-S03
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To draw attention to the letters that differ, so look-alike names aren't confused. This is Tall Man lettering. hydrALAZINE and hydrOXYzine are on FDA's list of names with recommended Tall Man letters. Capitalizing the letters that differ helps people notice the difference between look-alike names. It's one safeguard, not a replacement for checking the product against the order.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Tall Man lettering has nothing to do with price.
- B: Capitals don't signal a controlled-substance schedule.
- C: Both of these are generic names.
Takeaway: Tall Man letters highlight the differences between look-alike names.
Source: ISMP, FDA and ISMP Lists of Look-Alike Drug Names with Recommended Tall Man Letters (2023), Table 1, FDA list
Question 12 of 80
Directions: 8 mL by mouth three times daily for 7 days. What total volume is needed?
- A. 56 mL
- B. 24 mL
- C. 168 mL
- D. 210 mL
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O03
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 168 mL. 8 mL × 3 doses a day = 24 mL a day. 24 mL × 7 days = 168 mL. Check: 168 ÷ 7 = 24, and 24 ÷ 3 = 8.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 56 mL covers only one dose a day.
- B: 24 mL is one day's worth.
- D: 210 mL is more than the directions call for.
Takeaway: Total = dose × doses per day × days.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (8 × 3 × 7 = 168)
Question 13 of 80
A prescription is written for Synthroid. Which generic name matches it?
- A. Liothyronine
- B. Levothyroxine sodium
- C. Methimazole
- D. Levetiracetam
Medications · Knowledge area 1.1 · PTCB-M05
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Levothyroxine sodium. Synthroid is the brand name for levothyroxine sodium, a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone T4.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Liothyronine is a different thyroid hormone (T3) with different brands.
- C: Methimazole treats an overactive thyroid, the opposite problem.
- D: Levetiracetam is a seizure medicine. The shared "lev-" start is exactly the kind of look-alike trap to slow down for.
Takeaway: Synthroid = levothyroxine. Watch the look-alike "lev-" names.
Source: SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Highlights; Indications and Usage; Liothyronine sodium tablets label, DailyMed, Highlights, Indications and Usage; Methimazole tablets label, DailyMed, Indications and Usage; Levetiracetam extended-release tablets label, DailyMed, Section 1
Question 14 of 80
Two unrelated pharmacies that do NOT share a real-time online database want to transfer a Schedule III prescription for refills. Assume state law permits the transfer. Under federal law, how often can that prescription's refill information be transferred?
- A. As many times as the patient wants
- B. One time only
- C. Never; Schedule III prescriptions can't be transferred
- D. Twice, if both transfers are within 30 days
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.2 · PTCB-F03
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. One time only. 21 CFR 1306.25(a) allows the transfer of Schedule III, IV, and V prescription information for refill purposes on a one-time basis only. Pharmacies that electronically share a real-time online database may transfer up to the maximum refills allowed. The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Unlimited transfers are not allowed for pharmacies without a shared database.
- C: Transfers for refills are permitted, within the one-time rule.
- D: There's no "twice in 30 days" rule.
Takeaway: Schedule III–V refill transfer: one time, pharmacist to pharmacist, unless a shared real-time database is used.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.25(a) and (b)(1)
Question 15 of 80
Which pair of drug names appears on FDA's list of names with recommended Tall Man letters?
- A. predniSONE and prednisoLONE
- B. Lipitor and atorvastatin
- C. albuterol and Ventolin HFA
- D. sertraline and Zoloft
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.1 · PTCB-S04
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. predniSONE and prednisoLONE. predniSONE and prednisoLONE are on FDA's Tall Man list because the names look and sound alike but are different drugs. The capitalized letters point to where they differ.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: That's a brand name and its own generic, the same drug.
- C: That's a generic and its own brand, the same drug.
- D: That's a generic and its own brand, the same drug.
Takeaway: This LASA (look-alike/sound-alike) pair names two different drugs, not a brand and its own generic.
Source: ISMP, FDA and ISMP Lists of Look-Alike Drug Names with Recommended Tall Man Letters (2023), Table 1, FDA list; LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed, Brand and active ingredient; VENTOLIN HFA (albuterol sulfate) label, DailyMed, Brand and active ingredient; ZOLOFT (sertraline) label, DailyMed, Brand and active ingredient
Question 16 of 80
In a fictional dilution exercise, you have 100 mL of a 10% weight/volume solution and need to dilute it to 2% weight/volume with solute-free diluent. Assume no solute is lost and the volumes simply add together. What will the final volume be?
- A. 200 mL
- B. 400 mL
- C. 500 mL
- D. 1,000 mL
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O04
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 500 mL. Use C1 × V1 = C2 × V2: 10% × 100 mL = 2% × V2, so V2 = 1,000 ÷ 2 = 500 mL. That's the final volume. You'd add 400 mL of diluent to get there, but the question asks for the final volume.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 200 mL would give a 5% solution.
- B: 400 mL is the diluent you add, not the final volume. Read what the question asks for.
- D: 1,000 mL would give a 1% solution.
Takeaway: C1V1 = C2V2. Then check whether they asked for final volume or diluent added.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (10 × 100 ÷ 2 = 500)
Question 17 of 80
A patient picking up a prescription labeled "HYDROCODONE/APAP 5/325" also puts an OTC pain medicine on the counter. Its Drug Facts panel lists acetaminophen 325 mg per dose as the only active ingredient. What duplication should be brought to the pharmacist?
- A. Two opioid ingredients
- B. Two antihistamine ingredients
- C. Two acetaminophen-containing products
- D. No duplication, because the prescription doesn't say "acetaminophen"
Medications · Knowledge area 1.2 · PTCB-M06
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Two acetaminophen-containing products. APAP is an abbreviation for acetaminophen. FDA notes that prescription labels don't always spell out "acetaminophen" and that taking a prescription and an OTC product that both contain it isn't advised unless a health care professional says so. The pharmacist needs to review this before the sale.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Only the prescription contains an opioid (hydrocodone).
- B: The question gives no antihistamine in the prescription, so there's nothing to duplicate there.
- D: This is the trap FDA warns about. APAP on the label means acetaminophen.
Takeaway: APAP = acetaminophen. Check every product's ingredients, not just the drug names.
Source: FDA, Don't Overuse Acetaminophen, Tips on reading labels and avoiding more than one acetaminophen product
Question 18 of 80
A patient asks the pharmacy to send an electronic Schedule II prescription that hasn't been filled yet to another retail pharmacy. Under federal rules, which statement is correct?
- A. It can be transferred for initial dispensing one time, pharmacist to pharmacist, if state law allows
- B. Schedule II electronic prescriptions can never be transferred
- C. A technician may transfer it by fax
- D. It can be transferred as often as needed until it's filled
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.2 · PTCB-F04
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. It can be transferred for initial dispensing one time, pharmacist to pharmacist, if state law allows. 21 CFR 1306.08(e)–(g) allows an electronic Schedule II–V prescription to be transferred between retail pharmacies for initial dispensing, at the patient's request, on a one-time basis. The transfer must be communicated between two licensed pharmacists, kept in electronic form, and allowed under state law.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Federal rules added a one-time transfer for initial dispensing of electronic prescriptions.
- C: The rule requires pharmacist-to-pharmacist communication and says the prescription can't be converted to another form such as a fax.
- D: It's one time only.
Takeaway: Unfilled electronic CII–V: one transfer, pharmacist to pharmacist, if the state allows it.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.08(e), (f)(1), (f)(3), (g)
Question 19 of 80
A patient's profile shows an active prescription for lisinopril 10 mg once daily. A new prescription arrives for lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide 20 mg/12.5 mg once daily. What should the technician flag for the pharmacist?
- A. Possible duplicate lisinopril therapy
- B. Duplicate thiazide diuretic therapy
- C. A controlled substance refill limit
- D. Nothing; combination products never duplicate single-ingredient drugs
Medications · Knowledge area 1.2 · PTCB-M07
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Possible duplicate lisinopril therapy. The new combination tablet already contains lisinopril. If both prescriptions stayed active, the patient could get lisinopril from two products. That's a therapeutic duplication for the pharmacist to resolve with the prescriber. It may be an intended switch, but that's the pharmacist's call.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Only the new product contains a thiazide, so there's no second diuretic.
- C: The problem described is possible ingredient duplication, not a refill-limit question.
- D: Combination products can repeat an ingredient in a single-ingredient medicine.
Takeaway: Always read combination products ingredient by ingredient.
Source: Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide tablets label, DailyMed, Product name and ingredients; PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 1.2; U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties, What Pharmacy Technicians Do; Duties
Question 20 of 80
Which way of writing a one-quarter milligram dose and a five milligram dose follows ISMP's safe dose-writing guidance?
- A. .25 mg and 5.0 mg
- B. 0.25 mg and 5 mg
- C. 0.25 mg and 5.0 mg
- D. .25 mg and 5 mg
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.2 · PTCB-S05
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 0.25 mg and 5 mg. ISMP says to use a leading zero for doses less than one unit (0.25 mg, never .25 mg) and not to use trailing zeros (5 mg, never 5.0 mg). A missed decimal point can turn .25 into 25, a 100-fold error, or 5.0 into 50, a tenfold error.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Both mistakes at once: no leading zero and a trailing zero.
- C: The trailing zero in 5.0 mg can be misread as 50 mg.
- D: The missing leading zero in .25 mg can be misread as 25 mg.
Takeaway: Leading zero yes (0.25). Trailing zero no (5, not 5.0).
Source: ISMP, Guidelines for Safe Electronic Communication of Medication Information (2019), Dose designation guidance (a) and (b); Worked from the numbers in the question (25 ÷ 0.25 = 100; 50 ÷ 5 = 10)
Question 21 of 80
Convert 0.25 g to milligrams.
- A. 2.5 mg
- B. 25 mg
- C. 250 mg
- D. 2,500 mg
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O05
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 250 mg. 1 g = 1,000 mg. 0.25 g × 1,000 mg/g = 250 mg. Check: 250 mg ÷ 1,000 = 0.25 g.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Off by a factor of 100.
- B: Off by a factor of 10.
- D: Off by a factor of 10 in the other direction.
Takeaway: g → mg: multiply by 1,000.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (0.25 × 1,000 = 250)
Question 22 of 80
A patient takes Synthroid each morning and has just started an OTC calcium carbonate antacid. According to the Synthroid labeling, how should the two be spaced?
- A. Take them together so neither dose is forgotten
- B. Take them at least 30 minutes apart
- C. No spacing is needed with OTC products
- D. Take them at least 4 hours apart
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M08
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Take them at least 4 hours apart. Synthroid labeling says to give it at least 4 hours before or after drugs that interfere with its absorption, and calcium carbonate is one of them. Calcium can bind levothyroxine in the gut so less gets absorbed.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Taking them together is exactly what reduces absorption.
- B: The 30-to-60-minute window in the label is about taking Synthroid before breakfast, not about calcium.
- C: OTC products can interact with prescription drugs.
Takeaway: Levothyroxine and calcium carbonate: at least 4 hours apart.
Source: SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Highlights, Dosage and Administration 2.1; Section 7; SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Section 7.1, Table 5 (calcium carbonate); PDF page 10; SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Section 7.1, Table 5; PDF page 10
Question 23 of 80
An order reads "insulin 10U." Why does ISMP say to write "units" instead of "U"?
- A. "U" is the chemical symbol for uranium
- B. "U" means "use as directed"
- C. "U" can be mistaken for a zero, causing a tenfold overdose
- D. "U" is only allowed for vaccines
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.2 · PTCB-S06
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. "U" can be mistaken for a zero, causing a tenfold overdose. ISMP says to spell out "units" and never use "U," because it can easily be mistaken for a zero. "10U" misread as "100" is a tenfold insulin overdose.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: That isn't the reason given.
- B: "U" doesn't mean "use as directed."
- D: The guidance isn't about vaccines.
Takeaway: Write "units." Never "U."
Source: ISMP, Guidelines for Safe Electronic Communication of Medication Information (2019), Dose designation guidance (c)
Question 24 of 80
A pharmacy can only supply part of a written Schedule II prescription because it's short on stock. Under 21 CFR 1306.13(a), how long does the pharmacy have to supply the rest?
- A. 7 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 6 months
- D. 72 hours
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.2 · PTCB-F05
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 72 hours. When the pharmacist can't supply the full quantity, the remaining portion may be filled within 72 hours of the first partial fill. If it can't be filled in that window, the pharmacist notifies the prescriber, and no more can be supplied without a new prescription. (For a nonemergency prescription, qualifying partial fills requested by the patient or prescriber follow a separate rule allowing the remainder no later than 30 days after the prescription was written.)
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 7 days is not the rule for this situation.
- B: The separate 30-day provision concerns qualifying patient- or prescriber-requested partial fills of a nonemergency prescription, not the stock-shortage rule asked here.
- C: 6 months is a Schedule III–IV time limit.
Takeaway: CII shortage partial fill: rest within 72 hours of the first partial fill; after that, notify the prescriber and obtain a new prescription for any further supply.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.13(a); § 1306.13(b)(2)
Question 25 of 80
A patient with a prescription for Nitrostat also takes sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. What does the Nitrostat label say about this combination?
- A. It is contraindicated because it can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure
- B. It is safe if the doses are taken 2 hours apart
- C. It only matters if the patient also takes aspirin
- D. It is only a concern with the brand-name version of sildenafil
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M09
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. It is contraindicated because it can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure. The Nitrostat label lists use with PDE-5 inhibitors such as sildenafil, tadalafil, and vardenafil as a contraindication. These drugs strengthen the blood-pressure-lowering effect of nitrates, and the result can be an extreme drop.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: The label doesn't give a spacing interval that makes the combination safe. Don't invent one.
- C: Aspirin isn't part of this interaction.
- D: The interaction comes from the drug, not the brand.
Takeaway: Nitrates + PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil) = contraindicated.
Source: NITROSTAT (nitroglycerin sublingual tablets) label, DailyMed, Contraindications; Drug Interactions; Patient Information
Question 26 of 80
In a fictional calculation exercise, a child weighs 22 lb and the order specifies 10 mg/kg per dose. Using 1 kg = 2.2 lb, what is one dose in milligrams?
- A. 100 mg
- B. 220 mg
- C. 484 mg
- D. 10 mg
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O06
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 100 mg. 22 lb ÷ 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. 10 kg × 10 mg/kg = 100 mg.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: 220 mg uses pounds instead of kilograms.
- C: 484 mg comes from multiplying by 2.2 instead of dividing.
- D: 10 mg forgets to multiply by the weight.
Takeaway: Convert pounds to kilograms first (divide by 2.2).
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (22 ÷ 2.2 = 10; 10 × 10 = 100)
Question 27 of 80
A new prescription for sertraline (Zoloft) arrives for a patient who stopped taking phenelzine, an MAOI, 5 days ago. What does the Zoloft label say?
- A. Start right away; MAOIs leave the body within 24 hours
- B. It is contraindicated within 14 days of stopping an MAOI
- C. It is fine at a reduced dose
- D. This only matters if the MAOI was taken for more than a year
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M10
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It is contraindicated within 14 days of stopping an MAOI. The Zoloft label lists use with an MAOI, or within 14 days of stopping one, as a contraindication because of the risk of serotonin syndrome. Five days is inside that window, so the pharmacist needs to see this.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label's window is 14 days, not 24 hours.
- C: The contraindication isn't lifted by a lower dose.
- D: The label doesn't limit the rule to long-term MAOI use.
Takeaway: Sertraline after an MAOI: the Zoloft label requires a gap of at least 14 days.
Source: ZOLOFT (sertraline) label, DailyMed, Highlights; Section 4 Contraindications
Question 28 of 80
A customer at the register asks a technician, "Which cold medicine should I buy? I have high blood pressure." What should the technician do?
- A. Refer the customer to the pharmacist
- B. Recommend the product the technician uses at home
- C. Tell the customer any cold medicine is fine
- D. Suggest the customer double the dose to feel better faster
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.3 · PTCB-S07
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Refer the customer to the pharmacist. PTCB's outline lists OTC recommendations among the issues that require pharmacist intervention. The technician can gather the question and bring in the pharmacist, but choosing a product for a patient with a medical condition is the pharmacist's job. State boards define the legal scope of technician practice.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Personal preference isn't a clinical recommendation.
- C: That's a clinical judgment the technician shouldn't make.
- D: Changing a dose is never a technician recommendation.
Takeaway: OTC recommendation = pharmacist.
Source: PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.3; PTCB, Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT) page, Intro: state boards define CPhT scope; U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties, What Pharmacy Technicians Do; Duties
Question 29 of 80
A solution is labeled 1:1,000 (weight in volume, meaning 1 g in 1,000 mL). What is its strength in mg/mL?
- A. 0.1 mg/mL
- B. 1 mg/mL
- C. 10 mg/mL
- D. 1,000 mg/mL
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O07
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 1 mg/mL. 1 g = 1,000 mg, so 1 g in 1,000 mL is 1,000 mg ÷ 1,000 mL = 1 mg/mL.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: That would be 1:10,000.
- C: That would be 1:100.
- D: That ignores the 1,000 mL.
Takeaway: 1:1,000 w/v = 1 mg/mL.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (1,000 mg ÷ 1,000 mL = 1)
Question 30 of 80
Under 21 CFR 1306.24, which item must appear on the label of a filled Schedule III, IV, or V prescription for an outpatient?
- A. The patient's Social Security number
- B. The pharmacy's wholesale account number
- C. The name of the prescribing practitioner
- D. The drug's National Drug Code (NDC)
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.3 · PTCB-F06
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The name of the prescribing practitioner. The rule requires the label to show the pharmacy name and address, the serial number and date of initial filling, the patient's name, the name of the practitioner who issued the prescription, and directions for use with any cautionary statements.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: A Social Security number isn't a required label element under this rule.
- B: Wholesale account numbers aren't label elements.
- D: The NDC isn't on the list of required label elements in this rule.
Takeaway: CIII–V label: pharmacy, serial number and date, patient, prescriber, directions and cautions.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR, § 1306.24(a)
Question 31 of 80
A patient starting Lipitor says she drinks a lot of grapefruit juice every day. What does the Lipitor label tell patients about this?
- A. Grapefruit juice makes Lipitor work faster, which is helpful
- B. Grapefruit juice has no effect on statins
- C. Large quantities of grapefruit juice can increase the risk of muscle problems
- D. Lipitor must be taken with grapefruit juice
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M11
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Large quantities of grapefruit juice can increase the risk of muscle problems. The Lipitor label tells patients that the risk of myopathy (muscle damage) and rhabdomyolysis is increased when they consume large quantities of grapefruit juice. This is a drug-food interaction worth passing to the pharmacist for counseling.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label describes a risk, not a benefit.
- B: The label specifically names grapefruit juice.
- D: There's no such instruction in the label.
Takeaway: Lipitor + large amounts of grapefruit juice = higher muscle-injury risk.
Source: LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed, Section 17 Patient Counseling Information
Question 32 of 80
During data entry, the pharmacy system shows a drug utilization review (DUR) alert for a serious drug interaction. What should the technician do?
- A. Override the alert to keep the line moving
- B. Delete the other drug from the profile
- C. Tell the patient the drugs can't be taken together
- D. Leave the alert for the pharmacist to review before the prescription goes further
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.3 · PTCB-S08
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Leave the alert for the pharmacist to review before the prescription goes further. DUR is listed in PTCB's outline as an issue requiring pharmacist intervention. Deciding what to do about an interaction alert is a clinical judgment for the pharmacist.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Overriding a clinical alert isn't a technician decision.
- B: Changing a patient's profile to silence an alert hides real information.
- C: Counseling about the interaction belongs to the pharmacist.
Takeaway: DUR alerts go to the pharmacist.
Source: PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.3; U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties, What Pharmacy Technicians Do; Duties
Question 33 of 80
A patient taking lisinopril for blood pressure asks to buy a large bottle of naproxen for daily arthritis pain. What interaction does lisinopril labeling describe for NSAIDs like naproxen?
- A. NSAIDs make lisinopril work much better
- B. Increased risk of kidney problems and reduced blood pressure control
- C. NSAIDs cause lisinopril to turn into a controlled substance
- D. There is no interaction between NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M12
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Increased risk of kidney problems and reduced blood pressure control. Lisinopril labeling lists NSAIDs as causing an increased risk of renal (kidney) impairment and a loss of antihypertensive effect. Daily use is a question for the pharmacist.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label describes the opposite: less blood pressure effect.
- C: Neither drug is a controlled substance.
- D: The label lists this interaction by name.
Takeaway: ACE inhibitor + NSAID: kidney risk and weaker blood pressure control.
Source: Lisinopril tablets label (Camber), DailyMed, Section 7.3, Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Agents
Question 34 of 80
A prescription says "Disp: #XLV." How many tablets is that?
- A. 55
- B. 65
- C. 35
- D. 45
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O08
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 45. XL = 50 − 10 = 40, and V = 5. 40 + 5 = 45.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: That would be LV.
- B: That would be LXV.
- C: That would be XXXV.
Takeaway: A smaller numeral before a larger one is subtracted (XL = 40).
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (XL (40) + V (5) = 45)
Question 35 of 80
A pharmacy discovers a theft of controlled substances. Under 21 CFR 1301.76(b), when must it first notify the DEA Field Division Office in writing?
- A. Within one business day of discovery
- B. Within 45 days
- C. At the next biennial inventory
- D. Only if the drugs are not recovered
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.3 · PTCB-F07
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Within one business day of discovery. The registrant must notify the local DEA Field Division Office in writing of the theft or significant loss within one business day of discovery. The full DEA Form 106 is a separate, later step.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: 45 days is the deadline for the complete Form 106, not the first written notice.
- C: Waiting for an inventory would miss the deadline.
- D: The rule is triggered by discovery of the theft, not by whether the drugs are recovered.
Takeaway: Theft/significant loss: written notice to DEA within 1 business day.
Source: 21 CFR 1301.76, eCFR, § 1301.76(b)
Question 36 of 80
A new prescription for metformin extended-release arrives. The patient's chart note says her eGFR is 25 mL/min/1.73 m². What does the metformin ER label say?
- A. Metformin is preferred in severe kidney disease
- B. Only the immediate-release form is affected
- C. The dose should simply be doubled
- D. It is contraindicated when eGFR is below 30 mL/min/1.73 m²
Medications · Knowledge area 1.3 · PTCB-M13
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It is contraindicated when eGFR is below 30 mL/min/1.73 m². The label lists severe renal impairment, eGFR below 30 mL/min/1.73 m², as a contraindication. Metformin is cleared by the kidneys, and buildup raises the risk of lactic acidosis. An eGFR of 25 is below that line, so this goes to the pharmacist.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label says the opposite.
- B: This extended-release label contains the contraindication itself.
- C: Raising the dose would make accumulation worse.
Takeaway: Metformin: contraindicated with eGFR below 30.
Source: Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Section 2.2; Section 4 Contraindications
Question 37 of 80
A 30-day supply with fixed daily directions was filled on September 1, and the patient began taking it that day. Before taking the September 11 dose, the patient asks for the next fill. If every dose was taken as directed and none was lost, about how many days' supply should remain?
- A. About 10 days
- B. About 20 days, so the pharmacist should review the early request
- C. None
- D. About 30 days
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.3 · Math · PTCB-S09
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. About 20 days, so the pharmacist should review the early request. September 1 to September 11 is 10 days. 30 − 10 = 20 days should remain if the patient took it as directed. A refill this early can point to a dosing change, an adherence problem, or misuse, all of which PTCB lists under issues that need the pharmacist.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 10 days is how much time has passed, not how much should be left.
- C: Only a third of the supply should be used by now.
- D: Some of the supply should have been used.
Takeaway: Early refill math: days supplied − days elapsed = days that should remain.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (30 − 10 = 20); PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.3; U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties, What Pharmacy Technicians Do; Duties
Question 38 of 80
An inhaler has 200 actuations (puffs) available for scheduled doses after any required priming. Directions: 2 puffs four times daily, with no additional puffs used. What is the days supply?
- A. 25 days
- B. 50 days
- C. 100 days
- D. 12 days
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O09
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 25 days. 2 puffs × 4 times a day = 8 puffs a day. 200 ÷ 8 = 25 days.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: 50 days would mean 4 puffs a day.
- C: 100 days would mean 2 puffs a day.
- D: 12 days at 8 puffs a day would use only 96 puffs, not 200.
Takeaway: Inhaler days supply = actuations ÷ puffs per day.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (200 ÷ (2 × 4) = 25)
Question 39 of 80
A caregiver asks if she can crush her father's Ingenus metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets into applesauce. What does the metformin ER label say?
- A. Crush them, but only into applesauce
- B. Cut them in half, but don't crush them
- C. Swallow the tablets whole; never crush, cut, or chew them
- D. Chewing is fine as long as they're taken with food
Medications · Knowledge area 1.4 · PTCB-M14
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Swallow the tablets whole; never crush, cut, or chew them. This metformin ER label says to swallow the tablets whole and never crush, cut, or chew them. These extended-release tablets are designed to release the drug slowly; changing the tablet can change that release. The caregiver's question should go to the pharmacist.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Mixing into food doesn't change the rule against crushing.
- B: The label says not to cut them either.
- D: Taking the tablet with the evening meal is part of the directions, but chewing is still prohibited.
Takeaway: Extended-release: follow the label. This one says whole, never crushed, cut, or chewed.
Source: Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Highlights and Section 2.1; Section 17
Question 40 of 80
After the first written notice of a controlled substance theft, what does 21 CFR 1301.76(b) require next?
- A. A DEA Form 222 within 7 days
- B. A complete DEA Form 106, filed electronically, within 45 days of discovery
- C. A phone call to the state police only
- D. Nothing further
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.3 · PTCB-F08
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A complete DEA Form 106, filed electronically, within 45 days of discovery. The registrant must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 106 through DEA's secure online system within 45 days after discovering the theft or significant loss.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Form 222 is used for ordering Schedule I and II substances, not reporting theft.
- C: A phone call doesn't satisfy the written and Form 106 requirements.
- D: The Form 106 is required.
Takeaway: Theft or significant loss: written notice in 1 business day, then Form 106 within 45 calendar days of discovery.
Source: 21 CFR 1301.76, eCFR, § 1301.76(b); 21 CFR Part 1305, orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances, Sections 1305.03 and 1305.04
Question 41 of 80
At pickup, a parent says her child broke out in a new rash after starting amoxicillin suspension from this pharmacy. What should the technician do?
- A. Tell her rashes are normal and finish the bottle
- B. Suggest an OTC antihistamine
- C. Get the pharmacist involved right away
- D. Offer to exchange it for a different flavor
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.3 · PTCB-S10
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Get the pharmacist involved right away. An adverse drug event is one of the issues PTCB lists for pharmacist intervention. The amoxicillin label also says patients should promptly report skin rash or other signs of hypersensitivity. The pharmacist handles the counseling and next steps.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The technician can't judge whether a reaction is harmless, and the label asks for prompt reporting.
- B: Recommending treatment is a pharmacist or prescriber decision.
- D: Changing the flavor does not assess or address a possible drug reaction.
Takeaway: Possible adverse reaction = pharmacist, now.
Source: PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.3; Amoxicillin for oral suspension label, DailyMed, Patient Counseling Information (skin rash, signs of hypersensitivity); U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties, What Pharmacy Technicians Do; Duties
Question 42 of 80
Which is an appropriate way to take a Nitrostat tablet according to its label?
- A. Dissolved under the tongue (sublingual)
- B. Swallowed whole with water
- C. Chewed and swallowed
- D. Crushed and mixed with juice
Medications · Knowledge area 1.4 · PTCB-M15
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Dissolved under the tongue (sublingual). Nitrostat is a sublingual tablet; its label also permits dissolving it in the buccal pouch (between the cheek and gum). The label says it should not be chewed, crushed, or swallowed. Absorbing through the tissue under the tongue lets it act quickly.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Swallowing is exactly what the label says not to do.
- C: The label says not to chew it.
- D: The label says not to crush it.
Takeaway: Nitrostat: dissolve under the tongue or in the buccal pouch. Do not chew, crush, or swallow the tablet.
Source: NITROSTAT (nitroglycerin sublingual tablets) label, DailyMed, Dosage and Administration
Question 43 of 80
How many milligrams of drug are in a 30 g tube of a 1% (w/w) cream? (1% w/w means 1 g of drug per 100 g of cream.)
- A. 30 mg
- B. 300 mg
- C. 3,000 mg
- D. 3 mg
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O10
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 300 mg. 1 g per 100 g means 0.01 g of drug per gram of cream. 30 g × 0.01 = 0.3 g, and 0.3 g × 1,000 = 300 mg.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Off by a factor of 10.
- C: That would be a 10% cream.
- D: Off by a factor of 100.
Takeaway: Percent w/w = grams per 100 grams.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (30 × 0.01 = 0.3 g = 300 mg)
Question 44 of 80
A patient has a suspected serious adverse reaction to metformin, a prescription tablet (not a vaccine). Which program does the metformin label name for reporting suspected adverse reactions to FDA?
- A. VAERS
- B. MedWatch (FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088 or www.fda.gov/medwatch)
- C. The DEA Form 106 system
- D. The PDMP
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.4 · PTCB-S11
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. MedWatch (FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088 or www.fda.gov/medwatch). The metformin ER label tells readers to report suspected adverse reactions to the manufacturer or to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088 or www.fda.gov/medwatch. MedWatch is FDA's safety reporting program for medicines and other FDA-regulated products.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: VAERS is for events after vaccination.
- C: Form 106 reports theft or significant loss of controlled substances.
- D: A prescription drug monitoring program tracks controlled substance dispensing, not adverse reactions.
Takeaway: Drug adverse event → MedWatch. Vaccine adverse event → VAERS.
Source: Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Highlights, adverse reaction reporting line; FDA, MedWatch: The FDA Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program, Program scope and reporting links; CDC, Prescription Drug Monitoring Programs (PDMPs), Key points: PDMP definition; VAERS, Frequently Asked Questions, What is VAERS?; 21 CFR 1301.76, eCFR, Section 1301.76(b)
Question 45 of 80
Amoxicillin for oral suspension 400 mg/5 mL is prescribed at a dose of 600 mg. How many milliliters is one dose?
- A. 5 mL
- B. 6 mL
- C. 12 mL
- D. 7.5 mL
Medications · Knowledge area 1.4 · Math · PTCB-M16
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 7.5 mL. Set it up with units: 600 mg × (5 mL ÷ 400 mg) = 7.5 mL. Quick check: 400 mg/5 mL is 80 mg per mL, and 7.5 mL × 80 mg/mL = 600 mg.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 5 mL contains only 400 mg.
- B: 6 mL contains 480 mg.
- C: 12 mL contains 960 mg, far more than prescribed.
Takeaway: Dose ÷ concentration. Keep the units on every line.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (600 × 5 ÷ 400 = 7.5)
Question 46 of 80
Earlier in the same calendar day, a customer bought products containing 2.4 g of pseudoephedrine base from this regulated retail seller. Considering only the federal daily quantity limit in 21 CFR 1314.20(a), what is the most additional pseudoephedrine base this seller can sell that customer today?
- A. 3.6 g, because it's a new transaction
- B. None; the daily limit is 2.4 g
- C. 7.5 g
- D. 1.2 g
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.4 · Math · PTCB-F09
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 1.2 g. A regulated seller may not sell any purchaser more than 3.6 g of pseudoephedrine base in a single calendar day, no matter how many transactions. 3.6 g − 2.4 g = 1.2 g. Note that the limit is in grams of base, not the salt amount printed on some labels. States can set stricter limits.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: A new transaction doesn't reset the daily limit.
- B: The federal daily limit is 3.6 g, not 2.4 g.
- C: 7.5 g is a 30-day limit for mobile retail vendors and certain mail-order sales, not the daily limit.
Takeaway: Pseudoephedrine: 3.6 g base per purchaser per calendar day, across all transactions.
Source: 21 CFR 1314.20, eCFR, § 1314.20(a); Worked from the numbers in the question (3.6 − 2.4 = 1.2); 21 CFR Part 1314 (Retail sale of scheduled listed chemical products), eCFR, Sections 1314.10, 1314.20(b), and 1314.100(b)
Question 47 of 80
Lantus is a U-100 insulin, meaning 100 units per mL. How many mL is a 30-unit dose?
- A. 3 mL
- B. 0.03 mL
- C. 30 mL
- D. 0.3 mL
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.1 · Math · PTCB-O11
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 0.3 mL. 30 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 0.3 mL.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 3 mL would be 300 units.
- B: 0.03 mL would be 3 units.
- C: 30 mL confuses units with milliliters.
Takeaway: U-100: units ÷ 100 = mL.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (30 ÷ 100 = 0.3); LANTUS (insulin glargine) label, DailyMed, Dosage Forms and Strengths (100 units/mL)
Question 48 of 80
A prescription reads: amoxicillin 500 mg capsules, 1 capsule by mouth three times daily for 10 days. How many capsules should be dispensed?
- A. 10
- B. 20
- C. 30
- D. 40
Medications · Knowledge area 1.4 · Math · PTCB-M17
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 30. 1 capsule × 3 times a day = 3 capsules a day. 3 × 10 days = 30 capsules. Reverse check: 30 ÷ 3 per day = 10 days.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 10 would cover only 1 capsule a day.
- B: 20 would cover twice-daily dosing.
- D: 40 would cover four times a day.
Takeaway: Quantity = dose per day × days.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (1 × 3 × 10 = 30)
Question 49 of 80
A patient develops a health problem a few days after a vaccine given at the pharmacy. No one is sure the vaccine caused it. What do VAERS and CDC say about reporting it?
- A. Don't report unless a doctor proves the vaccine caused it
- B. Report it to MedWatch instead
- C. Only the manufacturer may report
- D. Report it to VAERS even if you're not sure the vaccine caused it
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.4 · PTCB-S12
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Report it to VAERS even if you're not sure the vaccine caused it. VAERS encourages reports of clinically important events after vaccination even when it isn't clear the vaccine caused them, and anyone can report. CDC also notes that a VAERS report doesn't by itself mean the vaccine caused the event.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: VAERS doesn't require proof of cause before a report.
- B: Vaccine events go to VAERS.
- C: Patients, caregivers, and healthcare providers can all report.
Takeaway: VAERS: report even if unsure. A report is not proof of cause.
Source: VAERS, Frequently Asked Questions, What should be reported; CDC, About the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS), At a glance
Question 50 of 80
A patient's allergy record says: "Penicillin: anaphylaxis (documented)." A new prescription arrives for amoxicillin. What does the amoxicillin label say?
- A. Amoxicillin is safe because it isn't called penicillin
- B. Amoxicillin is contraindicated after a serious hypersensitivity reaction to other beta-lactams such as penicillins
- C. Only the liquid form is a concern
- D. The allergy only matters for injectable drugs
Medications · Knowledge area 1.5 · PTCB-M18
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Amoxicillin is contraindicated after a serious hypersensitivity reaction to other beta-lactams such as penicillins. The amoxicillin label lists a history of serious hypersensitivity, such as anaphylaxis, to amoxicillin or other beta-lactam antibacterials (for example, penicillins) as a contraindication. This must go to the pharmacist before anything is filled.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class drug. The name difference is what makes this error easy.
- C: The contraindication covers the drug, not one dosage form.
- D: The label notes anaphylaxis has occurred with oral penicillins too.
Takeaway: Documented penicillin anaphylaxis + amoxicillin = stop and get the pharmacist.
Source: Amoxicillin label (Sandoz), DailyMed, Section 4 Contraindications; Section 5.1
Question 51 of 80
Under 21 CFR part 1314, where must a retail seller keep pseudoephedrine products before they're sold?
- A. On an open shelf near the pharmacy counter
- B. Behind the counter or in a locked cabinet, without direct customer access
- C. In the pharmacy refrigerator
- D. Anywhere, as long as there's a sign
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.4 · PTCB-F10
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Behind the counter or in a locked cabinet, without direct customer access. Part 1314 requires the regulated seller to place the product so customers don't have direct access to it before the sale is made. The regulation calls this "behind-the-counter" placement and expressly includes a locked cabinet in an area to which customers have direct access. States may add their own rules.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: An open shelf gives customers direct access.
- C: Refrigeration isn't the requirement.
- D: A sign doesn't prevent direct access.
Takeaway: Pseudoephedrine: behind the counter or in a locked cabinet, with no direct access to the product before sale.
Source: 21 CFR Part 1314 (Retail sale of scheduled listed chemical products), eCFR, 21 CFR 1314.25, including locked-cabinet provision; 1314.10, state-law relationship
Question 52 of 80
A patient asks whether she can share her Lantus SoloStar pen with her husband, who uses the same insulin, if she puts on a new needle. What does the label say?
- A. Yes, as long as the needle is new
- B. Yes, if the pen is wiped with alcohol
- C. Never share the pen with another person, even if the needle is changed
- D. Only if both people use the same dose
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.2 · PTCB-O12
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Never share the pen with another person, even if the needle is changed. The Lantus label says a SoloStar pen must never be shared with another person, even if the needle is changed, because sharing carries a risk of passing blood-borne infections. Each patient needs their own pen and new needles.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: A new needle doesn't make sharing safe.
- B: Wiping the pen doesn't remove the risk.
- D: Dose has nothing to do with infection risk.
Takeaway: Insulin pens: one person per pen, no exceptions.
Source: LANTUS (insulin glargine) label, DailyMed, Warnings and Precautions; Patient Counseling (never share pens)
Question 53 of 80
Three times this month, the wrong strength of the same drug was pulled from the shelf and caught at final check. What is the best quality-improvement response?
- A. Look for the system problems behind the errors, such as how the strengths are stored, and fix them
- B. Blame whoever was working that day and move on
- C. Do nothing, since none of the errors reached a patient
- D. Stop stocking the drug permanently
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.4 · PTCB-S13
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Look for the system problems behind the errors, such as how the strengths are stored, and fix them. AHRQ PSNet describes root cause analysis as looking for system causes and weaknesses rather than assigning individual blame, and notes these tools are used for near misses as well as adverse events. A repeated near miss is a warning that a process, such as shelf layout or labeling, needs to change.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Blame doesn't fix the process that keeps producing the same error.
- C: Near misses are exactly the events that reveal problems before a patient is hurt.
- D: Dropping the drug avoids the question and may harm patients who need it.
Takeaway: Repeated near miss = fix the system, not the scapegoat.
Source: AHRQ PSNet, Root Cause Analysis (primer), Background; AHRQ PSNet, Strategies and Approaches for Investigating Patient Safety Events, Root Cause Analysis
Question 54 of 80
Which serious adverse effect is described in the lisinopril label as affecting the face, lips, tongue, or throat, sometimes fatally?
- A. Angioedema
- B. Gout
- C. Tooth discoloration
- D. Hair loss
Medications · Knowledge area 1.5 · PTCB-M19
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Angioedema. Lisinopril labeling describes angioedema: swelling of the face, extremities, lips, tongue, glottis, or larynx, including some fatal reactions, which can happen at any time during treatment with an ACE inhibitor.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Gout isn't the swelling reaction the label describes for ACE inhibitors.
- C: Tooth discoloration is not the swelling reaction described here.
- D: Hair loss isn't the warning described here.
Takeaway: ACE inhibitors: angioedema can be life-threatening and can appear at any point in therapy.
Source: Lisinopril tablets label (Camber), DailyMed, Warnings and Precautions, Angioedema
Question 55 of 80
What does the amoxicillin label recommend for measuring a child's dose of the oral suspension?
- A. A kitchen teaspoon
- B. An injection syringe with a needle
- C. A medicine cup marked only in ounces
- D. A calibrated oral syringe
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.2 · PTCB-O13
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A calibrated oral syringe. The amoxicillin label says to use a calibrated oral syringe when dosing a child with the suspension, and to rinse it after each use. A marked oral syringe measures small volumes accurately.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Household spoons vary in size.
- B: Needles and injection syringes aren't for oral liquids.
- C: A cup marked only in ounces can't measure small mL doses accurately.
Takeaway: Child's liquid dose: calibrated oral syringe.
Source: Amoxicillin label (Sandoz), DailyMed, Storage and Handling / Patient Counseling
Question 56 of 80
A patient who recently started atorvastatin mentions unexplained muscle pain and weakness. According to the label, what are patients told to do about this symptom?
- A. Ignore it; it always goes away
- B. Double the dose
- C. Switch to taking it every other day on their own
- D. Report it promptly
Medications · Knowledge area 1.5 · PTCB-M20
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Report it promptly. Atorvastatin labeling tells patients to promptly report unexplained muscle pain, tenderness, or weakness, especially with malaise or fever, because statins can cause myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. The technician gets the pharmacist involved.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label asks for prompt reporting, not waiting.
- B: A higher dose can increase the risk.
- C: Patients shouldn't change their own regimen. That's a prescriber decision.
Takeaway: Statin + unexplained muscle pain = report promptly.
Source: LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed, Warnings and Precautions 5.1; Section 17
Question 57 of 80
A healthcare facility has an expired pharmaceutical that is a hazardous waste. Which disposal method does 40 CFR 266.505 prohibit?
- A. Sending it to a hazardous waste facility
- B. Using a reverse distributor where appropriate
- C. Pouring it down a drain that leads to a public sewage treatment plant
- D. Storing it in a labeled container for pickup
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.1 · PTCB-F11
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Pouring it down a drain that leads to a public sewage treatment plant. 40 CFR 266.505 prohibits all healthcare facilities and reverse distributors from discharging hazardous waste pharmaceuticals to a sewer system that passes through to a publicly owned treatment works. In plain terms: no sinks, no toilets.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Proper hazardous waste management is the lawful route, not the prohibited one.
- B: Reverse distributors are part of the regulated system and have their own duties.
- D: Proper containment for pickup is not what the sewer ban prohibits.
Takeaway: Hazardous waste pharmaceuticals: never sewered at a healthcare facility.
Source: 40 CFR 266.505, eCFR, § 266.505
Question 58 of 80
Two fictional prescription records match on drug, strength, directions, and quantity. But the label printed for Record 1 shows patient "Maria L. Soto, DOB 03/14/1961," while the prescription is for "Mario L. Soto, DOB 11/02/1958." What type of error is this?
- A. Wrong dose
- B. Wrong drug
- C. Wrong patient
- D. Wrong quantity
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.5 · PTCB-S14
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Wrong patient. Everything about the medicine matches. What doesn't match is the patient identity: the name and date of birth belong to a different person. PTCB's outline lists incorrect patient as a type of prescription error.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The strength and directions match.
- B: The drug matches.
- D: The quantity matches.
Takeaway: Match the patient's name and date of birth, not just the drug.
Source: Fictional records and policy supplied in the question (Records supplied in the question); PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.5
Question 59 of 80
What is the boxed warning on metformin extended-release tablets?
- A. Liver failure
- B. Lactic acidosis
- C. Suicidal thoughts
- D. Addiction and misuse
Medications · Knowledge area 1.5 · PTCB-M21
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Lactic acidosis. The metformin ER label carries a boxed warning for lactic acidosis, a buildup of lactic acid in the blood that has caused deaths. Risk factors include kidney impairment, age 65 or older, and excessive alcohol intake.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label mentions postmarketing liver injury, but the boxed warning is lactic acidosis.
- C: Zoloft has a boxed warning about suicidal thoughts and behaviors; that is not the boxed warning on metformin.
- D: That is not metformin's boxed warning.
Takeaway: Metformin's boxed warning: lactic acidosis.
Source: Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Boxed Warning; ZOLOFT (sertraline) label, DailyMed, Boxed Warning
Question 60 of 80
In this September 2026 example, an NDC is printed as 50742-633-60. Which statement about the NDC format is correct?
- A. All three segments identify the patient
- B. The first segment is the lot number
- C. NDCs are already required to be 12 digits in September 2026
- D. The segments identify the labeler, the product, and the package; FDA's final rule moves NDCs to a 12-digit format effective March 7, 2033
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.3 · PTCB-O14
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The segments identify the labeler, the product, and the package; FDA's final rule moves NDCs to a 12-digit format effective March 7, 2033. An NDC has three segments: labeler code, product code, and package code. This 10-digit example uses the 5-3-2 configuration; the FDA describes 4-4-2, 5-3-2, and 5-4-1 configurations for the 10-digit format. FDA's March 5, 2026 final rule changes FDA-assigned NDCs to a uniform 12-digit 6-4-2 format, effective March 7, 2033.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The NDC identifies the product and package, not a patient.
- B: The lot number is a separate code. It isn't part of the NDC.
- C: The 12-digit format isn't effective until March 7, 2033.
Takeaway: NDC = labeler-product-package. 12 digits starts in 2033, not now.
Source: FDA final rule, Revising the National Drug Code Format (Federal Register, March 5, 2026), Summary and effective date; Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Section 16.1 (example NDC 50742-633-60, 60-tablet bottle); FDA, National Drug Code Format, Three-segment 10-digit formats; future 12-digit format
Question 61 of 80
A prescription is for 5 mL by mouth twice daily. The label printed says "Take 15 mL by mouth twice daily." The medicine and concentration are unchanged. How many times the prescribed volume would each dose contain, and what type of error is this?
- A. Three times the dose; incorrect dose
- B. Twice the dose; incorrect route
- C. The same dose; no error
- D. Ten times the dose; incorrect patient
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.5 · Math · PTCB-S15
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Three times the dose; incorrect dose. 15 mL ÷ 5 mL = 3, so each dose would be three times what was prescribed. That's an incorrect-dose error, one of the error types in PTCB's outline.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: The route (by mouth) matches, and the multiplier is 3, not 2.
- C: The volumes are different.
- D: The multiplier is 3, and the patient isn't in question.
Takeaway: Compare label to prescription line by line, and do the math.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (15 ÷ 5 = 3); PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.5
Question 62 of 80
What is Ventolin HFA (albuterol) indicated for?
- A. Lowering cholesterol
- B. Seasonal allergy eye drops
- C. Treatment or prevention of bronchospasm
- D. Controlling blood sugar
Medications · Knowledge area 1.6 · PTCB-M22
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Treatment or prevention of bronchospasm. The Ventolin HFA label lists treatment or prevention of bronchospasm in patients 4 years and older with reversible obstructive airway disease, and prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: That describes statins.
- B: Ventolin HFA is an oral inhaler, not an eye product.
- D: That describes diabetes drugs such as metformin.
Takeaway: Albuterol inhaler: bronchospasm.
Source: VENTOLIN HFA (albuterol sulfate) label, DailyMed, Section 1 Indications and Usage
Question 63 of 80
Which FDA recall class describes a reasonable probability that using the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death?
- A. Class I
- B. Class II
- C. Class III
- D. Market withdrawal
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.5 · PTCB-F12
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Class I. FDA defines Class I as a situation with a reasonable probability that use of, or exposure to, a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. It's the most serious class.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Class II covers temporary or medically reversible effects, or cases where serious harm is remote.
- C: Class III covers products not likely to cause adverse health consequences.
- D: A market withdrawal is not a recall class.
Takeaway: Class I is the most serious recall; Class III is the least.
Source: FDA, Recalls Background and Definitions, Recall Classifications
Question 64 of 80
A fictional training recall notice covers product code TRN-A, lot R2601 only. Which stock record is affected? Record 1: TRN-A, lot R2602. Record 2: TRN-A, lot R2601. Record 3: TRN-B, lot R2601. Record 4: TRN-B, lot R2602.
- A. Record 1
- B. Record 2
- C. Record 3
- D. Record 4
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.3 · PTCB-O15
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Record 2. Only Record 2 matches both the product code and the lot number in the notice. A recall defines its own scope, so both fields must match. (These codes are made up for practice. They aren't real NDCs or a real recall.)
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Right product, wrong lot.
- C: Right lot number, wrong product.
- D: Neither field matches.
Takeaway: Match every field the recall names: product and lot.
Source: Fictional records and policy supplied in the question (Fictional records in the question); FDA, Recalls Background and Definitions, Recall background
Question 65 of 80
Metformin extended-release tablets are indicated for which condition?
- A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus in adults, with diet and exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes as the only treatment
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Hypothyroidism
Medications · Knowledge area 1.6 · PTCB-M23
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus in adults, with diet and exercise. The label indicates metformin ER as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve blood sugar control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: The indication is type 2, not type 1.
- C: Metformin isn't a blood pressure drug.
- D: Hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine.
Takeaway: Metformin: type 2 diabetes, with diet and exercise.
Source: Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Section 1 Indications and Usage; SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Section 1, Indications and Usage
Question 66 of 80
A prescription reads: 1 tablet daily, #30. The filled bottle contains 90 tablets of the correct drug and strength, with the correct directions and no authorized quantity change. What type of error is this, and how many extra days' supply went out?
- A. Incorrect drug; 30 extra days
- B. Incorrect quantity; 60 extra days
- C. Incorrect route; 90 extra days
- D. No error; larger bottles are always allowed
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.5 · Math · PTCB-S16
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Incorrect quantity; 60 extra days. The drug and directions are right, but 90 tablets were dispensed instead of 30. 90 − 30 = 60 extra tablets, which is 60 extra days at 1 tablet a day. That's an incorrect-quantity error.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The drug is correct, and the extra supply is 60 days, not 30.
- C: Nothing about the route changed.
- D: Quantity must match what was prescribed and authorized.
Takeaway: Quantity errors can hide in a correct-looking label.
Source: Worked from the numbers in the question (90 − 30 = 60); PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.5
Question 67 of 80
A dispensing pharmacy receives a sealed bottle with a damaged label and a lot number that doesn't match its paperwork. It decides the product is suspect. Under the DSCSA, what must it do first?
- A. Dispense it if the pills look normal
- B. Destroy it immediately without investigation
- C. Return it to stock and watch for problems
- D. Quarantine it away from sellable stock and promptly investigate
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.6 · PTCB-F13
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Quarantine it away from sellable stock and promptly investigate. Under 21 U.S.C. 360eee-1(d)(4)(A), when a dispenser determines a product is suspect, it must quarantine the product from product intended for distribution until it's cleared or dispositioned, and promptly investigate with trading partners as needed to decide whether it's illegitimate.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Appearance can't clear a suspect product.
- B: Destroying it skips the required investigation and evidence.
- C: Putting it back in stock is exactly what quarantine prevents.
Takeaway: Suspect product: quarantine and investigate.
Source: 21 U.S.C. 360eee-1 (DSCSA dispenser requirements), U.S. Code, 21 U.S.C. 360eee-1(d)(4)(A); 21 U.S.C. 360eee (DSCSA definitions), govinfo, 21 U.S.C. 360eee(15), definition of quarantine
Question 68 of 80
Synthroid (levothyroxine) is used mainly to treat which condition?
- A. Hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid)
- B. Hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid)
- C. Seasonal allergies
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Medications · Knowledge area 1.6 · PTCB-M24
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid). Synthroid is labeled as replacement therapy for hypothyroidism, when the thyroid gland doesn't make enough thyroid hormone. It supplies a synthetic version of that hormone.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: An overactive thyroid needs the opposite kind of treatment.
- C: Levothyroxine isn't an allergy medicine.
- D: That's metformin's indication.
Takeaway: Levothyroxine replaces thyroid hormone: hypothyroidism.
Source: SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie, Section 1, Indications and Usage; Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed, Section 1, Indications and Usage
Question 69 of 80
In this fictional stock check, the date is September 24, 2026. Which bottle has not passed its listed expiration date? Bottle 1: EXP 03/2026. Bottle 2: EXP 11/2027. Bottle 3: EXP 01/2026. Bottle 4: EXP 06/2025.
- A. Bottle 2
- B. Bottle 1
- C. Bottle 3
- D. Bottle 4
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.3 · PTCB-O16
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Bottle 2. Bottles 1, 3, and 4 all expired before September 2026. Only Bottle 2 (November 2027) is still in date.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: March 2026 has already passed.
- C: January 2026 has already passed.
- D: June 2025 expired more than a year ago.
Takeaway: Check the expiration on every stock bottle before filling.
Source: Fictional records and policy supplied in the question (Compare the four supplied expiration months with September 24, 2026.); FDA, Don’t Be Tempted to Use Expired Medicines, Expired medicines can be risky
Question 70 of 80
A prescription for hydrALAZINE oral tablets is filled with hydrOXYzine oral tablets. What type of error is this?
- A. Wrong quantity
- B. Wrong route
- C. Wrong patient
- D. Wrong drug
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.5 · PTCB-S17
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Wrong drug. The patient received a different drug than prescribed. This look-alike pair is on FDA's Tall Man list because the names are easy to confuse.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Nothing in the question says the count was wrong.
- B: Both are oral tablets.
- C: The patient isn't in question.
Takeaway: LASA mix-ups become wrong-drug errors.
Source: PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 3.5; ISMP, FDA and ISMP Lists of Look-Alike Drug Names with Recommended Tall Man Letters (2023), Table 1
Question 71 of 80
A bottle of Sandoz amoxicillin for oral suspension is reconstituted today. According to the label, when must any unused suspension be discarded?
- A. After 7 days
- B. After 10 days
- C. After 30 days
- D. After 14 days
Medications · Knowledge area 1.7 · PTCB-M25
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. After 14 days. The amoxicillin label says any unused portion of the reconstituted suspension must be discarded after 14 days, and that refrigeration is preferable but not required.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: 7 days is not this label's limit.
- B: A prescribed course length is not the product's stability limit; this label says 14 days.
- C: 30 days goes well past the labeled limit.
Takeaway: This Sandoz reconstituted amoxicillin suspension: discard after 14 days. Refrigeration preferred, not required.
Source: Amoxicillin label (Sandoz), DailyMed, Storage and Handling; Patient Counseling
Question 72 of 80
After investigating, a pharmacy determines that a product in its possession is illegitimate (for example, counterfeit). Under the DSCSA, who must it notify, and how fast?
- A. Only the patient, within 30 days
- B. FDA and appropriate immediate trading partners, within 24 hours
- C. Only the state board, within 7 days
- D. No one, if the product is destroyed
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.6 · PTCB-F14
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. FDA and appropriate immediate trading partners, within 24 hours. FDA explains that dispensers and other trading partners must notify FDA and all appropriate immediate trading partners within 24 hours after determining a product is illegitimate. FDA takes these notices through Form FDA 3911 or its online 3911 platform.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The patient isn't the required notification target, and 30 days is far too slow.
- C: The federal DSCSA notice goes to FDA and trading partners. A state may have its own rules too.
- D: Destroying the product doesn't remove the duty to notify.
Takeaway: Illegitimate product: notify FDA and immediate trading partners within 24 hours.
Source: FDA, Notify FDA of Illegitimate Products, Notify FDA Within 24 Hours
Question 73 of 80
A new Lantus SoloStar pen was refrigerated as directed until its first use, and its printed expiration date is more than 28 days away. The patient then keeps it below 86°F (30°C), protected from heat and light. According to the label, how long can that pen be used after its first use?
- A. Up to 28 days
- B. Up to 7 days
- C. Up to 90 days
- D. Until the expiration date on the carton
Medications · Knowledge area 1.7 · PTCB-M26
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Up to 28 days. Lantus instructions say to use the pen for up to 28 days after its first use and to throw it away after 28 days even if insulin is left. In-use pens are kept at room temperature below 86°F (30°C) and not put back in the refrigerator.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: 7 days is far shorter than the labeled in-use period.
- C: 90 days is far longer than the labeled in-use period.
- D: The printed expiration date does not extend the 28-day in-use period. Any earlier expiration still applies.
Takeaway: Opened Lantus pen: 28 days, then discard even if insulin remains.
Source: LANTUS (insulin glargine) label, DailyMed, Section 16 Storage; Instructions for Use
Question 74 of 80
A pharmacy's written policy says: "Remove expired stock from dispensable inventory and place it in the labeled non-dispensable returns bin for processing." A technician finds an expired bottle on the shelf. What should the technician do?
- A. Move it to the labeled non-dispensable returns bin
- B. Put it at the back of the shelf
- C. Use it first so it isn't wasted
- D. Throw it in the regular trash
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.4 · PTCB-O17
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Move it to the labeled non-dispensable returns bin. Expired medicine is non-dispensable, and this policy spells out the process: pull it from dispensable stock and put it in the designated returns bin for processing (for example, credit return or reverse distribution). Keeping expired stock separate prevents it from being dispensed by mistake.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: It stays in dispensable inventory, where it could be dispensed.
- C: Expired stock must not be dispensed.
- D: The policy names a process, and disposal rules can depend on the product.
Takeaway: Expired = out of dispensable stock, into the designated returns process.
Source: Fictional records and policy supplied in the question (Policy supplied in the question); PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026), Knowledge area 4.4; FDA, Don’t Be Tempted to Use Expired Medicines, Expired medicines can be risky
Question 75 of 80
After cleaning up an ordinary nonhazardous spill, a technician's hands are visibly soiled. What does CDC recommend?
- A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer
- B. Put on gloves over the soiled hands
- C. Wipe hands with a dry paper towel
- D. Wash with soap and water
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.6 · PTCB-S18
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Wash with soap and water. CDC says to wash with soap and water when hands are visibly soiled. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer is preferred in most other clinical situations when hands are not visibly soiled.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Sanitizer is preferred only when hands are not visibly soiled.
- B: Gloves don't clean hands.
- C: Wiping doesn't clean hands.
Takeaway: Visibly soiled = soap and water.
Source: CDC, Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers, When to wash with soap and water
Question 76 of 80
Which storage condition does the Lantus label specify for unopened, unused pharmacy stock kept until its printed expiration date, when that date is more than 28 days away?
- A. In the freezer
- B. At room temperature on the shelf
- C. In a refrigerator at 36°F to 46°F (2°C to 8°C), not frozen
- D. In a warm cabinet above 86°F
Medications · Knowledge area 1.8 · PTCB-M27
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. In a refrigerator at 36°F to 46°F (2°C to 8°C), not frozen. The Lantus label says to store unused Lantus in a refrigerator between 36°F and 46°F (2°C and 8°C), not to freeze it, and to discard it if it has been frozen. It should also be protected from direct heat and light.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Freezing ruins the product; frozen Lantus is discarded.
- B: Unused Lantus may be kept at room temperature for up to 28 days, but not until a printed expiration date beyond that period.
- D: Heat damages insulin.
Takeaway: Unused Lantus kept until its printed expiration date: refrigerate at 36–46°F (2–8°C). Never freeze.
Source: LANTUS (insulin glargine) label, DailyMed, Section 16 How Supplied/Storage
Question 77 of 80
Under the DSCSA definition, a product identifier on a package includes which set of information?
- A. Patient name, prescriber, and fill date
- B. Price, wholesaler, and invoice number
- C. Standardized numerical identifier, lot number, and expiration date
- D. Pharmacy name, address, and DEA number
Federal Requirements · Knowledge area 2.6 · PTCB-F15
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Standardized numerical identifier, lot number, and expiration date. 21 U.S.C. 360eee defines the product identifier as a standardized graphic, in human-readable and machine-readable form, that includes the standardized numerical identifier, lot number, and expiration date of the product. These make package-level tracing possible.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Those are prescription label elements, not the package identifier.
- B: Those are business records.
- D: Those identify the pharmacy, not the product package.
Takeaway: DSCSA product identifier: standardized numerical identifier + lot + expiration.
Source: 21 U.S.C. 360eee (DSCSA definitions), govinfo, 21 U.S.C. 360eee(14), product identifier
Question 78 of 80
Under the DSCSA's definition, which of these counts as a "return"?
- A. Dispensing a prescription to a patient
- B. Sending product back to the authorized trading partner it was bought from, or to a returns processor or reverse logistics provider
- C. Moving a bottle from one shelf to another
- D. Transferring a prescription to another pharmacy
Order Entry and Processing · Knowledge area 4.4 · PTCB-O18
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Sending product back to the authorized trading partner it was bought from, or to a returns processor or reverse logistics provider. The DSCSA defines a return as providing product to the authorized immediate trading partner from which it was purchased or received, or to a returns processor or reverse logistics provider for handling.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: Dispensing isn't a return.
- C: Moving stock inside the pharmacy isn't a return.
- D: A prescription transfer moves prescription information, not product.
Takeaway: DSCSA return = product back to the seller or to a returns processor.
Source: 21 U.S.C. 360eee (DSCSA definitions), govinfo, 21 U.S.C. 360eee(17), definition of return
Question 79 of 80
A technician wore gloves while handling a returned medication and has just taken them off. According to CDC, what should happen next?
- A. Clean hands immediately after removing the gloves
- B. Nothing; gloves kept the hands clean
- C. Put on a second pair to be safe
- D. Clean hands at the end of the shift
Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Knowledge area 3.6 · PTCB-S19
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Clean hands immediately after removing the gloves. CDC lists "immediately after glove removal" as a time to perform hand hygiene.
Why the other choices don't fit
- B: Gloves don't replace hand hygiene.
- C: More gloves don't substitute for cleaning hands.
- D: CDC says immediately, not later.
Takeaway: Gloves off → clean hands.
Source: CDC, Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers, When to perform hand hygiene
Question 80 of 80
A patient wants to move her Nitrostat tablets into a plastic weekly pill organizer. What does the labeling say about storage?
- A. Any container is fine
- B. Keep them in the original glass container, tightly capped
- C. Keep them in the refrigerator door
- D. Keep them loose in a pocket so they're always handy
Medications · Knowledge area 1.8 · PTCB-M28
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Keep them in the original glass container, tightly capped. Nitrostat labeling says to keep the tablets in the original glass container, tightly capped. This helps protect the tablets' potency.
Why the other choices don't fit
- A: The label names a specific container.
- C: The label's direction is about the original glass container, not refrigeration.
- D: Loose tablets are out of the protective container.
Takeaway: Nitrostat tablets: original glass bottle, cap on tight.
Source: NITROSTAT (nitroglycerin sublingual tablets) label, DailyMed, How Supplied; Patient Information
Score your practice test
Count only the answers you chose before opening an explanation. Record correct ÷ answered as a fraction; for a percentage, calculate 100 × correct ÷ answered. Leave out questions you skipped or peeked at before answering, so they don't count as right or wrong. If you haven't answered any, there's no score yet. Here, ‘answered’ means a first answer chosen before seeing its solution. Opening the full answer key makes any remaining unattempted questions viewed, not independent first attempts.
That number describes how you did on these 80 questions. It isn't a PTCE score. PTCB reports scaled scores from 1,000 to 1,600, with 1,400 to pass, and adjusts for differences between exam forms, so there's no honest way to convert a practice percentage into a scaled score or a pass prediction. PTCB explains its scoring here.
Show the answer key
| Question | Answer | Domain | Knowledge area | ID |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O01 |
| 2 | B | Medications | 1.1 | PTCB-M01 |
| 3 | B | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.1 | PTCB-S01 |
| 4 | C | Federal Requirements | 2.2 | PTCB-F01 |
| 5 | C | Medications | 1.1 | PTCB-M02 |
| 6 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.1 | PTCB-S02 |
| 7 | B | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O02 |
| 8 | A | Medications | 1.1 | PTCB-M03 |
| 9 | A | Federal Requirements | 2.2 | PTCB-F02 |
| 10 | D | Medications | 1.1 | PTCB-M04 |
| 11 | D | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.2 | PTCB-S03 |
| 12 | C | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O03 |
| 13 | B | Medications | 1.1 | PTCB-M05 |
| 14 | B | Federal Requirements | 2.2 | PTCB-F03 |
| 15 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.1 | PTCB-S04 |
| 16 | C | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O04 |
| 17 | C | Medications | 1.2 | PTCB-M06 |
| 18 | A | Federal Requirements | 2.2 | PTCB-F04 |
| 19 | A | Medications | 1.2 | PTCB-M07 |
| 20 | B | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.2 | PTCB-S05 |
| 21 | C | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O05 |
| 22 | D | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M08 |
| 23 | C | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.2 | PTCB-S06 |
| 24 | D | Federal Requirements | 2.2 | PTCB-F05 |
| 25 | A | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M09 |
| 26 | A | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O06 |
| 27 | B | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M10 |
| 28 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.3 | PTCB-S07 |
| 29 | B | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O07 |
| 30 | C | Federal Requirements | 2.3 | PTCB-F06 |
| 31 | C | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M11 |
| 32 | D | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.3 | PTCB-S08 |
| 33 | B | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M12 |
| 34 | D | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O08 |
| 35 | A | Federal Requirements | 2.3 | PTCB-F07 |
| 36 | D | Medications | 1.3 | PTCB-M13 |
| 37 | B | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.3 | PTCB-S09 |
| 38 | A | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O09 |
| 39 | C | Medications | 1.4 | PTCB-M14 |
| 40 | B | Federal Requirements | 2.3 | PTCB-F08 |
| 41 | C | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.3 | PTCB-S10 |
| 42 | A | Medications | 1.4 | PTCB-M15 |
| 43 | B | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O10 |
| 44 | B | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.4 | PTCB-S11 |
| 45 | D | Medications | 1.4 | PTCB-M16 |
| 46 | D | Federal Requirements | 2.4 | PTCB-F09 |
| 47 | D | Order Entry and Processing | 4.1 | PTCB-O11 |
| 48 | C | Medications | 1.4 | PTCB-M17 |
| 49 | D | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.4 | PTCB-S12 |
| 50 | B | Medications | 1.5 | PTCB-M18 |
| 51 | B | Federal Requirements | 2.4 | PTCB-F10 |
| 52 | C | Order Entry and Processing | 4.2 | PTCB-O12 |
| 53 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.4 | PTCB-S13 |
| 54 | A | Medications | 1.5 | PTCB-M19 |
| 55 | D | Order Entry and Processing | 4.2 | PTCB-O13 |
| 56 | D | Medications | 1.5 | PTCB-M20 |
| 57 | C | Federal Requirements | 2.1 | PTCB-F11 |
| 58 | C | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.5 | PTCB-S14 |
| 59 | B | Medications | 1.5 | PTCB-M21 |
| 60 | D | Order Entry and Processing | 4.3 | PTCB-O14 |
| 61 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.5 | PTCB-S15 |
| 62 | C | Medications | 1.6 | PTCB-M22 |
| 63 | A | Federal Requirements | 2.5 | PTCB-F12 |
| 64 | B | Order Entry and Processing | 4.3 | PTCB-O15 |
| 65 | A | Medications | 1.6 | PTCB-M23 |
| 66 | B | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.5 | PTCB-S16 |
| 67 | D | Federal Requirements | 2.6 | PTCB-F13 |
| 68 | B | Medications | 1.6 | PTCB-M24 |
| 69 | A | Order Entry and Processing | 4.3 | PTCB-O16 |
| 70 | D | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.5 | PTCB-S17 |
| 71 | D | Medications | 1.7 | PTCB-M25 |
| 72 | B | Federal Requirements | 2.6 | PTCB-F14 |
| 73 | A | Medications | 1.7 | PTCB-M26 |
| 74 | A | Order Entry and Processing | 4.4 | PTCB-O17 |
| 75 | D | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.6 | PTCB-S18 |
| 76 | C | Medications | 1.8 | PTCB-M27 |
| 77 | C | Federal Requirements | 2.6 | PTCB-F15 |
| 78 | B | Order Entry and Processing | 4.4 | PTCB-O18 |
| 79 | A | Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 3.6 | PTCB-S19 |
| 80 | B | Medications | 1.8 | PTCB-M28 |
Score by domain
Tally your first-attempt answers by domain. The domains have 15 to 28 questions here. After attempting every question in a domain, one answer changes its percentage by roughly 3.6 to 6.7 points; with fewer questions attempted, the effect is larger. Treat the domain results as a pointer to what to review, not a precise measure.
| Domain | Questions in this set | Your correct | Your answered |
|---|---|---|---|
| Medications | 28 | ||
| Federal Requirements | 15 | ||
| Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 19 | ||
| Order Entry and Processing | 18 | ||
| Total | 80 |
Turn each miss into a review task
Scores fade. The rule behind each miss is what sticks. For every question you missed or guessed, fill in one row, then retry the question a few days later without looking at the explanation.
| Question ID | What I chose | Why it was wrong | Rule to remember | Source to reread | Retry date |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| PTCB-O04 | B (400 mL) | I found the diluent to add, but the question asked for final volume | C1V1 = C2V2 gives the final volume; final − starting = diluent added | Worked math in the explanation | |
What this practice test covers
The set follows the four domains and 24 knowledge areas in PTCB's PTCE Content Outline, effective January 6, 2026. Every knowledge area has at least one question.
| Domain | PTCB weight | Editorial allocation (weight × 80) | Questions here | Knowledge areas covered |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Medications | 35% | 28 | 28 | 1.1–1.8 |
| Federal Requirements | 18.75% | 15 | 15 | 2.1–2.6 |
| Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 23.75% | 19 | 19 | 3.1–3.6 |
| Order Entry and Processing | 22.50% | 18 | 18 | 4.1–4.4 |
| Total | 100% | 80 | 80 | 24 of 24 |
The weights are PTCB's. The question counts are our arithmetic: each weight times 80, which happens to come out to whole numbers. The outline does not specify question counts by knowledge area, so how we spread questions within a domain is our editorial choice. Matching the domain proportions does not match the real exam's difficulty or cover every example within each knowledge area.
Seventeen questions are tagged Math because they require arithmetic or a numeric conversion. That tag is ours. The outline marks some knowledge areas as involving calculations but does not give a math-question count. The remaining questions include rule recall, product recognition, and record comparison.
This is a sample of the current outline, not an exhaustive review of every topic. There are no alligation drills, nonsterile compounding procedures, billing questions, or state-law questions. For federal-law questions, the answer is the federal rule; your state can be stricter.
How this compares with the real PTCE
| Row label | Real PTCE | This practice test |
|---|---|---|
| Questions | 90 multiple-choice: 80 scored and 10 unscored, mixed in and not identified | 80 original questions; only answers chosen before revealing a solution count in your first-attempt result |
| Time | 110 minutes of testing inside a 2-hour appointment (5-minute tutorial and 5-minute survey) | Untimed. For real-exam pace, give yourself 98 minutes |
| Scoring | Scaled 1,000–1,600; 1,400 passes | Correct ÷ answered; percentage = 100 × correct ÷ answered, on these items only |
| Calculator | Built into the exam; personal calculators not allowed; a hand-held may be used on request if the test center has one | Use a basic calculator |
| Where | In person at Pearson test centers | Here, on this page |
The 98 minutes is our arithmetic: (110 minutes ÷ 90 questions) × 80 = about 97.8 minutes, rounded to 98 minutes. That is about 73 seconds per question. This is a pacing exercise, not a full-length exam simulation.
Sources: PTCB CPhT page (About the Exam; Scoring), and PTCB's calculator policy.
PTCB or PTCE? PTCB is the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board. The PTCE is its exam, and CPhT is the credential you earn. "The PTCB exam" means the PTCE. The NHA ExCPT is a different exam; this set is for the PTCE. Compare the certification pathways.
For the official application and exam information, use PTCB’s CPhT page. Certification is not itself permission to practice; check your state board’s requirements for working as a pharmacy technician.
Frequently asked questions
Are these real PTCE questions? No. Every question here was written for this page to match PTCB's published outline. They are not actual, recalled, or retired PTCE items.
Why 80 questions instead of 90? The real PTCE has 80 scored questions and 10 unidentified, unscored questions. Our 80-question set lets the published domain weights convert to whole-number allocations. It is still an unofficial sample, not an official form or a full-length 90-question simulation.
Should I take this before or after studying? Either works. Early on, the mistakes give you specific topics to start reviewing. Later, work it at 98 minutes to practice pacing, then review every miss with the table above.
Sources and editorial notes
Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.
Last source check: September 24, 2026. On that date we checked the exam format, scoring, calculator policy, domain weights, and knowledge areas against PTCB's pages and the PTCE Content Outline, and checked the teaching claims against the label, regulation, or safety source linked beside each explanation. Calculations use only the numbers given in each question. AI tools assisted with drafting, source checking, and editing. These questions have not been reviewed by an outside pharmacist. They teach general principles; your pharmacy's policies, your state's rules, and the pharmacist you work with govern real practice.
Official PTCB sources
- PTCB, PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026)
- PTCB, Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT) page
- PTCB Help Center, Calculators
Drug labels and patient information
- LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) label, DailyMed
- ZOLOFT (sertraline) label, DailyMed
- Lisinopril tablets label (Camber), DailyMed
- Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide tablets label, DailyMed
- FDA, Don't Overuse Acetaminophen
- SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) prescribing information, AbbVie
- NITROSTAT (nitroglycerin sublingual tablets) label, DailyMed
- Metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets label (Ingenus, rev. 4/2026), DailyMed
- Amoxicillin label (Sandoz), DailyMed
- Amoxicillin for oral suspension label, DailyMed
- VENTOLIN HFA (albuterol sulfate) label, DailyMed
- LANTUS (insulin glargine) label, DailyMed
- ZOCOR (simvastatin) prescribing information, Organon
- Amlodipine besylate tablets label, DailyMed
- CRESTOR (rosuvastatin) label, DailyMed
- XANAX (alprazolam) label, DailyMed
- LOPRESSOR (metoprolol tartrate) label, DailyMed
- COZAAR (losartan potassium) label, DailyMed
- Budesonide inhalation suspension label, DailyMed
- ATROVENT HFA (ipratropium bromide) label, DailyMed
- SINGULAIR (montelukast) label, DailyMed
- Liothyronine sodium tablets label, DailyMed
- Methimazole tablets label, DailyMed
- Levetiracetam extended-release tablets label, DailyMed
Federal law and FDA sources
- 21 CFR Part 1306 (Prescriptions), eCFR
- 21 CFR 1301.76, eCFR
- 21 CFR Part 1314 (Retail sale of scheduled listed chemical products), eCFR
- 21 CFR 1314.20, eCFR
- 40 CFR 266.505, eCFR
- FDA, Recalls Background and Definitions
- 21 U.S.C. 360eee-1 (DSCSA dispenser requirements), U.S. Code
- 21 U.S.C. 360eee (DSCSA definitions), govinfo
- FDA, Notify FDA of Illegitimate Products
- FDA final rule, Revising the National Drug Code Format (Federal Register, March 5, 2026)
- 21 CFR Part 1305, orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances
- FDA, National Drug Code Format
- FDA, Don’t Be Tempted to Use Expired Medicines
Medication safety, reporting, and infection prevention sources
- ISMP (ECRI), High-Alert Medications in Community/Ambulatory Care Settings
- ISMP, Medication Safety Self Assessment for High-Alert Medications
- ISMP, FDA and ISMP Lists of Look-Alike Drug Names with Recommended Tall Man Letters (2023)
- ISMP, Guidelines for Safe Electronic Communication of Medication Information (2019)
- VAERS, Frequently Asked Questions
- CDC, About the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)
- AHRQ PSNet, Root Cause Analysis (primer)
- AHRQ PSNet, Strategies and Approaches for Investigating Patient Safety Events
- CDC, Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers
- CDC, Prescription Drug Monitoring Programs (PDMPs)
- U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Pharmacy Technicians: Duties
- FDA, MedWatch: The FDA Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program
How we build and correct pages: methodology · corrections · independence
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB). PTCB, PTCE, and CPhT are used only to identify the exam and credential discussed; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and unofficial. No score on them guarantees a result on the PTCE or determines eligibility or permission to work.