Free NHA CEHRS Practice Test

Correct answer: B. A matching name alone does not resolve conflicting identifiers. When a second identifier contradicts the record, the identification has failed and nothing should be filed until it is resolved. D is a guess dressed up as a decision — recency says nothing about whose report this is. A edits an identifier to force a match, corrupting the record and masking the mismatch. C may create a duplicate record without answering the actual question, which is whose report this is.

Review takeaway: Resolve an identity mismatch before you put anything in a chart.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.A.

Correct answer: A. Use the approved person-specific identifiers together. Full name and date of birth meet the stated requirement; a name can change and still be a patient identifier. D does not identify the person — a room changes during a stay and a diagnosis describes a condition, not a person. B identifies a coverage arrangement, not a patient; a plan can be shared by a whole family and can change mid-year. C identifies an encounter. Many patients can share one provider and one date.

Review takeaway: Use the approved patient identifiers, not the room, diagnosis or appointment.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.A / 1.K2.

Correct answer: C. Similar surnames plus multiple open records is a well-recognised setup for wrong-patient entry, and the person who can settle it is the one who saw the patient. C asks them. B treats screen focus as clinical information, which it is not. D deliberately puts a note in a chart where it does not belong, and later removal does not make that wrong-patient entry appropriate. A uses schedule order as an identifier, which it is not.

Review takeaway: When two records could be right, confirm with a second identifier — do not pick.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.A.

Correct answer: A. Change what the patient actually reported and nothing else. B and C both invent facts: a move does not tell you she changed jobs, and it does not tell you who is financially responsible for her account. The guarantor is a separate question you would have to ask. D drags a clinical field into an administrative call for no stated reason; a phone call about an address gives you no information about her allergy.

Review takeaway: Update the field the patient reported. Do not infer the neighbouring ones.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification; HL7 FHIR R4: Patient Definitions; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.B.

Correct answer: C. “Subscriber relationship to the patient” describes how the person is connected to an insurance policy — self, spouse, dependent — so it only exists because coverage exists. A, B and D all describe the person independently of any payer.

Review takeaway: Ask whether the field would still exist if the patient had no insurance.

Answer basis: HL7 FHIR R4: Patient Definitions; HL7 FHIR R4: Coverage Definitions. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.B / 1.K1.

Correct answer: B. The card identifies the wife as the subscriber and the patient as her dependent. Recording her as subscriber and him as a dependent is exactly what the coverage fields are for. A would overwrite the patient's identity with someone else's — an identity error, not a billing one. C confuses a coverage role with an emergency contact, which are unrelated. D throws away supplied coverage information rather than recording the subscriber relationship.

Review takeaway: Keep the subscriber and the patient in their respective fields.

Answer basis: HL7 FHIR R4: Coverage Definitions; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.B.

Correct answer: B. A face sheet is the front-of-chart summary: who the patient is, how to reach them, and who is paying. C is the medication administration record. D is clinical documentation written by the provider. A describes an itemised billing document, not the registration summary in the stem. All three of those are real documents — they are just not this one.

Review takeaway: The face sheet answers “who is this and who pays,” not “what happened.”

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.C.

Correct answer: D. Anything printed from an unverified registration may carry the wrong identifiers, and staff use wristbands and labels in later identification checks. Follow the stated policy: securely discard, verify, reprint. C puts an unverified band on a patient and hopes. A creates a document whose printed and handwritten fields disagree, which is exactly what causes downstream mix-ups. B leaves an unverified wristband in use — the most consequential of the printed items — and solves nothing.

Review takeaway: Under this workflow, securely discard unverified output, complete verification, then reprint.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.C.

Correct answer: A. A provider database exists to hold provider attributes — names, specialties, NPIs. A is a direct lookup. D holds payer and policy data about the patient. B may show which provider was involved in one encounter but is not a reliable source for that provider's NPI. C is a clinical list about the patient, not the maintained provider directory specified here.

Review takeaway: Use the maintained provider directory for this provider lookup.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.D / 1.K24.

Correct answer: D. The data already exists in a maintained internal source, so retrieve it and confirm it belongs to the right person. C asks a patient for an administrative identifier they have no reason to know. A knowingly submits an incomplete claim and creates avoidable rework. B substitutes one provider's identifier for another's, which misstates who made the referral — a documentation problem before it is a billing problem.

Review takeaway: Pull identifiers from the maintained source, then confirm the match.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.D.

Correct answer: C. The question tests identity matching: this result must belong to the intended patient before it is filed. B is an administrative matter that does not change where the result belongs. D is a clinical interpretation and is not the records specialist's call — abnormal results still get filed. A is a coverage question with its own workflow; it does not resolve whose result this is.

Review takeaway: Before filing anything, confirm whose record it belongs in.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification; ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Test Results Reporting and Follow-Up; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.E.

Correct answer: A. External means outside your organisation. An outside diagnostic laboratory is a different entity, which is why acquiring its data raises transmission and identity-matching questions. B and D are internal systems, even though they are separate applications. C is a device used to capture documents; a document it scans may itself have an outside source.

Review takeaway: External is about organisational boundaries, not about which application it is.

Answer basis: Original application of the task described in the test plan. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.E / 1.K4.

Correct answer: A. The document itself tells you a page is missing, and the stated rule requires complete imports — so complete it. C records a false status that later readers will rely on. D is more honest than C but still files a known-incomplete consent when the fix is available. B asks the patient to redo something they already did, and does not recover the missing page, which may contain terms the original signature covered.

Review takeaway: When the document says a page is missing, get the page.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.F.

Correct answer: D. The patient is right there, so capture a real signature. B reuses a signature the patient gave for a different document on a different date, which misrepresents what she agreed to now. C uses a method the stated consent workflow does not permit. A records a consent as captured when no signature was captured — a false entry in the record, and one that may matter if the consent is ever examined.

Review takeaway: Capture the signature through the approved process for this document.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.F.

Correct answer: A. Retired devices can hold stored data, so an inventory has to show what happened to them rather than just stop mentioning them. A adds the field that answers the question. B multiplies rows without recording anything new. C deletes the very history someone would need to confirm the devices were handled properly. D buries a status in a field meant for a person's name, rather than recording retirement in the designated status information.

Review takeaway: An inventory has to say what happened to a device, not just where it used to be.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.G / 1.K8.

Correct answer: B. Lay the booked time against the available time. Between 9:00 and 11:00 there are four 30-minute slots: 9:00, 9:30, 10:00, 10:30. The 9:00 and 10:00 slots are taken, leaving 9:30 and 10:30 open. The earliest of those is 9:30. A and C are already booked and the no-overlap rule rules them out. D is open but later.

Review takeaway: Work the schedule against the stated rule instead of eyeballing the gaps.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.H.

Correct answer: C. Check-out handles what the visit produced, and a follow-up ordered during the encounter is one of those things. In this clinic's workflow, A, B and D are registration checks: identity so documentation lands in the right chart, coverage so the encounter can be billed, and contact details so results and statements reach the patient.

Review takeaway: Check-in prepares the encounter; check-out handles what it produced.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.H / 1.K11.

Correct answer: D. Coordinating means moving the referral through the system reliably — entering it, attaching what the receiving office needs, confirming it arrived. A, B and C are all clinical judgements that belong to the ordering provider. Predicting another clinician's recommendation to a patient is not part of this non-clinical coordination task.

Review takeaway: Coordinate the referral; do not make the clinical decisions inside it.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.H.

Correct answer: A. A training environment exists precisely so practice entries cannot reach a real chart, and its records are fictional, so no one's privacy is at stake. D uses a real patient's record as a teaching aid and risks practice data landing in it. B is still a real chart in the live system rather than the designated environment for this lesson. C relies on trainees remembering not to save, which is not a control — and in the live system an unsaved action can still leave an access-log entry.

Review takeaway: Practice belongs in the environment built for practice.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.I.

Correct answer: D. Training documentation answers three questions — who needs it, who got it, and how recently. A completion record does not, by itself, prove competency. A is unrelated to training records. B confuses training with authorisation: completing training does not grant unrestricted access, which is set by role-based privileges. C confuses documenting completion with requiring identical training; the training must fit the staff member's responsibilities.

Review takeaway: Training records document completion, not unrestricted access or proof of competence.

Answer basis: HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.I / 1.K16.

Correct answer: B. Useful communication reaches the people whose work actually changes and tells them the specific thing they need. B does both. A does not highlight the specific workflow change for the people who need it. C leaves those staff to discover the change while using the system. D does not directly reach the clinical staff who use the affected screen.

Review takeaway: Tell the people the change affects, and tell them the specific change.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.J.

Correct answer: B. One patient, one identity, two systems that disagree about a single field — that is a discrepancy, and naming it correctly determines what you do next. D mistakes disagreement in a field for evidence of two people. A would require evidence of duplicate records for the person, not merely different values in two connected systems. C adds a fact the stem does not supply; nothing here says the policy ended.

Review takeaway: Name the problem correctly — discrepancy, duplicate and overlay each get a different fix.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.K.

Correct answer: C. Compare the two strings. 0045829 and 45829 are the same digits with two zeros missing from the front — a formatting loss that can occur when an identifier is handled as a number rather than as text. B blames registration for something that happened during export. D invents a second MRN the stem does not describe. A is the right idea in the wrong place: the end of the value is intact; the front is not.

Review takeaway: Preserve the identifier exactly, including any required leading zeros.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.K23.

Correct answer: C. The policy in the stem is the answer: report it with enough detail that someone can resolve it. B and D both edit systems outside the defined process; D is more tempting because you do have a plausible correct value, but manual changes outside that process may not address which source is authoritative or how the next interface run handles the values. A leaves a known discrepancy in place, which is how statements and results end up at the wrong address.

Review takeaway: Report through the process that reconciles the values and their sources.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.L.

Correct answer: B. One person, two records, two MRNs is a duplicate. The distinction matters because the remedy differs. An overlay is the opposite failure — one record holding data from two different people, which can expose a clinician to information belonging to the wrong patient. C describes a step that may happen during the fix, not the condition itself. D is not a defined term for this situation.

Review takeaway: Duplicate: one person split across records. Overlay: two people sharing one.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Patient Identification. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.L / 1.K3.

Correct answer: A. You have not verified who this caller is or whether she is authorised, and every other option acts as if you had. D hands account control to an unverified person. B discloses records over the phone without establishing identity and authority. C grants standing access based on nothing but a claimed relationship; proxy access must follow the applicable authority and account-access process, and a claimed family relationship alone does not establish access to an adult's portal.

Review takeaway: Verify identity and authority first. Everything else waits.

Answer basis: HHS: Personal Representatives; 45 CFR Part 164: Authorisations and Verification; ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Clinician Communication; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.M.

Correct answer: A. The facility has a process for exactly this, so use it — and the checks inside it are the point, not paperwork around it. D shares another person's credentials, which breaks the link between a login and the individual using it and undermines reliable attribution in the audit log. B states a rule the stem contradicts. C confuses two different accounts; the father's own patient record has nothing to do with his son's.

Review takeaway: Proxy access is granted through a documented process, never by sharing credentials.

Answer basis: HHS: Personal Representatives; 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Clinician Communication; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.M.

Correct answer: B. Portal support is help with the tool: getting in, finding things, understanding what the screens do. B is that. A and D are clinical interpretation, and the fact that the patient is asking you rather than her clinician does not transfer the authority to answer. C describes release rules set by policy and law, not something decided during a support call.

Review takeaway: Help with the portal. Route questions about the content to the clinician.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Clinician Communication; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 1.M / 1.K25.

Correct answer: B. A template is a structured prompt: for this diagnosis, procedure or visit type, here are the fields that should be filled in. Templates can be built around a diagnosis, procedure or other encounter type. C describes charge rules, which live in the billing configuration. D inverts the relationship — a template prompts, it does not decide. A describes record locking, a separate control.

Review takeaway: A template prompts for the right fields; it does not do the thinking.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.A / 2.K3.

Correct answer: B. The signed note contains a finding unsupported by the source note. Route the discrepancy to the provider for clarification and correction as needed. D leaves the unsupported finding unresolved. A is worse than it looks — “enter a normal finding” is still you documenting an examination you did not perform and did not witness. C might be a sensible longer-term fix, but it does not address the note that is already wrong.

Review takeaway: A default finding is not evidence that an examination occurred. Query the discrepancy.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.A / 2.C.

Correct answer: D. If a data element should be captured at every visit of a type, it belongs in that visit type's template as its own field. D does that. A relies on memory instead of structure. B is the dangerous one: defaulting a clinical finding to “done” means an examination that was skipped still appears in the record as completed. C provides no dedicated field for this required element; a free-text box does not organise the response the way the clinic requested.

Review takeaway: If it must be captured every time, give it a field — and never default it to done.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.A.

Correct answer: B. Two questions have to be answered before anything moves: is this recipient permitted to receive it, and is the route approved. B answers both. A treats “the recipient is a provider” as if it settled the transmission question — it does not; permission and protection are separate. C does not carry out the approved provider-to-provider transmission requested here. D sends PHI to an unconfirmed number, which is a routine cause of misdirected disclosures.

Review takeaway: Permission and protection are two separate checks. Do both.

Answer basis: HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule; 45 CFR Part 164: Authorisations and Verification; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.B.

Correct answer: A. This routing task is complete when responsibility is accepted and the handoff is documented. A does both, as the stated workflow requires; clinical review and any needed follow-up remain separate tasks. D clears the notification while leaving the ordering provider unaware the result exists. B removes it from view without delivering it anywhere. C moves paper but creates no record and no confirmation of receipt.

Review takeaway: Confirm responsibility and document the handoff. Marking something read is neither.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Test Results Reporting and Follow-Up; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.B.

Correct answer: A. Encryption answers “could someone else intercept this,” not “should this person have it.” A well-encrypted file sent to the wrong recipient is still a disclosure to the wrong recipient. D misstates the safeguard's role. B is false — the authorised recipient decrypts and reads it, which is the entire point. C is too narrow; encryption applies to stored data and to many transmission methods.

Review takeaway: Encryption protects data. It does not authorise the recipient.

Answer basis: HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.B / 2.K6.

Correct answer: A. The support role is to make sure the order the provider entered reaches the right destination intact — which includes checking that the pharmacy on file is the one the patient wants. B, C and D are all prescribing decisions. Adjusting a quantity changes the prescription; a coverage problem must go through the authorised clinical workflow, not a silent edit during transmission.

Review takeaway: Support the transmission. Do not edit the order.

Answer basis: AHRQ PSNet: Computerized Provider Order Entry; ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: CPOE with Decision Support; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.B.

Correct answer: A. A directional contradiction needs clarification from the responsible provider, not a guess by the person reviewing the note. C produces a consistent note that may now be confidently wrong, and it is you, not the author, asserting which knee. D discards the signed note instead of routing the discrepancy through the correction process. B reverses the relationship between documentation and coding — the code is supposed to follow the note, and this note supports neither side.

Review takeaway: Left-right contradictions go back to the author, not to whoever spots them.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.C / 2.K9.

Correct answer: A. Medicare expects corrections, amendments and delayed entries to be clearly and permanently identified as such, with the actual date and the author. A is exactly that. D backdates the correction and destroys the original. B changes the record with no indication anything changed, which is indistinguishable from alteration. C attributes the entry to someone who did not make it, breaking the author link the record depends on.

Review takeaway: Amend visibly: labelled as an amendment, real date, real author.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.C.

Correct answer: D. Subjective is what the patient reports — symptoms, history, how long it has been going on. Objective is what the clinician measures or observes: vitals, examination findings, results. Assessment is the clinician's conclusion. Plan is what happens next. “Three days” comes from the patient, so it is subjective, even though it is a precise-sounding number.

Review takeaway: Subjective is what the patient reports; objective is what is observed or measured.

Answer basis: Podder, Lew and Ghassemzadeh: SOAP Notes. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.C / 2.K11.

Correct answer: D. The organising principle is the problem list — documentation is grouped by problem rather than by which department produced it, which is how a source-oriented record is arranged. C confuses a format with a medium; both formats exist on paper and on screen. A describes a billing extract. B is false, since many disciplines document in a POMR.

Review takeaway: POMR organises by problem; source-oriented organises by who wrote it.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.C / 2.K11.

Correct answer: D. Naming it correctly points at the fix. This is stale content carried into a new note, and the remedy is to have the author correct the current note through the applicable documentation process. C is a record-identity problem, not a content problem. A describes something being written down wrongly; this was written correctly at the time and has simply gone out of date. B would concern the codes assigned, not the narrative.

Review takeaway: Copy-forward content that stopped being true is a documentation-accuracy problem.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.C / 2.K9.

Correct answer: B. In this session you are authorised to show the clinician where to document, not to enter the documentation yourself. B does that. A exceeds the stated assignment; authorised documentation assistance is a different workflow. C bypasses the designated immunisation record. D introduces a delay and a second transcription step for no reason.

Review takeaway: Show them where it goes. Stay within the documentation role you have been assigned.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.D.

Correct answer: C. Screen sharing can expose PHI. Whether it is an internal use or an external disclosure, use the approved route and limit the view to what the support task requires. C does both. B states an exemption that does not exist. D substitutes email without establishing that it is an approved route for this support request. A creates a new, unmanaged copy of PHI on a local machine — a recording of a chart is still a record of a chart.

Review takeaway: Remote support shows real PHI. Approved route, narrowest view.

Answer basis: HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule; HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.D.

Correct answer: B. Point of care means at the moment and place care is being documented, and the support is with the software. C fabricates clinical findings; neither documentation assistance nor software support authorises that. D is outside the role entirely. A is a real and useful activity — it is just retrospective review, which happens after the encounter rather than during it.

Review takeaway: Point-of-care support is help with the tool, in the moment.

Answer basis: Original application of the task described in the test plan. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.D.

Correct answer: A. A weight needs its unit to be interpreted correctly, and 72 kg is not the same measurement as 72 lb. A fixes the record and reports the interface fault so the next import does not repeat it. D accepts an ambiguous value into a field other systems will read. B introduces a conversion nobody asked for and a second chance to be wrong. C removes a value that was correctly measured, leaving a gap where data exists.

Review takeaway: Carry the unit with the measurement and report an interface that loses it.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.E.

Correct answer: D. A blood pressure is measured during the encounter and describes the patient's condition, which makes it clinical. B and C are administrative: employer and guarantor exist to support billing and contact. A looks clinical because it involves medicines, but a preferred pharmacy is a routing preference stored on the patient's profile, not a finding from the visit.

Review takeaway: Distinguish a clinical finding from administrative or routing information.

Answer basis: HL7 FHIR R4: Patient Definitions; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.E / 2.K13.

Correct answer: A. Nothing has been committed to the record yet, so the straightforward fix is to type the right number. A does that. B and C both save a value known to be wrong and then rely on a correction that may not happen — and in the meantime the chart shows a reading nobody measured. D stores two contradictory readings for one measurement, which leaves every later reader guessing.

Review takeaway: Fix it before you save. Amendments are for entries already committed.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.E.

Correct answer: D. A missing decimal is one possible explanation, but it has not been verified. Confirm with whoever took it. C substitutes an assumption for a verified observation. A treats system acceptance as validation, which it is not; the field simply lacked a range check. B destroys a recorded observation instead of correcting it.

Review takeaway: Obvious does not mean verified. Query the source.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: System Management; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.E.

Correct answer: B. Allergy information can affect prescribing and decision support, so follow the stated workflow to make the report visible and get the conflict reconciled by a clinician. B does both. A erases the earlier entry, losing the history that a clinician may need. C keeps a safety-relevant report out of the chart. D asks a non-clinical role to adjudicate a clinical conflict.

Review takeaway: Record the report, route the conflict. Do not adjudicate allergies.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: CPOE with Decision Support; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.F.

Correct answer: C. Historic clinical data is what the patient brings with them — past surgeries, immunisations, prior medications, allergies. A 2019 appendectomy is that. A, B and D all arise from today's visit. D is worth a second look: a chief complaint may describe a long-standing symptom, but it is recorded as the reason for this encounter, which makes it current-encounter data.

Review takeaway: Historic data predates the visit; encounter data is produced by it.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.F / 2.K15.

Correct answer: C. Whoever reads this later needs to know what was given, when, and how sure anyone is about it — so record the source. B drops the dates, which determine whether a series is complete or a booster is due. D replaces the documented administration dates with today's date, misrepresenting when the vaccinations occurred. A refuses useful information the patient supplied.

Review takeaway: Outside history gets recorded with its dates and its provenance.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.F.

Correct answer: D. Record what you were told and be honest about what is not known. D keeps the clinically useful fact — she reports gallbladder removal — without inventing precision. C manufactures a date that will look authoritative to every later reader. A throws away a relevant surgical history because one field is incomplete. B asserts a surgery today, which is plainly false.

Review takeaway: Unknown is a legitimate value. Invented precision is not.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.F.

Correct answer: B. A blank route is a gap in a prescriber's order that must be completed through the authorised prescribing workflow. B returns it. A and D both complete a medication order using a guess — D is the more seductive one because it has a source, but last month's route is not this order's route, and a change may be exactly why the order was written. C asks the patient to supply a clinical decision.

Review takeaway: An incomplete order goes back to the prescriber, not to a best guess.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: CPOE with Decision Support; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.G.

Correct answer: D. An interaction alert calls for a clinical judgement that must be made by an authorised clinician, not the person providing navigation support. D waits. C dismisses a safety alert with no clinical basis. A is C with paperwork attached — documenting an unauthorised override does not make it authorised. B submits a flagged order and notifies afterward, which reverses the sequence the alert exists to enforce.

Review takeaway: Clinical alerts need a clinical decision-maker. Helping navigate is not deciding.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: CPOE with Decision Support; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.G / 2.K12.

Correct answer: D. CPOE lets authorised clinicians enter care orders electronically for transmission to the relevant service. It can reduce transcription errors and make decision support available while ordering; it does not eliminate all errors. C is too broad and misses the authorisation element. A is charge capture. B is a patient request, which is not an order.

Review takeaway: CPOE is electronic entry of care orders, not just any data entry into an EHR.

Answer basis: AHRQ PSNet: Computerized Provider Order Entry. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.G / 2.K16.

Correct answer: B. A phone request does not expand the authority of the role described in the stem. B redirects her to whatever route the facility actually authorises for remote ordering. A accepts an order-entry task your role is not authorised to perform. C adds credential sharing on top, which destroys the audit trail's ability to show who did what. D adds a witness to an unauthorised act.

Review takeaway: Use the authorised ordering process. A request does not expand your role, and logins are not shared.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: CPOE with Decision Support; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.G / 2.K16.

Correct answer: A. The material must be approved, current, on the requested topic and in the patient's preferred language. Exactly one listed handout meets all those conditions. D ignores the language preference. B matches the language but hands the patient superseded instructions. C creates unapproved patient education, which is outside the role even when the translation is accurate.

Review takeaway: Match the requested topic and the patient's language, from approved materials.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Clinician Communication; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.H.

Correct answer: D. “What does this mean for me” is a request for clinical interpretation, and it goes to the clinician — with a note, so the question is not lost. B applies general material to a particular patient, which is the clinician's job. C dismisses a reasonable question and leaves it unanswered. A substitutes more paper for the answer he asked for.

Review takeaway: Providing material is in scope. Interpreting it for a patient is not.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Clinician Communication; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.H / 2.K18.

Correct answer: C. Three timestamps describe three different events. 09:20 is the documented administration — the one the question asks for. A is when the order was written. B is when the dose was due, which is a plan, not an event. D declines a straightforward retrieval that is squarely within the role; navigating the record to answer a specific data question is exactly what an EHR specialist does.

Review takeaway: Ordered, scheduled and administered are three different times.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.I / 2.K19.

Correct answer: C. Match both the document type and the encounter. Only one entry is discharge instructions from the March admission. D is the right date and the wrong document — a discharge summary is the clinical narrative for other clinicians, not the instructions given to the patient. A is the right document type from the wrong admission. B is a different encounter altogether, produced by a clinic visit two days later.

Review takeaway: Similar titles and nearby dates are exactly where retrieval goes wrong.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.I.

Correct answer: B. The range is 1 January to 30 June and the endpoint is included, so three results qualify. Carrying the units across is part of retrieving a result, not a nicety. C drops 30 June by treating the final day as outside the range. D adds 14 July, which falls outside it. A answers a different question than the one asked.

Review takeaway: Inclusive means the last day counts. Bring the units with the numbers.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Test Results Reporting and Follow-Up; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 2.I.

Correct answer: C. ICD-10-CM reports diagnoses and reasons for encounters, including screening when applicable. CPT reports procedures and services — what was done. HCPCS Level II covers supplies, equipment and certain services that CPT does not describe. NPI is not a code set at all; it identifies a provider. Knowing which reference to open is the skill here, not memorising individual codes.

Review takeaway: ICD-10-CM reports diagnoses and encounter reasons. CPT reports procedures and services.

Answer basis: CMS: ICD-10; CMS: Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.A / 3.K2.

Correct answer: D. HCPCS Level II exists for items and services outside CPT's scope — durable medical equipment, supplies, certain drugs. A wheelchair is a textbook example. C reports the diagnosis that justifies it, not the item. A is a clinical terminology used inside the record, not a claim code set. B identifies a provider, not the wheelchair supplied.

Review takeaway: Equipment and supplies usually sit in HCPCS Level II.

Answer basis: CMS: Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System; SNOMED International: What is SNOMED CT?. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.A / 3.K2.

Correct answer: B. A superbill is the encounter-level capture of what was diagnosed and done, and it feeds the claim. A is a patient statement, not the encounter form used to prepare the claim. C is an explanation of benefits or remittance advice, which comes from the payer. D is a practice-wide balance summary, not an encounter-level record.

Review takeaway: Superbill in, claim out. A patient statement serves a different task.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.B.

Correct answer: B. Enter what is documented. A and C both add codes for something the record does not support, and a spoken remark is not documentation — if the lesion should be captured, the provider updates the note and the superbill, and then it can be coded. D drops documented diagnoses, which removes the justification for the procedure.

Review takeaway: Code what the record documents. A comment in the hallway is not a note.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.C.

Correct answer: C. The source document has the right code and your entry has a typing error, so fix the entry. B knowingly submits an invalid claim. D is the genuinely dangerous option: swapping in a different valid code makes the edit pass while reporting a diagnosis the provider did not record. A strips the diagnosis that supports the service, rather than correcting the documented diagnosis.

Review takeaway: Fix the entry against the source. Never code to satisfy an edit.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.C.

Correct answer: D. The denial notice concerns whether the documented diagnosis supports the service under the applicable coverage policy. D names that issue. C concerns the payment amount under a fee schedule, not the stated coverage reason. A concerns transaction formatting, which the stem says passed. B concerns the responsible party, not the diagnosis-to-service relationship identified in the notice.

Review takeaway: Read the denial reason. Check the documentation against the service and the applicable coverage rule.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.D / 3.K7.

Correct answer: C. Documentation and charges have to agree, so the discrepancy goes back to the provider for clarification — the service may have happened and gone unrecorded, or it may have been added in error. C finds out. B bills a service the record does not support. D may be the right outcome but reaches it by guessing, and hides an unresolved documentation gap. A invents supporting narrative instead of getting the discrepancy resolved by the provider.

Review takeaway: When charges and documentation disagree, the provider reconciles them.

Answer basis: CMS Medicare Program Integrity Manual, Chapter 3; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.D.

Correct answer: A. An eligibility and benefits inquiry asks the plan what coverage the patient has. B asks permission for a specific service and is a separate transaction with its own response — needed sometimes, but not what was asked here. C requests payment for services already provided. D is the payer's explanation of a claim it has already processed.

Review takeaway: Eligibility asks what is covered. Authorisation asks permission for one service.

Answer basis: CMS: Health Plan Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response; CMS: Referral Certification and Authorization; CMS: Health Care Payment, Remittance Advice and EFT; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.E / 3.F.

Correct answer: C. A card is a printed artefact. It is not a live coverage check, and it does not update itself when the policy changes — people keep cards after changing jobs or plans. A, B and D each treat the card as an answer it cannot give: coverage may have ended, this particular service may be excluded, and authorisation requirements are set by the plan's policies rather than by the card.

Review takeaway: A card starts the verification. It does not finish it.

Answer basis: CMS: Health Plan Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.E / 3.K10.

Correct answer: A. The stated workflow requires enough detail to identify the approval and its scope. A records what was approved, for how long, under what number, and who said so — which is what you need if the claim is later denied. D leaves nothing to point to. B documents the wrong party. C relies on a record you cannot access when you need it.

Review takeaway: Record the approval and the details required to identify its service and effective period.

Answer basis: CMS: Referral Certification and Authorization; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.F.

Correct answer: C. The stated payer rule requires a new authorisation for the shoulder MRI. C follows that. B and D both treat an authorisation as a general permission attached to the patient, which contradicts this payer's stated rule. A assumes a later fix rather than following that rule.

Review takeaway: Check the authorisation against the ordered service and the payer's requirements.

Answer basis: CMS: Referral Certification and Authorization; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.F.

Correct answer: B. Coinsurance is a percentage of the allowed amount, so 20% of $120 is $24. A is 10%. C is the plan's 80% share, which is what the payer pays, not the patient. D is the full allowed amount, rather than the 20% share under the stated conditions. Every condition needed for this calculation is stated in the stem — real estimates depend on all of them holding.

Review takeaway: Coinsurance applies to the allowed amount, not the billed charge.

Answer basis: HealthCare.gov: Coinsurance; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.G.

Correct answer: B. An estimate is built from what is known today, and adjudication can change it — a deductible may be consumed by another claim, or a service may be coded differently than planned. B says so. A, C and D all promise certainty that neither the practice nor the plan has committed to, and each sets up a conversation that will go badly when the actual bill differs.

Review takeaway: Say estimate, and say what could change it.

Answer basis: CMS: Health Plan Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.G.

Correct answer: D. They are related but do different jobs: the remittance advice is the explanation, carrying the adjustment reasons; the funds transfer is the payment itself. That is why posting a payment without its remittance leaves you unable to say why an amount differs from the charge. C is wrong because these are two distinct transactions that can arrive separately — which is exactly the situation that leaves a practice holding money it cannot yet explain. A reverses the two. B misidentifies the audience: both are provider-facing, not patient-facing.

Review takeaway: The remittance explains. The transfer pays.

Answer basis: CMS: Health Care Payment, Remittance Advice and EFT. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.H / 3.K14.

Correct answer: A. Work down the ledger. The $240 charge less the $80 contractual adjustment leaves a $160 balance before payments. The insurer's $120 brings it to $40. The patient's $20 brings it to $20. B stops one line early. C subtracts both payments but ignores the contractual adjustment: $240 − $120 − $20 = $100. D is the insurer payment itself, not the balance.

Review takeaway: Subtract the contractual adjustment and both payments from the charge.

Answer basis: CMS: Health Care Payment, Remittance Advice and EFT; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 3.I.

Correct answer: D. Having technical access is not the same as having a reason. Access is permitted for your job, and curiosity is not a job function. B confuses capability with authorisation. C treats discretion as a substitute for permission — the impermissible access happened at the moment the chart opened. A adds a note to an act that was not authorised to begin with, and the audit log will show it either way.

Review takeaway: Technical access is not permission to browse. You need an authorised purpose.

Answer basis: HHS: Minimum Necessary Requirement; 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.A.

Correct answer: D. The minimum necessary standard has specified exceptions, and disclosures to or requests by a provider for treatment is one of them — which is why treating clinicians are not forced to guess at a trimmed-down chart. C would apply the standard where it does not reach. A invents an authorisation requirement; treatment disclosures generally do not need one. B makes the exception depend on patient objection, which is not how it is written.

Review takeaway: The minimum necessary exception here is for disclosures to, or requests by, a provider for treatment.

Answer basis: HHS: Minimum Necessary Requirement. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.B / 4.H.

Correct answer: C. A business associate is an outside party that creates, receives, maintains or transmits PHI to perform functions for a covered entity — an EHR host fits squarely. B does not describe the hosting role in this question; a vendor could separately be a covered entity in another role. D ignores the HIPAA obligations attached to the business-associate function. A describes an entity that translates health data between formats, which is a different function.

Review takeaway: An outside EHR host maintaining PHI for a covered practice acts as a business associate.

Answer basis: HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule; HHS: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.B.

Correct answer: A. A first limits the visible exposure, then follows the facility's incident and education process. D leaves the chart exposed. B changes another person's credentials without authority; that is different from the screen lock expressly permitted in the stem. C sends a general reminder without securing the workstation or following the incident procedure.

Review takeaway: Secure the exposed screen and follow the incident process; then reinforce the safeguard.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.C.

Correct answer: C. Shared credentials break the link between a login and a person, which is what makes audit logs meaningful — so this is a security incident and it goes through the incident channel. D addresses the moment and leaves the account compromised and unexamined. A waits for harm before acting, which defeats the purpose of incident reporting. B keeps the information where no one who can act on it will see it.

Review takeaway: Report suspected credential sharing through the internal security process.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.D.

Correct answer: C. Role-based access means privileges follow the job, so when the job changes the privileges change with it. C does that. B and D both leave her with access she no longer needs, which is how permissions quietly accumulate until a long-serving employee can reach almost everything. A adds credential sharing on top of a delay that should be handled by provisioning.

Review takeaway: Access follows the current role — both directions.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.E / 4.K13.

Correct answer: D. A live account for a departed employee is an open door, and it needs both closing and looking at — disable it, and check whether it was used after the departure. C recycles an identity so that two people's activity sits under one account name. A assumes no one used it without checking, which is exactly what the review exists to establish. B keeps the account alive for no stated purpose.

Review takeaway: Disable the account, then review what it did.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.F.

Correct answer: D. Safe Harbor requires removal of the specified identifiers and no actual knowledge that the remaining information could identify the person. The stem explicitly supplies that actual knowledge, so D is correct. B treats removal of three field types as sufficient. C ignores identifying information in free text. A describes Expert Determination, the alternative method, rather than a requirement of Safe Harbor.

Review takeaway: Safe Harbor is remove the list and have no actual knowledge. Both.

Answer basis: HHS OCR: De-identification Guidance; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.G.

Correct answer: B. They are two different routes to the same status. Safe Harbor is a rule-based checklist plus the no-actual-knowledge condition; Expert Determination is a documented risk judgement by someone qualified to make it, which can preserve more useful detail. C collapses them. D invents a distinction by medium that does not exist. A reverses the two.

Review takeaway: Two routes: Safe Harbor's identifier and knowledge conditions, or a documented expert risk determination.

Answer basis: HHS OCR: De-identification Guidance. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.G / 4.K2.

Correct answer: D. A signature on a page is where the check starts. D asks the questions that matter: is the authorisation valid, does its scope actually cover what is being requested, and is the request verified as genuine. C checks the destination but not the permission. A checks a credential that does not establish the patient's authorisation. B treats the document as self-proving, which is how forged and overbroad requests get filled.

Review takeaway: Check the authorisation's validity and its scope, then verify the requester.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Authorisations and Verification; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.H.

Correct answer: B. The federal rule requires action no later than 30 days after receipt. If the covered entity cannot act within that period, it may take one extension of no more than 30 days, but must give the individual written reasons and a completion date within the initial 30 days. A and C state timeframes the rule does not use. D substitutes payment of an outstanding balance for the right-of-access requirements; the rule instead permits only the applicable reasonable, cost-based copying fee.

Review takeaway: Federal rule: 30 days after receipt; one extension of up to 30 days requires timely written reasons and a completion date.

Answer basis: 45 CFR 164.524: Individual Right of Access; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.H.

Correct answer: A. An audit log records system activity — which user did what, to which record, when. That is the only one of these that answers the question. B stores copies of data, not a history of who looked at it. C shows who was expected to be seen, not who opened a chart. D shows financial transactions, not access events.

Review takeaway: Audit logs answer who did what, to which record, when.

Answer basis: 45 CFR Part 164: Security Rule. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.I / 4.K12.

Correct answer: B. B applies the rule supplied in the stem: the abbreviation is prohibited in free-text medication documentation. A incorrectly treats an electronic entry as exempt. C invents a nursing-only limitation. D adds a second-policy condition that is not present. ISMP's error-prone-abbreviation guidance also addresses electronic communication; typing an abbreviation does not remove its potential for misinterpretation.

Review takeaway: Apply the approved abbreviation policy to the field you are using; free text is still documentation.

Answer basis: ISMP: List of Error-Prone Abbreviations; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.J / 4.K14.

Correct answer: C. Re-entry after downtime is where wrong-patient entries and doubled orders happen, so verify identity and check what already exists before adding anything. B optimises for speed in exactly the situation where speed causes the errors. D does not fulfil this facility's stated requirement to enter and reconcile the downtime documentation. A destroys the source documents before anyone has confirmed the re-entry was complete and correct.

Review takeaway: Verify identity and check for existing entries before re-entering downtime records.

Answer basis: ASTP/ONC SAFER Guide: Contingency Planning; Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.K / 4.K15.

Correct answer: B. B describes the program's use of defined measures tied to certified EHR technology. A confuses certification requirements with a requirement to choose one vendor. C and D are not the reporting requirements described by the program. The hospital Promoting Interoperability Program is distinct from the clinician Quality Payment Program; use the requirements for the program and reporting period that actually apply.

Review takeaway: Use the applicable program's measures and reporting-period requirements.

Answer basis: CMS: Promoting Interoperability Programs. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 4.L / 4.K18.

Correct answer: C. Aging buckets receivables by elapsed time — how long money has been owed — so a practice can see what is drifting toward uncollectable. D reads “aging” as being about patients, which it is not. A describes a productivity report. B is a payroll report and sits outside the revenue cycle entirely.

Review takeaway: Aging is about how long the money has been outstanding.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.A / 5.K3.

Correct answer: C. Count days to 30 September for each claim. 20 August is 41 days, 5 September is 25, 15 July is 77, and 25 September is 5. Only the 41-day claim lands in 31–60, so the bucket total is its $300. A and B are the two claims in 0–30 ($150 and $200). D is the 77-day claim, which belongs in 61–90.

Review takeaway: For this report, count elapsed days from submission to the stated report date.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.A.

Correct answer: C. Two different counting units are in play, and the useful answer names both. C does. A reports encounters as though they were patients, which double-counts anyone who came twice. B incorrectly collapses the repeat visits, losing two completed encounters. D mistakes the two repeated patient IDs for the total patient count.

Review takeaway: Say which unit you counted. Encounters and patients are different numbers.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.B.

Correct answer: A. Population-level clinical reports help a practice identify patients whose monitoring or follow-up needs should be reviewed rather than waiting for each patient to come back. B is a payroll function. C is set by insurers using their own rating processes, not by a practice's report. D misunderstands what a report is — an extract built from records, never a substitute for them.

Review takeaway: Clinical reports find the people who need follow-up.

Answer basis: Original application of the task described in the test plan. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.B / 5.K4.

Correct answer: D. Read the request as a specification: by payer means you need the payer field, unpaid balances means the balance amount, last quarter means a date field to filter on. D supplies all three. A and B pull fields the question did not ask about and omit the ones it did. C has the grouping field but no amount and no date, so it cannot answer the question.

Review takeaway: Turn the request into fields: group by, measure, filter.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.C.

Correct answer: A. The supplied filter is exclusive at the end: it returns everything before 31 March rather than through it. D is simply false. B is contradicted by the output, which starts on the right day. C is contradicted by the verified 31 March visits in the source.

Review takeaway: Check the source and the filter: an inclusive request must include the final day.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.D / 5.K5.

Correct answer: C. Divide the numerator by the stated denominator: 18 of 24 is 0.75, or 75%. D and A report raw counts as if they were percentages. B inverts the fraction, dividing 24 by 18. The denominator matters as much as the arithmetic — quietly dropping the six incomplete records would give 100% and describe nothing real.

Review takeaway: Keep the denominator the measure defines. Do not drop the cases that fail.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.E / 5.K6.

Correct answer: A. The measure explicitly includes those eligible records. A preserves that denominator and makes the missing data visible. D changes the specified population without disclosure; disclosing the change would still not make it the same measure. B fabricates data. C withholds a report even though the stated specification supplies a valid way to produce it.

Review takeaway: Follow the measure's actual exclusion rules. Do not improve a rate by redefining its denominator.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.E.

Correct answer: C. External reporting only works if everyone counts the same way, so the program's measure specifications and definitions govern. D describes an intention, not a data requirement, and selectively shaping submitted data is a compliance problem. A substitutes internal definitions for the external program's specified definitions. B ignores the format requirements that make automated submission possible.

Review takeaway: External reporting uses the program's definitions, not yours.

Answer basis: CMS: Promoting Interoperability Programs. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.F.

Correct answer: D. Verifying accuracy before distribution is the task, and a blank field is a signal. It might mean the query joined the wrong table, that those visits are recorded in a module the report does not read, or that those patients genuinely have no recorded visit — and each of those leads somewhere different. C is the most damaging option: the run date is not a fact about any patient. A changes the denominator invisibly. B is not wrong, just premature.

Review takeaway: Find out what a blank means before you hand the report over.

Answer basis: Fictional facts and any local rules stated in the question. Topic mapping: NHA CEHRS Test Plan — 5.G / 5.K7.