Free NCCT NCMA Practice Test: 50 Questions

Answer: B — high cholesterol.

Statins lower LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol partly by slowing the liver’s cholesterol production. A, C, and D name conditions that are not the primary cholesterol-lowering purpose of this drug class. Drug-class recognition is a named task on the current test plan, and the plan gives beta blockers, statins, and diuretics as its own examples — so those three are worth knowing cold.

Sources: MedlinePlus: Statins; NCCT NCMA Detailed Test Plan.

Answer: B — flag the duplicate exposure to the provider.

Acetaminophen appears in hundreds of products under many brand names, and taking overlapping products can cause an accidental overdose. Recognizing that a brand name and a generic name can be the same active ingredient is exactly what the test plan means by identifying medications by generic and brand name. A is the error the whole item is built around. C has the medical assistant making an independent treatment decision. D documents a risk without acting on it.

Sources: FDA: Don’t Overuse Acetaminophen; NCCT NCMA Detailed Test Plan.

Answer: C — subcutaneous.

Subcutaneous injection places medication in the fatty layer under the dermis. Intradermal goes into the dermis itself. Intramuscular goes into muscle. Transdermal delivery moves medicine across the skin, for example from a patch; it is not an injection into the fatty layer. The tissue named in the stem is what makes C correct.

Sources: MedlinePlus: Subcutaneous (SQ) injections; FDA: Route of Administration.

Answer: C — 15 mL.

750 mg ÷ 250 mg = 3 times the labeled amount. Each of those amounts is 5 mL, so 3 × 5 mL = 15 mL. A is the answer you get if you stop after dividing and forget to multiply by the volume. Check the other options against the label: 10 mL supplies 500 mg, while 30 mL supplies 1,500 mg. Neither matches the 750 mg in the question.

This is an original calculation from the quantities supplied in the question.

Source: NIST SP 330, Section 3.

Answer: C — 2 tablets.

Convert before you divide. 0.5 g = 500 mg, because there are 1,000 mg in a gram. Then 500 mg ÷ 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Half a tablet in A supplies 125 mg; one tablet in B supplies 250 mg; five tablets in D supply 1,250 mg. None equals 500 mg. Any time an order and a label use different units, the conversion is step one, not an afterthought.

Source: NIST SP 330, Section 3.

Answer: D — hold it and notify the provider.

Checking the drug against the patient is a verification step that happens before administration. The documented allergy needs clarification with the provider before this medication is given; the medical assistant does not independently decide that the drug is safe or adjust its dose. A and B both put the drug in the patient. C is an independent dosing decision, which is outside the medical assistant's role.

One note on studying this topic: NCCT's test plan says "understand the 'Rights' of medication use" without attaching a number to it. Learn the underlying checks rather than memorizing one numbered list as though it were the official wording.

Sources: NICE CG183: Drug allergy—recommendation 1.2.6; NCCT NCMA Detailed Test Plan.

Answer: B — diabetes.

Increased thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight loss are recognized symptoms of diabetes. Taken together, they make B the best match among these choices, rather than the thyroid, anemia, or allergy conditions in A, C, and D. Symptoms still require clinical evaluation; this pattern alone does not establish a diagnosis. Recognizing common signs and symptoms so they can be reported is a task on the current plan — recognizing is the job here, not diagnosing.

Sources: NIDDK: Symptoms & Causes of Diabetes; NCCT NCMA Detailed Test Plan.

Answer: B — wash with soap and water.

Alcohol-based hand rub is the routine choice in most clinical situations, but it does not remove visible soil or organic material. When hands are visibly soiled, soap and running water is the correct action. A and D substitute a product that does not do the job. C puts gloves over contaminated hands, which does not clean them.

Source: CDC: Core Infection Prevention and Control Practices.

Answer: C — airborne precautions.

Suspected infectious pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions. In the setting described, place the patient in the available airborne infection isolation room; personnel entering use a fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 or higher-level respirator. A addresses contact transmission but is insufficient for this airborne hazard. A surgical mask in B does not replace the staff member’s respirator. D leaves out the additional precautions. Standard precautions always apply — but here they are the floor, not the answer.

Source: CDC: Isolation Precautions Recommendations.

Answer: A, B, and C.

Anticipated splashing calls for protection of the hands, the body, and the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, and mouth — so gloves, a fluid-resistant gown, and a mask with eye protection. D is respiratory protection for airborne pathogens, which is a different hazard; a splash risk does not by itself call for an N95. E is not indicated for a routine splash risk. F confuses protecting the assistant with maintaining a sterile field for the patient.

Scoring note: this practice item earns one point only when all required options, and no others, are selected. This is our practice rule, not a claim about NCCT’s scoring.

Source: CDC: Core Infection Prevention and Control Practices.

Answer: B — report it and get evaluated without delay.

Under the federal bloodborne pathogens standard, the employer must make a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up immediately available after an exposure incident. Timeliness matters because some post-exposure options are time-sensitive. A and C delay an evaluation that has to happen promptly. D skips the required employee exposure report and evaluation; entering a note in the patient’s chart is not a substitute.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030: Bloodborne pathogens.

Answer: B — close it securely and replace it.

Containers for contaminated sharps have to be closable, puncture-resistant, and leakproof on the sides and bottom, and they must be replaced routinely and not allowed to overfill. A and D involve handling contained sharps unnecessarily; C permits overfilling. All three create avoidable exposure risks. The fill line exists so the container is retired before anything protrudes from the opening.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030: Bloodborne pathogens.

Answer: A — that the package was exposed to the process.

Chemical indicator tape shows exposure to the process conditions the indicator is designed to detect. It does not establish that every item inside a package is sterile, which is why B is wrong. Sterilization monitoring uses mechanical readings, chemical indicators, and biological indicators together; a biological indicator assesses the process’s ability to kill resistant spores, not a guarantee for every individual instrument. C is a separate cleaning step that happens before packaging. D wrongly treats one indicator as a substitute for continued monitoring.

Source: CDC: Sterilizing Practices.

Answer: B — supported on a table with the upper arm at heart level.

Both parts matter. The arm has to be at the right height and resting on a support. A and D do not provide the supported, heart-level arm position used for a properly prepared reading. C reaches the correct height but leaves the arm unsupported, so the patient is holding it up with muscle effort — that changes the reading too.

Source: CDC: Measuring Your Blood Pressure.

Answer: C — have the patient state two identifiers and match them to the order.

Have the patient state their own name and date of birth, then match both to the order. A yes-or-no confirmation of a name supplies less information than asking the patient to state the identifiers. B uses a room number, which is not a patient identifier. D relies on a chart’s location rather than matching the intended care to the person in front of you.

Sources: Joint Commission: Two Patient Identifiers; WHO Guidelines on Drawing Blood, Chapter 2.

Answer: B — a falsely high reading.

Using a cuff that is too small for the arm can overestimate blood pressure. Cuff size should match the patient’s arm circumference and the device’s specified range. A is backwards. C invents a result. D dismisses a real source of error — arm support and cuff size are separate requirements, and getting one right does not cancel the other.

Source: Ishigami et al.: Cuff(SZ) Randomized Crossover Trial.

Answer: C — promptly report the symptoms; do not delay care to troubleshoot.

A pulse oximeter reading is one data point with real limitations, and it should be evaluated together with what the patient is actually experiencing. Nail polish, cold hands, and poor circulation can affect the number. A reassuring display does not cancel a worsening symptom. A and B let the device overrule the patient. D also fails to respond to the symptom. The reading might be accurate or inaccurate; neither possibility justifies ignoring worsening breathing.

Source: FDA: Pulse Oximeter Basics.

Answer: D — Fowler's.

Fowler's raises the head of the table so the patient is sitting up. That matches the clinician’s instruction in this scenario. Supine lays the patient flat on the back, prone puts them face down, and Trendelenburg tilts the head below the feet. None describes the requested upright position. This question identifies a position; it does not establish one position as the treatment for every cause of breathing difficulty.

Source: STERIS: Fowler’s Position Guide.

Answer: C — 40 feet.

In this 20/40 notation, the top number is the testing distance of 20 feet. The bottom number is the distance at which someone with normal acuity could read the same line. So 20/40 means the patient has to be twice as close to read what a normal eye reads at 40 feet — below-normal distance acuity. B would be 20/20. A and D misread which number is which.

Source: MedlinePlus: Visual acuity test.

Answer: B — 24.5 kg/m².

BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared. Square the height first: 1.75 × 1.75 = 3.0625. Then 75 ÷ 3.0625 = 24.49, which rounds to 24.5. D is what you get if you divide by the height instead of the height squared. A and C do not result from the given weight and squared height. This calculation alone does not diagnose the patient’s health; BMI is interpreted with other clinical information.

Source: CDC: About Body Mass Index.

Answer: B — recumbent length.

For routine growth assessment at 14 months, measure recumbent length and use the appropriate WHO birth-to-2-years growth chart. Standing height in A is used for older children and belongs on a different chart, so the two are not interchangeable. C substitutes a guess for a measurement. D skips the measurement instead of using the appropriate infant technique.

Source: CDC: Using WHO Growth Standard Charts.

Answer: C — notify the provider.

New redness, pain, and cloudy drainage are possible signs of a surgical wound infection and need provider evaluation. A changes the dressing pressure without addressing the possible infection. B leaves the finding unreported; D incorrectly reassures the patient. Recognizing an abnormal finding and reporting it is squarely within the medical assistant's role — diagnosing and treating it is not.

Source: CDC: Surgical Site Infection Basics.

Answer: B — explain it back in their own words.

Teach-back checks whether the explanation worked, by having the patient put it in their own words. If something is missing or wrong, the assistant clarifies and checks again. A is the yes-or-no question teach-back exists to replace — patients say yes for all sorts of reasons. C documents that teaching happened without testing whether it landed. D tests reading, not understanding.

Source: AHRQ: Use the Teach-Back Method, Tool 5.

Answer: C — do not report the late reading as valid; repeat per the supplied instructions.

Waived does not mean error-proof. Here, the supplied manufacturer instructions explicitly rule out interpreting the 12-minute reading. A result read at 12 minutes when the instructions say 5 is not a valid result, so A, B, and D all treat an invalid reading as a reportable result. Following the manufacturer's instructions exactly is the core requirement of waived testing.

Source: CDC: Waived Tests.

Answer: A — fast at least 8 hours; water is fine.

A fasting plasma glucose requires no food or caloric beverages for at least 8 hours, and plain water is permitted. B adds a water restriction that risks dehydration for no benefit. C confuses two different tests — an A1C reflects average glucose over months and does not require fasting, which is exactly the distinction being tested. D tells every patient to stop prescribed medicines without the prescriber’s instruction. The assistant may relay authorized preparation instructions, but should not independently add a blanket medicine-stopping rule.

Source: NIDDK: Diabetes Tests & Diagnosis.

Answer: B → A → D → C: cleanse the genital area → begin urinating into the toilet → collect the middle portion in the sterile container → finish urinating into the toilet.

The whole point of a clean-catch midstream specimen is to reduce contamination from skin and the distal urethra. Cleansing comes first. Then the initial stream flushes the urethra into the toilet, the middle portion goes into the sterile cup, and the remainder finishes in the toilet. Collecting the first portion instead of the midstream defeats the purpose, and skipping the requested cleansing step can increase contamination risk.

Scoring note: this practice item earns one point only when every step is in the correct position. This is our practice rule, not a claim about NCCT’s scoring.

Source: MedlinePlus: Clean catch urine sample.

Answer: B → D → C → A: citrate → clot-activator serum → heparin → EDTA.

Order of draw reduces the risk that an additive carries over into a later tube. For the four tubes specified here, CLSI lists citrate before clot-activator serum, followed by heparin and then EDTA. Moving heparin or EDTA ahead of these tubes breaks that sequence. This is a venous draw with a straight needle and no blood cultures, not a capillary collection.

Learn the tubes by their additive, not by their cap color alone — the additive is what drives this sequence.

Scoring note: this practice item earns one point only when every step is in the correct position. This is our practice rule, not a claim about NCCT’s scoring.

Source: CLSI: Order of Blood Draw Tubes and Additives.

Answer: A — no more than 1 minute without release.

Labcorp’s collection instructions say not to leave a tourniquet on the arm for more than one minute without releasing it. If locating a suitable vein is taking longer, release it and follow the collection procedure before reapplying. B and C allow substantially longer continuous application; D removes the limit altogether. The purpose is to avoid unnecessary prolonged constriction and preserve specimen quality.

Source: Labcorp: Blood Specimens—Chemistry and Hematology.

Answer: B — the left arm.

Protect the arm containing the dialysis access from routine venipuncture. The stem identifies a suitable unrestricted left arm, so B is the appropriate choice. A and C disregard the access-arm precaution. D over-restricts: the opposite arm is available, so there is no reason in this scenario to limit collection to a capillary sample. A dialysis access is not a routine blood-draw site.

Source: MedlinePlus: Hemodialysis access—self care.

Answer: C — let it air-dry completely.

Allow the prepared site to air-dry completely before inserting the needle. WHO’s collection guidance specifies time for alcohol application and drying; do not substitute a quick wipe or an arbitrary few-second wait. A omits drying. B can reintroduce contamination by blowing on the site. D touches the prepared site and removes the antiseptic rather than allowing it to dry.

Source: WHO Guidelines on Drawing Blood, Chapter 2.

Answer: B — apply pressure with the arm extended.

Direct pressure on an extended arm is what closes the puncture in the vein wall. Bending the elbow, as in A, can contribute to a hematoma and is not the technique recommended here. C substitutes massage for the required direct pressure. D covers a site that has not yet stopped bleeding, which is how patients leave the office and bleed through the bandage.

Source: WHO Guidelines on Drawing Blood, Chapter 2.

Answer: B — EDTA.

A routine complete blood count uses anticoagulated whole blood; Labcorp’s CBC instructions specify an EDTA tube. Sodium citrate is for coagulation studies. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis and is used to preserve glucose. A clot activator does the opposite of what is needed here — it lets the specimen clot so serum can be separated, which does not provide the unclotted whole-blood specimen needed for a valid CBC.

Sources: Labcorp: CBC Without Differential, test 028142; Labcorp: Blood Specimens—Chemistry and Hematology.

Answer: A — fourth intercostal space, right sternal border.

V1 and V2 sit in the same intercostal space on opposite sides of the sternum: V1 on the right border, V2 on the left. B describes V2. C describes V4, which is the reference point for placing V5 and V6. D describes V6, placed horizontally level with V4 rather than by following the fifth intercostal space around the chest. Placement errors here change the tracing the provider reads, so counting down to the correct intercostal space is worth doing every time rather than eyeballing it.

Source: Welch Allyn: ELI 230 User Manual.

Answer: B — 10 electrodes.

Ten electrodes go on the patient: six on the chest and four on the limbs. The machine then derives twelve leads — twelve different electrical views of the heart — from those ten contact points. The number 12 in C refers to the leads, not the electrodes, and that mismatch is exactly what this item is checking. A counts only the chest electrodes; D is not a standard resting configuration.

Source: Welch Allyn: ELI 230 User Manual.

Answer: C — alternating current interference.

Uniform fine spikes at a fixed frequency across the whole strip point to electrical interference from nearby equipment or wiring. Check lead/cable connections and possible electrical interference according to the device’s troubleshooting instructions; moving the patient or changing a setting is not one universal fix. Somatic tremor from muscle movement typically produces more irregular activity; it can resemble or coexist with electrical interference. A wandering baseline drifts slowly up and down, often with breathing. A calibration mark is an amplitude reference, not ongoing regular interference across the tracing.

Source: Welch Allyn: CP 150 Directions for Use.

Answer: B — ensure the changed gain setting appears on the tracing.

At the initial gain in this question, a 1-millivolt signal produces a 10-millimeter mark; at 5 mm/mV it produces a 5-millimeter mark. Halving the gain halves the height of everything on the strip, so a provider who reads it without knowing the setting changed will underestimate the amplitudes. Documenting the change on the tracing is what keeps it interpretable, which is why A is wrong. C changes the horizontal scale, which affects width and rate measurement, not height. D discards the chest leads for no reason.

Source: Welch Allyn: ELI 230 User Manual.

Answer: C — ICD-10-CM.

ICD-10-CM is the diagnosis code set used in the United States for reporting conditions and reasons for a visit. CPT describes the procedures and services performed. HCPCS Level II covers supplies, equipment, and certain services not represented in CPT. NDC identifies specific drug products. Diagnosis and procedure are two different questions on the same claim.

Sources: CDC/NCHS: ICD-10-CM; CMS: Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System; FDA: National Drug Code Directory.

Answer: B — HCPCS Level II.

HCPCS Level II exists for products, supplies, durable medical equipment, and services that CPT does not describe — which is exactly what a wheelchair is. ICD-10-CM would report the condition creating the need for it, not the item. CPT covers procedures and professional services. D is wrong for the equipment claim in this scenario: HCPCS Level II provides codes for durable medical equipment.

Source: CMS: Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System.

Answer: B — authorization must be obtained before the service.

A provider’s order and a plan’s authorization are two separate things. Under the stated plan requirement, staff must obtain authorization before the non-emergency study. A confuses an order with authorization. C reverses the required sequence. D conflicts with the office policy supplied in the question. Prior authorization is a medical-necessity decision, not a promise that the plan will pay every cost or that all coverage conditions have been met.

Source: HealthCare.gov: Preauthorization.

Answer: B — 9:20.

Map the open time before you look at the options. The only gap is 9:20 to 9:50, which is exactly 30 minutes — so the appointment fits, but only if it starts at the beginning of that gap. A overlaps the first booking. C starts at 9:30 and would run to 10:00, colliding with the 9:50 appointment. D gives up on a slot that fits exactly. This is an original scheduling exercise; all constraints are given in the question.

Answer: C — document it and route it per policy.

The call contains a clinical question about changing a prescribed dose. Under the stated policy the medical assistant's job is to capture it accurately and get it to someone qualified to answer, promptly. A and B both have the medical assistant independently changing the medication plan rather than routing the question under the stated policy. D delays a question about uncontrolled blood pressure without routing it to anyone.

Source: AHRQ: Be Easy To Reach, Tool 7.

Answer: C — document each attempt and tell the provider.

An unanswered call does not establish that the patient received the result. Keep the follow-up tracked and escalate the unsuccessful contact under the stated protocol. Recording each attempt with dates and times shows what was actually done, and telling the provider lets them decide the next step. A leaves no record that anyone tried. B documents something that did not happen, which is falsification. D understates the effort and hides the pattern.

Source: AHRQ: Follow Up with Patients, Tool 6.

Answer: C — document it and escalate it to the provider.

A discrepancy between the record and what a patient is actually taking is a clinically significant finding, and surfacing it is one of the main reasons medication reviews exist. The medical assistant records what the patient reports and hands the discrepancy to someone who can act on it. A silently rewrites the record without clinical review. B is the medical assistant directing a dose. D discards the information.

Source: AHRQ: Conduct Brown Bag Medicine Reviews, Tool 8.

Answer: C — no.

Access to protected health information has to be tied to the job the person is actually doing. Having technical access to a chart does not by itself supply an authorized reason to open it. Concern for a colleague is not a treatment, payment, or operations purpose. B confuses confidentiality afterward with authorization beforehand — the violation happens at the moment of access. D describes a system permission, not a legal justification, which is why audit logs exist.

Source: HHS: Minimum Necessary Requirement.

Answer: B — provide the copy.

A patient's right to access their own record is not conditioned on their account balance. A practice may charge a permitted, reasonable fee for the copy itself, but it cannot hold the record hostage to an unrelated treatment debt. A, C, and D all use access to the record as leverage for payment. Note the distinction worth keeping straight: a fee for copying may be allowed; withholding for an unpaid treatment bill is not.

Source: HHS: Your Medical Records.

Answer: B — append or link the amendment.

An accepted amendment is added to the record and identified as an amendment, or linked to the entry it corrects. The original stays legible. That is how a record remains an accurate history of what was documented and when. A and C replace or obscure the original instead of appending or linking the accepted amendment. D scatters one patient's history across two charts.

Source: 45 CFR 164.526.

Answer: A and B.

Technical safeguards include technology and related procedures used to protect electronic health information. Unique user identification assigns each user a name or number so activity can be traced to a person, and audit controls record and examine activity in systems containing electronic protected health information. C and E are administrative safeguards — they govern people and policies. D is a physical safeguard, governing access to buildings and equipment.

Scoring note: this practice item earns one point only when all required options, and no others, are selected. This is our practice rule, not a claim about NCCT’s scoring.

Sources: 45 CFR 164.312; 45 CFR 164.308; 45 CFR 164.310.

Answer: C — verify identity and authority first.

When the requester is not known to the practice, the identity of that person and their authority to receive the information both have to be verified before anything is disclosed. A accepts a claim as proof. B treats a fact a caller could easily obtain as authentication. D sends records to an unverified address, compounding the problem. Verification is the step, and it comes before the disclosure, not after.

Source: HHS: Verification of Identity and Authority, FAQ 569.

Answer: C — stop and notify.

Consent is required before the procedure, and a competent adult who understands the procedure can decline it. The medical assistant stops, documents the refusal, and tells the provider so the clinical plan can be adjusted. A proceeds without consent. B applies pressure using a consequence the medical assistant is not in a position to impose. D recruits family to override a decision the patient is entitled to make.

Source: WHO Guidelines on Drawing Blood, Chapter 2.

Answer: B — a written exposure control plan, reviewed at least annually.

The standard requires a written exposure control plan designed to eliminate or minimize employee exposure, and it has to be reviewed and updated at least annually and whenever necessary to reflect new or modified tasks, procedures, or employee positions affecting occupational exposure. A is not written and not maintained. C waits for an injury before preventing one, which inverts the purpose. D defeats the accessibility requirement — a plan employees cannot reach is not usable when it matters.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030: Bloodborne pathogens.