Castleport Test Prep

Free ExCPT Practice Test: 50 Questions with Answers

Work through 50 original questions with answers and explanations, no signup and no email. This unofficial set follows NHA's five-domain test plan for exams scheduled on or after 9 July 2025.

Pick an answer, then reveal the explanation. Every explanation says why the keyed answer fits and why each of the other three does not.

Question 1 of 50

Dispensing Process - Calculations · Item EXCPT-F001

An oral liquid contains 250 mg in 5 mL. The prescribed dose is 375 mg. How many milliliters are needed for one dose?

  • A. 2.5 mL
  • B. 5 mL
  • C. 7.5 mL
  • D. 15 mL
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. 7.5 mL

Multiply the prescribed amount by the concentration written as a fraction: 375 mg x (5 mL / 250 mg) = 7.5 mL. The milligram units cancel and milliliters are left, which is a quick way to check that you set the problem up the right way round.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 2.5 mL holds 125 mg at this concentration, which is a third of the dose.
  • B. 5 mL holds 250 mg. This is the number printed on the bottle, not the amount ordered.
  • D. 15 mL holds 750 mg, double the prescribed dose. This is what you get by multiplying when you should divide.

The numbers here are made up for practice. Nothing on this page is a dosing recommendation.

Source: Derived calculation; all values supplied in the question

Question 2 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F002

A patient picking up a refill says she has felt dizzy since starting the medication and asks whether she should stop taking it. She has no trouble breathing, no chest pain, and no other emergency symptoms. What should the technician do?

  • A. Bring the question to the pharmacist and arrange for the pharmacist to speak with her
  • B. Tell her dizziness is a common side effect and is nothing to worry about
  • C. Tell her to stop the medication until the dizziness goes away
  • D. Record the dizziness in her profile and continue the transaction without saying anything
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. Bring the question to the pharmacist and arrange for the pharmacist to speak with her

Deciding whether a patient should keep taking a medication is a clinical judgment. The pharmacist makes that call; the technician's job is to recognise a clinical question and hand it over. NHA's test plan puts this first in Domain 1: differentiate between tasks a technician may perform and tasks that must be performed by a pharmacist.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Reassurance without review is still advice. The dizziness might be unrelated, or it might matter.
  • C. Telling a patient to stop a medication is a treatment decision the technician is not authorised to make.
  • D. Recording it is useful, but silently continuing leaves an unanswered clinical question with the patient.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, tasks 1A and 1I; knowledge statement K.2

Question 3 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F003

During the final check, the pharmacist notices that a prescription was filled with the 50 mg tablet instead of the ordered 25 mg tablet. The error is corrected and the correct strength is dispensed. The patient never receives the wrong tablets. Under the pharmacy's quality assurance policy, which describes what happened?

  • A. An adverse drug reaction
  • B. Nothing that needs recording, because no patient was harmed
  • C. A medication error that was intercepted before it reached the patient
  • D. A drug interaction requiring a report to the manufacturer
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. A medication error that was intercepted before it reached the patient

An error and an injury are two different things. A wrong strength was selected, so an error occurred; the final check caught it, so the patient was never exposed. Quality programs want these recorded precisely because they show where the process nearly failed while nobody was hurt.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. An adverse drug reaction is a harmful response to a medication the patient actually received.
  • B. No harm is not the same as no event. A near miss that is never recorded cannot be learned from.
  • D. No second drug is involved, and nothing here points to an interaction.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, tasks 5G and 5H; knowledge statements K.158 and K.160

Question 4 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Drug Classification · Item EXCPT-F004

Which therapeutic class does amlodipine belong to?

  • A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
  • B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
  • C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin)
  • D. Calcium channel blocker
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Calcium channel blocker

Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. It works by limiting the movement of calcium into vascular smooth muscle and cardiac muscle, which relaxes blood vessels.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. SSRIs act on serotonin reuptake and are used in depression and anxiety, such as sertraline.
  • B. ACE inhibitors are the drugs whose generic names end in -pril, such as lisinopril.
  • C. Statins lower cholesterol and end in -statin, such as atorvastatin.

Source: FDA prescribing information for amlodipine and atorvastatin tablets, Description and Clinical Pharmacology sections; MedlinePlus drug information: amlodipine

Question 5 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F005

An electronic prescription arrives for a medication that is made in 5 mg, 10 mg and 20 mg tablets. No strength is given anywhere on the order. The patient's history shows a 10 mg fill last year from a different prescriber. Your pharmacy's workflow states that unresolved clinical details are referred to the pharmacist. What should the technician do?

  • A. Enter 10 mg because that is what the patient received before
  • B. Leave the strength unresolved and refer the order to the pharmacist for clarification
  • C. Enter the strength of the stock bottle on the shelf
  • D. Enter the middle strength, since it is the most commonly dispensed
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Leave the strength unresolved and refer the order to the pharmacist for clarification

A prescription missing a required element is incomplete, and nothing in the patient's history tells you what this prescriber intended today. Under the workflow given, the technician's move is to stop and route it, not to reconstruct the order.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. A past fill from a different prescriber is not authorisation for today's order. Doses change.
  • C. What happens to be in stock is the weakest reason of all to choose a strength.
  • D. How often a strength is dispensed says nothing about what was written.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, task 4A.1; knowledge statement K.74

Question 6 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F006

While collecting information for a medication review, a patient tells you she takes a prescription blood pressure tablet, an over-the-counter antacid, and a herbal supplement for sleep. What belongs on the list you pass to the pharmacist?

  • A. The prescription only, because the others are not prescribed
  • B. The prescription and the antacid, because both are medicines
  • C. Only the products the pharmacy has dispensed
  • D. All three products, identified as reported by the patient
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. All three products, identified as reported by the patient

A patient profile is meant to capture what the patient is actually taking. NHA's test plan lists medication history including over-the-counter products among the elements of a patient profile. Non-prescription products and supplements can interact with prescribed therapy, and the pharmacist cannot weigh what was never written down.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Leaving out the antacid and the supplement hides two of the three things she is taking.
  • B. A herbal supplement is exactly the kind of product that gets left off a list and then matters.
  • C. Filling history is not the same as what a patient is taking. Products bought elsewhere still count.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, knowledge statement K.78 (elements of a patient profile, including medication history and OTCs); Domain 1, task 1C

Question 7 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F007

A verified order reads: amlodipine 5 mg tablets, quantity 30. Four products are on the shelf. Which one matches the order?

  • A. Amlodipine 5 mg tablets
  • B. Amlodipine 10 mg tablets
  • C. Amlodipine 5 mg/5 mL oral solution
  • D. Amiodarone 5 mg tablets
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. Amlodipine 5 mg tablets

Drug name, strength and dosage form all have to match. Only option B matches all three. Building the habit of checking each attribute separately is what stops the other three from ever leaving the counter.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Right drug, right form, wrong strength, which would double the dose.
  • C. Right drug, right strength on paper, but a solution is not a tablet and is measured differently.
  • D. Amiodarone is a different medication with a similar-looking name. This is how look-alike name errors happen.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4B, task 4B.2

Question 8 of 50

Laws - Laws and Regulations · Item EXCPT-F008

A customer buys a box of pseudoephedrine at 10 a.m. and comes back at 4 p.m. the same day for a second box. Under federal law, what is the most pseudoephedrine base your pharmacy may sell that customer in a single calendar day?

  • A. 9 grams, no matter how many separate transactions
  • B. 7.5 grams, no matter how many separate transactions
  • C. 3.6 grams, no matter how many separate transactions
  • D. 3.6 grams per transaction, with no daily total
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. 3.6 grams, no matter how many separate transactions

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act sets the daily sales limit at 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base per purchaser, and DEA states that the limit applies regardless of the number of transactions. The second visit counts against the same 3.6 grams.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 9 grams is also real: it is the most an individual may lawfully purchase at retail in a 30-day period.
  • B. 7.5 grams is a real number, but it is the 30-day ceiling for mail-order sellers and mobile retail vendors.
  • D. Reading the limit as per transaction would let someone clear the daily cap by splitting the purchase, which is the loophole the rule was written to close.

State law is often stricter than the federal floor.

Source: DEA Diversion Control Division, CMEA General Information, provisions effective 8 April 2006; 21 CFR 1314.20

Question 9 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Drug Classification · Item EXCPT-F009

Atorvastatin belongs to which therapeutic class?

  • A. Beta blocker
  • B. Proton pump inhibitor
  • C. Calcium channel blocker
  • D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Atorvastatin is a selective, competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis. Drugs in this class are usually called statins, and their generic names end in -statin.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Beta blockers end in -olol, such as metoprolol.
  • B. Proton pump inhibitors end in -prazole, such as omeprazole.
  • C. Calcium channel blockers include amlodipine and diltiazem.

Source: FDA prescribing information for amlodipine and atorvastatin tablets, Clinical Pharmacology section; MedlinePlus drug information: atorvastatin

Question 10 of 50

Dispensing Process - Sterile and Non-Sterile Products, Compounding, Unit Dose, and Repackaging · Item EXCPT-F010

A multi-dose container is opened on 8 September. The pharmacy's written procedure gives it an in-use period that would end on 14 September at 4:00 p.m. The manufacturer's printed expiration for that container is 13 September at 4:00 p.m. No other limit applies. What date and time should be written on the container?

  • A. 13 September, 4:00 p.m.
  • B. 14 September, 4:00 p.m.
  • C. Whichever the pharmacist prefers
  • D. The later date, since the container was opened while it was still in date
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. 13 September, 4:00 p.m.

When two deadlines apply, the earlier one governs. An in-use period cannot push a product past the manufacturer's expiration; expiration is the outer limit of what the manufacturer has supported, and opening the container does not extend it.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. This takes the longer of the two deadlines, which is the whole trap.
  • C. Preference is not a dating method. Both deadlines are fixed.
  • D. Being in date at the moment of opening is what made the container usable at all. It says nothing about how long it stays usable.

All dates in this question are supplied for the exercise. Product-specific limits always control in practice.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4D, task 4D.9; knowledge statement K.139

Question 11 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F011

Your pharmacy's policy requires matching both the patient's name and date of birth before release. Two profiles read Maria Santos: one with a date of birth of 4 March 1978, one with 4 March 1987. The person at the counter gives 4 March 1987. What should you do?

  • A. Release the prescription filed under the 1978 profile, since it was filled first
  • B. Select the profile with the 4 March 1987 date of birth and continue the release check
  • C. Ask the patient to pick the profile she recognises
  • D. Release either one, because the names match exactly
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Select the profile with the 4 March 1987 date of birth and continue the release check

The policy names two identifiers, and the second one separates these two patients. Matching on name alone would leave a coin flip between two real people, which is exactly the situation that produces a wrong-patient dispense.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Fill order has nothing to do with patient identity.
  • C. Asking a patient to sort out a records problem shifts a safety check onto the person least able to make it.
  • D. Identical names are the reason the second identifier exists.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, tasks 5E and 5F

Question 12 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F012

A patient says a medicine once gave her a rash that lasted two days. She is not sure whether it counts as an allergy. Which profile entry is most useful to the pharmacist?

  • A. Record it as a side effect, since a rash is common
  • B. Record it as a confirmed drug allergy
  • C. Record the substance and the reaction the patient described, noting that it is patient-reported
  • D. Leave it out, because the patient is unsure
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Record the substance and the reaction the patient described, noting that it is patient-reported

Write down what she actually told you and mark where it came from. Whether a rash is an allergy, an intolerance or a coincidence is a clinical determination, and the pharmacist needs the raw description to make it. Labelling it prematurely, in either direction, destroys the information.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Calling it a side effect quietly dismisses it, which is the same mistake pointed the other way.
  • B. Calling it confirmed adds certainty nobody has, and a false allergy label can close off useful treatments for years.
  • D. Uncertainty is a reason to record more detail, not less.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, task 4A.2; knowledge statement K.78

Question 13 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F013

FDA classifies a recall as the most serious category when there is a reasonable probability that using or being exposed to the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. Which class is that?

  • A. Market withdrawal
  • B. Class II
  • C. Class III
  • D. Class I
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Class I

That wording is FDA's definition of a Class I recall. The classes run from most to least serious: Class I is a reasonable probability of serious harm or death, Class II is temporary or medically reversible harm with a remote chance of something serious, and Class III is a violation not likely to cause adverse health consequences at all.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. A market withdrawal involves a minor violation that would not be subject to FDA legal action, so it is not a recall classification.
  • B. Class II covers temporary or reversible consequences.
  • C. Class III is the least serious, often a labelling or packaging problem.

Source: FDA, Recalls Background and Definitions

Question 14 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F014

A verified label for an oral liquid directs the caregiver to give 3.5 mL by mouth twice daily. Which measuring device should be supplied with it?

  • A. A calibrated oral syringe marked in millilitres
  • B. A household teaspoon
  • C. An uncalibrated plastic cup
  • D. A tuberculin syringe with a needle attached
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. A calibrated oral syringe marked in millilitres

The dose is written in millilitres and includes a half millilitre, so the device has to be readable in millilitres at that precision. An oral syringe is designed for exactly that and cannot be connected to an intravenous line.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Household spoons vary widely in volume and cannot measure 3.5 mL.
  • C. An uncalibrated cup has no scale to read.
  • D. A needle has no place in an oral dose, and fitting one to an oral preparation creates a route error.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4B, tasks 4B.5 and 4B.6

Question 15 of 50

Laws - Laws and Regulations · Item EXCPT-F015

Under the federal rules for retail sales of pseudoephedrine, which purchase does NOT have to be entered in the logbook?

  • A. Any purchase by a customer who shows a state driver's licence
  • B. Any purchase under 3.6 grams
  • C. A single sales package containing not more than 60 mg of pseudoephedrine
  • D. A purchase made by a health care professional
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. A single sales package containing not more than 60 mg of pseudoephedrine

DEA states one narrow exception to the logbook requirement: a single sales package containing not more than 60 mg of pseudoephedrine. Everything else still gets logged, and the product still has to sit behind the counter or in a locked cabinet.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Photo identification is required for the sale; showing it does not remove the logbook entry.
  • B. 3.6 grams is the daily sales ceiling, not a logbook threshold. Nearly every ordinary sale is under it.
  • D. There is no professional exemption for a retail purchase.

Logbook entries are kept for at least two years.

Source: DEA Diversion Control Division, CMEA General Information, Logbook Provisions

Question 16 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Drug Classification · Item EXCPT-F016

Which pairing of dosage form and route of administration is correct?

  • A. Transdermal patch - oral route
  • B. Enteric-coated tablet - topical route
  • C. Vaginal suppository - parenteral route
  • D. Metered-dose inhaler - inhalation route
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Metered-dose inhaler - inhalation route

A metered-dose inhaler delivers a measured dose into the airways, so the route is inhalation. Dosage form describes the physical product; route describes where it enters the body. Keeping them separate makes these pairings easy.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. A patch is applied to skin and absorbed through it, which is transdermal, not oral.
  • B. An enteric-coated tablet is swallowed; the coating delays release until past the stomach.
  • C. Parenteral means bypassing the gastrointestinal tract by injection. A vaginal suppository is given by the vaginal route.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 3A, tasks 3A.2 and 3A.3; knowledge statements K.59 and K.60

Question 17 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F017

Your pharmacy's safety program designates certain medications high-alert, meaning an error involving them carries a greater risk of significant harm to the patient. A prescription for one of these medications is ready for the final check. What does the designation change?

  • A. The medication should be dispensed only as a last resort
  • B. Extra safeguards apply, such as an additional independent check before release
  • C. Errors happen more often with these medications than with others
  • D. The prescription requires a new prescriber authorisation each time
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Extra safeguards apply, such as an additional independent check before release

High-alert describes consequence, not frequency. These medications are used every day and used appropriately; what the label signals is that if something does go wrong, the harm is likely to be larger. The response is to add safeguards at the steps where an error would slip through.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Nothing about the designation restricts appropriate use.
  • C. This is the most common misreading. High-alert says the outcome is worse, not that the mistake is likelier.
  • D. The designation does not change prescribing requirements.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, task 5D; knowledge statement K.151

Question 18 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F018

A claim is rejected. The response says to verify the member ID. The insurance card reads RX482761. The submitted claim shows RX482716. Everything else on the claim matches the card. What is the correct next step?

  • A. Change the patient's date of birth to match the card
  • B. Tell the patient the plan has denied coverage for this medication
  • C. Switch to a different product covered by the plan
  • D. Correct the member ID to RX482761 and resubmit
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Correct the member ID to RX482761 and resubmit

Read the two numbers digit by digit: the last two are transposed. The rejection names the field, the card holds the correct value, and every other field already matches, so there is one thing to fix and one thing only.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. The date of birth was never flagged and already matches. Changing correct data to clear a rejection is how small errors become large ones.
  • B. This rejection is a data problem, not a coverage decision.
  • C. Nothing here says the drug is not covered, and product selection is not the technician's call.

Card and claim numbers in this question are made up.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, tasks 4A.5 and 4A.6; knowledge statements K.85 and K.88

Question 19 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F019

Three sealed cartons of the same product are in stock, all stored correctly and all in date. Carton 1 expires 30 November, carton 2 expires 31 March of the following year, and carton 3 expires 31 January of the following year. Carton 2 arrived most recently. Which should be used first?

  • A. Carton 1
  • B. Carton 2
  • C. Carton 3
  • D. Any of them, since all three are in date
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. Carton 1

Rotate so the usable stock closest to expiring goes out first. Carton 1 expires 30 November, ahead of the other two. Doing this consistently is what keeps product from quietly ageing out on the shelf.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Carton 2 has the latest date and should be used last, regardless of when it arrived.
  • C. Carton 3 expires in January, after carton 1.
  • D. All three are usable today, which is exactly why the order matters: pick wrong and carton 1 expires unused.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, task 1J; knowledge statement K.13 (rotating inventory)

Question 20 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F020

A product's labelling directs that it be dispensed in a tight, light-resistant container. Which container meets both requirements?

  • A. A clear vial with a snap-on lid
  • B. A clear zip-seal bag
  • C. An amber vial with a securely fitting closure
  • D. An amber vial left open on the counter until pickup
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. An amber vial with a securely fitting closure

Two attributes have to be satisfied at once. Amber addresses light; a closure that fits securely addresses tightness. Only option B does both.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. A snap-on lid may be tight enough, but clear plastic does nothing about light.
  • B. A zip-seal bag is neither light-resistant nor a tight container in this sense.
  • D. The right container left open is not a closed container.

This is one product's labelled instruction, not a universal rule for every tablet.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4B, task 4B.5; Domain 1, knowledge statement K.14

Question 21 of 50

Laws - Laws and Regulations · Item EXCPT-F021

A colleague says that because two products carry the same FDA therapeutic equivalence rating, the pharmacy can always substitute one for the other. What is the accurate correction?

  • A. A rating means the two products are identical in every respect
  • B. Therapeutic equivalence ratings are legally binding substitution orders
  • C. Therapeutic equivalence ratings apply only to over-the-counter products
  • D. A therapeutic equivalence rating is FDA's evaluation; whether a substitution may be made is governed by state law and the prescriber's instructions
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. A therapeutic equivalence rating is FDA's evaluation; whether a substitution may be made is governed by state law and the prescriber's instructions

FDA publishes therapeutic equivalence evaluations in the Orange Book as information and advice for state agencies, prescribers and pharmacists. FDA itself says these evaluations are not official actions affecting a product's legal status. Whether a given substitution may actually be made comes from state substitution law and what the prescriber has written.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. FDA notes that therapeutically equivalent products may still differ in shape, scoring, packaging, excipients, expiration dating and storage conditions.
  • B. An evaluation is not an order. This is the exact distinction FDA draws in the Orange Book preface.
  • C. The therapeutic equivalence evaluations cover approved multisource prescription products.

Source: FDA, Orange Book Preface (Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations)

Question 22 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Drug Classification · Item EXCPT-F022

A single-ingredient pseudoephedrine tablet is sold without a prescription but is kept behind the counter and requires photo identification and a logbook entry. Which description fits it?

  • A. A behind-the-counter product: available without a prescription but subject to restricted sale
  • B. An ordinary over-the-counter product with no restrictions
  • C. A prescription-only medication
  • D. A Schedule II controlled substance
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. A behind-the-counter product: available without a prescription but subject to restricted sale

Behind-the-counter sits between the two familiar categories. No prescription is needed, but the sale is restricted: product placement out of customer reach or in a locked cabinet, photo identification, a logbook entry and federal quantity limits.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Ordinary OTC products carry none of these controls.
  • C. No prescription is required, so it is not prescription-only.
  • D. A Schedule II controlled substance cannot be sold this way at all.

Some states do require a prescription for pseudoephedrine. Federal rules are the floor, not the ceiling.

Source: DEA Diversion Control Division, CMEA General Information, Product Placement and Logbook Provisions; NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 3A, task 3A.6; knowledge statement K.66

Question 23 of 50

Dispensing Process - Sterile and Non-Sterile Products, Compounding, Unit Dose, and Repackaging · Item EXCPT-F023

A preparation record states that the finished product must be clear and free of visible particles before release. The technician finishes the preparation and sees small floating particles in the final container. What should happen next?

  • A. Shake the container until the particles disperse, then release it
  • B. Hold the preparation, do not release it, and refer the discrepancy to the pharmacist
  • C. Filter it through the nearest available filter and release it
  • D. Release it and add a note to the record describing the appearance
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Hold the preparation, do not release it, and refer the discrepancy to the pharmacist

The acceptance criterion was written in advance and the product failed it. A failed final check stops the process; it does not get argued around. What the particles are, and whether anything can be salvaged, is the pharmacist's determination.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Dispersing particles makes them harder to see. It does not make them absent.
  • C. Improvising a fix outside the written procedure creates a second, undocumented problem.
  • D. Documenting a failure while releasing the product anyway defeats the purpose of having a criterion.

A visual inspection can show that something is wrong. It cannot show that a preparation is sterile.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4D, tasks 4D.12 and 4D.13

Question 24 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F024

A verified prescription reads: 1 tab PO BID. Which patient-facing direction preserves the quantity, route and frequency exactly?

  • A. Take two tablets by mouth once a day
  • B. Take one tablet two times a day
  • C. Take one tablet by mouth two times a day
  • D. Take one tablet by mouth as needed
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Take one tablet by mouth two times a day

Translate each piece: 1 tab is one tablet, PO is by mouth, BID is two times a day. Option C carries all three across without adding or losing anything.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Two tablets once daily gives the same number of tablets per day but changes the regimen, and for many medications that matters.
  • B. The frequency and quantity are right, but the route is missing and a patient should not have to assume it.
  • D. BID is a fixed schedule. As needed is a different instruction entirely.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, tasks 4A.7 and 4A.8; knowledge statement K.80

Question 25 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F025

Your pharmacy sets a periodic automatic replenishment (PAR) level of 12 bottles for a product, meaning it is reordered whenever on-hand stock falls below 12. A count shows 9 bottles on hand and no order placed. What does the PAR level tell you to do?

  • A. Nothing; 9 bottles is enough to keep dispensing
  • B. Return 3 bottles to the wholesaler to reach a round number
  • C. Raise the PAR level to 9 to match current stock
  • D. Place a replenishment order, because on-hand stock is below the PAR level
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Place a replenishment order, because on-hand stock is below the PAR level

A PAR level is a reorder trigger, not a minimum you are allowed to run down to. Nine is below twelve, so the trigger has fired and the order goes in now, while there is still stock to dispense from.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Having enough for today is what a PAR level is designed to look past.
  • B. Returning stock makes the shortage worse.
  • C. Moving the trigger to match the shortage removes the trigger.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, task 1J; knowledge statement K.13 (periodic automatic replenishment levels)

Question 26 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F026

A long-term care resident is prescribed a Schedule IV controlled substance. Under the federal exception that lets an institutionalised patient's medication be dispensed without the full retail prescription label, what is the most that may be dispensed at one time?

  • A. A 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less
  • B. A 30-day supply
  • C. A 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is greater
  • D. A 90-day supply
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. A 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less

21 CFR 1306.24(c)(1) sets the ceiling at not more than a 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less. Three conditions ride along with it: the patient must not hold the medication before it is administered, the institution must keep records of administration, control, dispensing and storage, and the pharmacist's system must identify supplier, product and patient.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. 30 days is a familiar dispensing quantity but is not the figure in the rule.
  • C. One word apart from the key, and it inverts the rule. Whichever is greater would let a three-times-daily medication go out at 102 units.
  • D. 90 days appears in other federal rules, including multiple Schedule II prescriptions, but not here.

Source: 21 CFR 1306.24(c)(1), eCFR

Question 27 of 50

Laws - Laws and Regulations · Item EXCPT-F027

Which statement about federal 30-day pseudoephedrine limits is accurate?

  • A. Every 30-day limit is 9 grams, in every sales channel
  • B. Every 30-day limit is 7.5 grams, in every sales channel
  • C. An individual may not purchase more than 9 grams at retail in 30 days, and mail-order sellers are limited to 7.5 grams per customer in 30 days
  • D. There is no federal 30-day limit, only a daily limit
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. An individual may not purchase more than 9 grams at retail in 30 days, and mail-order sellers are limited to 7.5 grams per customer in 30 days

Two different rules are at work. The purchaser limit is 9 grams in a 30-day period, of which no more than 7.5 grams may arrive by private or commercial carrier or the Postal Service. Separately, mail-order sellers and mobile retail vendors may not sell an individual more than 7.5 grams in 30 days. Asking who the limit applies to sorts them out.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. This drops the 7.5 gram mail-order and mobile vendor ceiling.
  • B. This applies the mail-order figure to the walk-in counter.
  • D. There is a daily limit of 3.6 grams and a 30-day structure on top of it.

State limits may be lower than any of these.

Source: DEA Diversion Control Division, CMEA General Information, provisions effective 8 April and 30 September 2006; 21 CFR 1314.100, mail-order sales limits

Question 28 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Frequently Prescribed Medications · Item EXCPT-F028

Norvasc is a brand name for which active ingredient?

  • A. Atorvastatin
  • B. Metoprolol
  • C. Amiodarone
  • D. Amlodipine
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Amlodipine

Norvasc is amlodipine besylate, a calcium channel blocker. Brand and generic names for the same product are two names for one active ingredient, not two different medicines.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Atorvastatin is the statin sold under the brand name Lipitor.
  • B. Metoprolol is a beta blocker.
  • C. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic. It is on this list because the name looks close enough to cause selection errors.

Source: FDA prescribing information for amlodipine and atorvastatin tablets, Description section; MedlinePlus drug information: amlodipine

Question 29 of 50

Dispensing Process - Sterile and Non-Sterile Products, Compounding, Unit Dose, and Repackaging · Item EXCPT-F029

A pharmacist's verified formulation record specifies a dye-free base because the patient has a documented reaction to a colouring agent. Four bases are available. Their ingredient lists show: base 1 contains FD&C Red No. 40; base 2 contains no colouring agents; base 3 contains caramel colour; base 4 contains FD&C Blue No. 1. Which base should be selected for the pharmacist to verify?

  • A. Base 1
  • B. Base 2
  • C. Base 3
  • D. Base 4
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Base 2

Read the ingredient lists rather than the appearance. Base 2 is the only one whose list contains no colouring agent, which is what the formulation record requires.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. FD&C Red No. 40 is a colouring agent.
  • C. Caramel colour is still a colouring agent, even though it does not carry an FD&C number.
  • D. FD&C Blue No. 1 is a colouring agent. A pale finished product does not mean a dye-free base.

Selecting an ingredient for a verified formulation is not the same as deciding to compound. The pharmacist verifies the preparation.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4D, tasks 4D.5 and 4D.6; knowledge statement K.129

Question 30 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F030

While entering a prescription, the system displays an unresolved drug allergy alert. Your pharmacy's workflow states that allergy alerts must be assessed by the pharmacist before processing continues. What should the technician do?

  • A. Delete the allergy from the profile so the alert clears
  • B. Override the alert to finish the claim and mention it at pickup
  • C. Substitute a different medication that does not trigger the alert
  • D. Leave the alert unresolved and route it to the pharmacist for assessment
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Leave the alert unresolved and route it to the pharmacist for assessment

The workflow assigns the assessment to the pharmacist, and nothing about the alert is the technician's to resolve. Routing it is the whole job here.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Deleting the allergy destroys the information that generated the alert and every future alert like it.
  • B. Overriding to clear a queue converts a safety stop into a formality.
  • C. Choosing a different medication is prescribing, not processing.

Not all alerts carry the same clinical weight, which is exactly why a pharmacist sorts them.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, task 4A.11; knowledge statement K.83

Question 31 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F031

A recall notice covers Product R, 10 mg tablets, lot R62 only. Your shelf holds: Product R 10 mg lot R61; Product R 10 mg lot R62; Product R 5 mg lot R62; and Product S 10 mg lot R62. Which stock is affected by the notice?

  • A. Product R 10 mg lot R62 only
  • B. Every item carrying lot R62
  • C. Both lots of Product R 10 mg
  • D. All four items, since they share a product or a lot number
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. Product R 10 mg lot R62 only

A recall notice identifies a specific product at a specific strength in a specific lot. All three attributes have to match before an item is pulled. Only one item on the shelf matches all three.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Lot numbers are assigned per manufacturer and per product. The same string on a different product means nothing.
  • C. Lot R61 was not named. Pulling it removes usable stock for no reason.
  • D. Sharing one attribute is not a match; this answer pulls three items that were never recalled.

The recall notice and product names in this question are invented for the exercise and do not describe any real recall.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, task 1M; knowledge statement K.11; FDA, Recalls Background and Definitions

Question 32 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F032

A verified label directs the patient to take the medication with food. Which auxiliary label belongs on the container?

  • A. Take on an empty stomach
  • B. May cause drowsiness
  • C. Take with food or milk
  • D. Shake well before using
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Take with food or milk

An auxiliary label repeats or reinforces something already established for this prescription. The direction says with food, so the auxiliary label that matches it is the one about taking with food or milk.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. This directly contradicts the verified direction, which is worse than no label at all.
  • B. Drowsiness may or may not apply. Nothing in the question establishes it.
  • D. Shake well belongs on a suspension, and no dosage form here calls for it.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4B, task 4B.8; knowledge statement K.102

Question 33 of 50

Laws - Controlled Substances · Item EXCPT-F033

A written prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance is presented for 60 tablets. The pharmacy has only 20 in stock. Under federal law, what is permitted?

  • A. Dispense 20 now and refill the remaining 40 later using the same prescription
  • B. Refuse the prescription entirely, because Schedule II quantities cannot be split
  • C. Dispense 20 now and the rest any time within six months
  • D. Dispense 20 now as a partial fill, with the remaining portion filled within 72 hours of the first partial filling
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Dispense 20 now as a partial fill, with the remaining portion filled within 72 hours of the first partial filling

Refilling and partial filling are different things. 21 CFR 1306.12(a) prohibits refilling a Schedule II prescription outright. But 21 CFR 1306.13(a) allows a partial fill when the pharmacist cannot supply the full quantity, provided the quantity supplied is noted; the remainder may be filled within 72 hours of the first partial filling, and if it cannot be, the pharmacist notifies the prescriber and no further quantity may be supplied without a new prescription.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Calling it a refill is the error. A Schedule II prescription cannot be refilled at all.
  • B. Partial filling is expressly permitted in this situation.
  • C. Six months is the Schedule III and IV boundary in 21 CFR 1306.22, not the Schedule II partial fill window.

Separate rules apply to long-term care and terminally ill patients, and state law may be stricter.

Source: 21 CFR 1306.12(a), eCFR; 21 CFR 1306.13(a), eCFR

Question 34 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Frequently Prescribed Medications · Item EXCPT-F034

A patient reports mild nausea that started after beginning a new medication. The nausea is listed in the product's labelling as a common effect. It is unpleasant but she is managing it. How is this best described when you pass it to the pharmacist?

  • A. A reported side effect, noted for pharmacist review
  • B. A drug interaction
  • C. A contraindication to the medication
  • D. An allergic reaction
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. A reported side effect, noted for pharmacist review

A side effect is a known, unintended effect that appears alongside the intended one. Recording it as reported and passing it on is right; deciding what it means, and whether anything should change, is the pharmacist's part.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. An interaction needs a second substance, and none is described.
  • C. A contraindication is a reason not to use a medication in the first place, not something that develops afterwards.
  • D. Nausea alone is not an allergic reaction, and labelling it as one can wrongly rule the medication out in future.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 3B, tasks 3B.2 and 3B.3; knowledge statements K.70 and K.71

Question 35 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F035

A quality review finds that three selection errors in six months all involved two products stored side by side in identical-looking boxes. Which action addresses the cause the review identified?

  • A. Remind staff at the next meeting to be more careful
  • B. Separate the two products on the shelf and add a selection check for both
  • C. Stop recording selection errors, since they are near misses
  • D. Order a different quantity of each product
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Separate the two products on the shelf and add a selection check for both

The review named a specific contributor: two confusable products sitting next to each other. The fix has to touch that. Moving them apart and adding a check at the point of selection changes the conditions that produced the errors.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Asking people to try harder leaves the shelf exactly as it was.
  • C. Recording fewer errors makes the data disappear, not the problem.
  • D. Order quantity has nothing to do with how the two products sit together.

No single change guarantees that an error will never recur.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, tasks 5D and 5J; knowledge statements K.148 and K.161

Question 36 of 50

Dispensing Process - Prescription and Medication Order Intake and Entry · Item EXCPT-F036

A patient requests a refill of a non-controlled maintenance medication. The prescription shows zero refills remaining and no new authorisation has been received. There is no emergency. Your pharmacy's workflow assigns renewal requests to the pharmacy team. What is the correct action?

  • A. Dispense a short supply and sort out the paperwork afterwards
  • B. Tell the patient the prescriber has discontinued the medication
  • C. Send a refill authorisation request to the prescriber through the pharmacy's workflow and tell the patient what to expect
  • D. Add a refill in the system, since the medication is not controlled
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Send a refill authorisation request to the prescriber through the pharmacy's workflow and tell the patient what to expect

Zero refills means the authorisation has run out, not that the treatment has ended. Sending the renewal request is the task, and telling the patient what happens next is part of doing it well.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Emergency supply rules vary by state and no emergency is described here.
  • B. Nothing in the record says the prescriber stopped anything. This tells a patient something that may be untrue.
  • D. Non-controlled does not mean unlimited. A refill still needs prescriber authorisation.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4A, task 4A.4; knowledge statement K.77

Question 37 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F037

During a shelf check you find a sealed, normal-looking stock bottle whose printed expiration date passed last month. What should happen to it?

  • A. Keep it in usable stock until the seal is broken
  • B. Use it first so it is not wasted
  • C. Dispense it only for over-the-counter requests
  • D. Remove it from usable stock and follow the pharmacy's return or disposal process
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Remove it from usable stock and follow the pharmacy's return or disposal process

Expiration is a date, not a judgement about how the bottle looks. Once it passes, the product comes out of usable stock and goes into whatever return or disposal stream the pharmacy uses. The point of a shelf check is to catch it before someone reaches for it during a busy fill.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. An intact seal says nothing about whether the expiration date has passed.
  • B. Using expired stock first is the opposite of rotation and puts the worst product into a patient's hands.
  • C. An expiration date applies to the product, not to the type of request.

Expired does not automatically mean dangerous. It means the manufacturer no longer supports the product's quality.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, tasks 1L and 1N; knowledge statement K.15

Question 38 of 50

Dispensing Process - Preparing and Dispensing Prescriptions · Item EXCPT-F038

A product's labelling states that the tablets must be dispensed in the original container with the desiccant left in place. A prescription calls for 30 tablets and the original bottle holds exactly 30. What should be dispensed?

  • A. The original sealed bottle, labelled for the patient
  • B. 30 tablets counted into an amber vial, with the desiccant transferred across
  • C. 30 tablets in a weekly pill organiser
  • D. 30 tablets in a zip-seal bag with the desiccant
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. The original sealed bottle, labelled for the patient

When labelling says to keep a product in its original container, the container is part of the product. The moisture protection depends on that specific bottle and closure working together, so the bottle goes out intact with the patient's label applied to it.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Moving the desiccant does not recreate the original container's moisture barrier.
  • C. A pill organiser exposes the tablets to air and humidity repeatedly.
  • D. A bag is the least protective option on the list.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4B, tasks 4B.2 and 4B.7; knowledge statements K.93 and K.101

Question 39 of 50

Laws - Controlled Substances · Item EXCPT-F039

Federal law limits certain controlled substance prescriptions to a maximum of five refills within six months of the date of issue. Which schedules does that limit apply to?

  • A. Schedules II through V
  • B. Schedules III, IV and V
  • C. Schedules III and IV only
  • D. Schedules IV and V only
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Schedules III and IV only

21 CFR 1306.22(a) applies the five-refill, six-month cap to a controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV. Those two schedules, and no others. Note also that the six months runs from the date of issue, not the date of the first fill, and a prescriber cannot extend past either ceiling by oral authorisation.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be refilled at all under 21 CFR 1306.12(a), so no five-refill allowance exists for them.
  • B. This is the answer most study material gives, and it is the one to unlearn. Schedule V is not inside 1306.22, so a Schedule V prescription may be refilled as the prescriber authorised unless a state board or the prescriber sets a tighter limit.
  • D. Repeats the Schedule V error and drops Schedule III as well.

Alprazolam, diazepam and zolpidem are examples DEA lists in Schedule IV, so the cap applies to them.

Source: 21 CFR 1306.22(a), eCFR; 21 CFR 1306.12(a), eCFR; DEA, Drug Scheduling (Schedule IV examples)

Question 40 of 50

Drug and Drug Therapy - Frequently Prescribed Medications · Item EXCPT-F040

A patient's profile lists a medication whose labelling states that when taken with a second named drug, the daily dose of that second drug should not exceed a stated maximum. A new prescription arrives for the second drug at twice that maximum. What should the technician do?

  • A. Reduce the new prescription to the stated maximum and dispense it
  • B. Dispense as written; the prescriber has already decided
  • C. Tell the patient to stop the first medication while taking the second
  • D. Flag the discrepancy for the pharmacist before the prescription goes further
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Flag the discrepancy for the pharmacist before the prescription goes further

You have spotted a documented interaction limit and an order that exceeds it. Recognising it and stopping the line is the technician's contribution. Whether the prescriber intended it, and what should happen, is a clinical decision.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Changing a prescribed dose is prescribing, whichever direction it moves.
  • B. A prescriber may not have had the full profile in view. That is precisely why the pharmacy checks.
  • C. Telling a patient to stop a medication is a treatment decision.

The interaction limit in this question is described in general terms. Always read the actual current labelling for the products in front of you.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 3B, task 3B.3; Domain 4A, task 4A.11; knowledge statement K.71

Question 41 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F041

A pharmacy's shelf labels print two similar drug names as predniSONE and prednisoLONE. What is this practice for?

  • A. Marking which product is the higher strength
  • B. Making the differing part of two similar names stand out so the wrong one is less likely to be picked
  • C. Showing that a product is a controlled substance
  • D. Indicating that a product is FDA approved
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. Making the differing part of two similar names stand out so the wrong one is less likely to be picked

This is Tall Man lettering. Two names that look nearly identical in ordinary type become visibly different when the distinguishing letters are capitalised, which slows the eye at the moment of selection.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Capitalisation says nothing about strength; strengths are printed separately.
  • C. Controlled status comes from the schedule, not from how a name is typed.
  • D. Approval status has nothing to do with shelf-label formatting.

Tall Man lettering reduces name confusion. It does not remove the need to check the label.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, task 5D; knowledge statements K.148 and K.150

Question 42 of 50

Dispensing Process - Calculations · Item EXCPT-F042

A prescription is filled for 84 tablets. The verified directions are one tablet three times daily, with no as-needed use. What days' supply should be entered?

  • A. 21 days
  • B. 28 days
  • C. 42 days
  • D. 84 days
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. 28 days

Work out the daily quantity first, then divide. One tablet three times daily is 3 tablets per day. 84 / 3 = 28 days.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 21 days comes from dividing by 4, as if the directions were four times daily.
  • C. 42 days comes from dividing by 2, as if the directions were twice daily.
  • D. 84 days treats the total quantity as if one tablet were taken per day.

Days' supply drives refill timing and insurance edits, so an error here shows up as a rejected claim or an early refill.

Source: Derived calculation; all values supplied in the question

Question 43 of 50

Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties · Item EXCPT-F043

A product's labelling directs storage at 20 to 25 degrees Celsius, with excursions permitted to 15 to 30 degrees Celsius. Which storage area meets the labelled requirement?

  • A. A refrigerator held at 5 degrees Celsius
  • B. A back room that reaches 40 degrees Celsius in summer
  • C. A freezer held at minus 10 degrees Celsius
  • D. A stockroom shelf held at 22 degrees Celsius
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. A stockroom shelf held at 22 degrees Celsius

22 degrees sits inside the labelled 20 to 25 degree range. The 15 to 30 degree figures describe brief excursions that are tolerated, not a wider range you may store at routinely.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 5 degrees is refrigerated storage, well below the labelled range.
  • B. 40 degrees is above even the excursion ceiling.
  • C. Freezing is further outside the range still, and can damage some products irreversibly.

These figures are one product's labelled conditions. Always read the labelling for the product in front of you.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 1, task 1K; knowledge statement K.14

Question 44 of 50

Dispensing Process - Sterile and Non-Sterile Products, Compounding, Unit Dose, and Repackaging · Item EXCPT-F044

A technician repackages tablets into unit dose containers. The draft label reads: drug name, strength and quantity per package. The pharmacy's repackaging procedure requires the label to allow any staff member to identify the product and determine whether it may still be used. What is missing?

  • A. A lot number and a beyond-use date
  • B. The wholesaler's account number
  • C. The patient's home address
  • D. The prescriber's telephone number
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. A lot number and a beyond-use date

Name, strength and quantity identify what is in the package. They do not say which batch it came from or how long it stays usable. A lot number lets the package be traced if that batch is later recalled, and a beyond-use date answers whether it may still be used today.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. Account numbers are a purchasing record, not a label element.
  • C. Unit dose packages are stock items, not patient-specific dispensing.
  • D. Prescriber details belong on a patient's prescription label, not on repackaged stock.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4D, tasks 4D.9 and 4D.11; knowledge statement K.135

Question 45 of 50

Laws - Controlled Substances · Item EXCPT-F045

A prescriber sends an electronic prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance to your pharmacy. It has not been filled, the product is out of stock, and the patient asks that it go to a pharmacy across town. Under federal law, may it be transferred?

  • A. No. A Schedule II prescription may never be transferred between pharmacies
  • B. Yes, up to five times, provided each transfer is documented
  • C. Yes, one time, at the patient's request, if it stays electronic and unfilled
  • D. Only if the two pharmacies share a real-time online database
Reveal answer

Correct answer: C. Yes, one time, at the patient's request, if it stays electronic and unfilled

A DEA final rule effective 28 August 2023 amended 21 CFR 1306.08 so that an unfilled electronic prescription for a Schedule II through V controlled substance may be transferred between registered retail pharmacies for initial filling, one time only, at the patient's request. The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists, the prescription must stay electronic and unaltered, and it is permitted only where state law allows.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. This was correct before the rule changed and is still correct for a paper Schedule II prescription. It is the most common outdated answer in older ExCPT material.
  • B. Five is borrowed from the refill ceiling in a different rule. Transfers under this provision are one time only.
  • D. The shared-database provision sits in 21 CFR 1306.25, which covers transfers of Schedule III through V prescriptions for refill purposes, not an initial fill.

Source: DEA Diversion Control Division, Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances; Final rule, 88 FR 48365 (27 July 2023), effective 28 August 2023, amending 21 CFR 1306.08; 21 CFR 1306.25, eCFR

Question 46 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F046

A patient collecting a refill mentions that she has been taking half her prescribed dose to make the bottle last longer because of the cost. What should the technician do?

  • A. Tell her halving the dose is a reasonable way to manage the cost
  • B. Say nothing, since she is collecting the prescription as written
  • C. Tell her to stop the medication until she can afford the full dose
  • D. Record what she described and bring it to the pharmacist before she leaves
Reveal answer

Correct answer: D. Record what she described and bring it to the pharmacist before she leaves

She has just described an adherence problem with a cause attached. Both halves matter: the pharmacist needs to know she is not getting the prescribed therapy, and the cost reason may point to something that can actually be fixed. Catching it while she is still at the counter is the difference between a conversation and a missed opportunity.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. Endorsing a dose change is a clinical judgement, and this one may leave the condition untreated.
  • B. Staying silent because the paperwork is in order misses the only useful piece of information in the exchange.
  • C. Telling a patient to stop a medication is a treatment decision the technician cannot make.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, task 5C; knowledge statements K.146 and K.147

Question 47 of 50

Dispensing Process - Calculations · Item EXCPT-F047

For this exercise, 2.5% w/w means 2.5 g of active ingredient in every 100 g of finished product. How much active ingredient is in 120 g of the finished product?

  • A. 2.5 g
  • B. 3 g
  • C. 12 g
  • D. 30 g
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. 3 g

Convert the percentage to a decimal and multiply by the finished weight: 120 g x 0.025 = 3 g. Note that the 120 g is the total finished product, active ingredient included, not 120 g of base with the active added on top.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 2.5 g is the amount in 100 g. The question asks about 120 g.
  • C. 12 g comes from using 10% instead of 2.5%, a decimal place error.
  • D. 30 g comes from using 25% instead of 2.5%.

These values are supplied for practice and do not describe a real formulation.

Source: Derived calculation; all values supplied in the question

Question 48 of 50

Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance · Item EXCPT-F048

A monthly quality assurance check of the emergency medication supply finds one item three weeks past its expiration date and one item missing from the tray. What should be done?

  • A. Replace both items and record the findings under the pharmacy's quality assurance process
  • B. Replace the expired item and leave the missing one, since it may turn up
  • C. Record the findings and replace the items at the next scheduled check
  • D. Replace both items quietly, since the tray was not used
Reveal answer

Correct answer: A. Replace both items and record the findings under the pharmacy's quality assurance process

An emergency supply only works if it is complete and in date at the moment it is needed, so both gaps get closed now. Recording them is what turns a one-off fix into information: a tray that keeps coming up short is telling you something about how it is being used.

Why the others do not fit:

  • B. An incomplete emergency tray is a gap whether or not the item reappears later.
  • C. Waiting a month leaves the tray unusable for a month.
  • D. Fixing without recording loses the pattern, which is the part that prevents a repeat.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 5, task 5J; knowledge statements K.141 and K.164

Question 49 of 50

Dispensing Process - Sterile and Non-Sterile Products, Compounding, Unit Dose, and Repackaging · Item EXCPT-F049

Your pharmacy's aseptic procedure requires a new sterile syringe and a new sterile needle for every vial entry. A syringe has already been connected to a patient's intravenous line. A colleague suggests fitting a fresh needle to that syringe and using it to draw from a vial that may be used for another patient. Under the stated procedure, is that acceptable?

  • A. Yes, because the new needle is sterile
  • B. No. A new sterile syringe and needle are required for the vial entry
  • C. Yes, if the syringe barrel still looks clean
  • D. Yes, if the vial is used for the same patient within the hour
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. No. A new sterile syringe and needle are required for the vial entry

Once a syringe has been connected to a patient's line, the syringe itself is contaminated, not just the needle. Changing the needle leaves the contaminated part attached, and using it to enter a vial risks carrying that contamination into a container another patient may receive. The procedure requires both components to be new and sterile.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. A sterile needle on a contaminated syringe is still a contaminated assembly.
  • C. Contamination is not visible. Clean-looking is not evidence of sterility.
  • D. A time limit does not undo contamination, and the vial may serve another patient.

This question applies the pharmacy procedure stated in the stem. Follow your own facility's written procedure and any applicable standards.

Source: NHA 2023 ExCPT Test Plan, Domain 4D, tasks 4D.1, 4D.2, 4D.5 and 4D.7; knowledge statements K.124 and K.127

Question 50 of 50

Dispensing Process - Calculations · Item EXCPT-F050

A verified order is for 750 mL of an intravenous solution to be infused over 6 hours. What is the flow rate in millilitres per hour?

  • A. 75 mL/hour
  • B. 125 mL/hour
  • C. 150 mL/hour
  • D. 4,500 mL/hour
Reveal answer

Correct answer: B. 125 mL/hour

Divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hours = 125 mL/hour. Keep the units attached as you work and the answer comes out in mL per hour, which is what was asked for.

Why the others do not fit:

  • A. 75 mL/hour comes from dividing by 10 rather than 6.
  • C. 150 mL/hour comes from dividing by 5.
  • D. 4,500 mL/hour comes from multiplying instead of dividing, and a quick sanity check rules it out: it is six times the whole bag every hour.

No drop factor is needed here. The question asks only for volume per hour.

Source: Derived calculation; all values supplied in the question

What to do with the ones you missed

Reviewing is where the score comes from, and it takes about twenty minutes.

Go back to each question you got wrong, or got right without being sure why. For each one, ask which kind of miss it was. There are really only four:

  • Knowledge. You did not know the rule or the fact.
  • Reading. You knew it, but missed something in the question, like OU meaning both eyes or whichever is less.
  • Setup. You knew the method but arranged the numbers wrong.
  • Arithmetic. The setup was right and the maths slipped.

They need different fixes, which is why it is worth naming. A knowledge miss means going back to the material. A reading miss means slowing down on the stem. A setup miss usually means writing the units out. An arithmetic miss often means you were rushing.

Then write the rule or the calculation setup in your own words. Not the answer, the rule. If you cannot write it without looking, you have not learned it yet, and recognising the right answer next time is not the same thing.

Correction log

Copy this into a notebook or print it.

ItemType of missThe rule or setup, in my wordsNext action
EXCPT-F___Knowledge / Reading / Setup / ArithmeticRework it and explain the choice out loud
EXCPT-F___Knowledge / Reading / Setup / ArithmeticReread the linked source
EXCPT-F___Knowledge / Reading / Setup / ArithmeticWrite a similar question with different numbers
EXCPT-F___Knowledge / Reading / Setup / Arithmetic
EXCPT-F___Knowledge / Reading / Setup / Arithmetic

When you are done, pick the two topics that produced the most misses and study those next. Two is deliberate. A list of eight weak areas turns into no studying at all.

What this set covers

This set samples all five domains. It is shorter than the real exam and does not cover every task on the test plan.

NHA publishes the number of scored items in each domain, so those numbers are the official weights rather than anyone's estimate. This set is allocated to match them as closely as 50 questions allows.

DomainScored items on the real examQuestions here
Role, Responsibilities, and General Duties of the Pharmacy Technician158
Laws157
Drug and Drug Therapy137
Dispensing Process4321
Medication and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance147
Total10050

Within the Laws domain, 9 of the 15 scored items are Laws and Regulations and 6 are Controlled Substances. Within the Dispensing Process, the 43 items split into 13 for prescription and medication order intake and entry, 13 for preparing and dispensing prescriptions, 7 for calculations, and 10 for sterile and non-sterile products, compounding, unit dose and repackaging. The counts here follow those proportions.

One thing worth noticing in that table. The Dispensing Process is 43 of the 100 scored items, close to half the exam. Inside it, intake and entry carries 13 items and preparing and dispensing carries 13, while calculations carries 7. Plenty of free ExCPT material is built almost entirely out of maths problems, and candidates arrive expecting a maths exam. The published weights say otherwise. Four of the 50 questions here are calculations for the same reason.

That is a statement about where the scored items sit. It is not a claim about which domain is hardest, and it is not a study timetable. How long any of this takes you depends on what you already know.

How this compares with the real ExCPT

The ExCPTThis set
Questions120 total: 100 scored and 20 unscored pretest items50
Time2 hours 10 minutesUntimed
FormatMultiple choice, one continuous sessionMultiple choice, stop and start as you like
ScoringScaled 200 to 500, pass at 390Your own count of correct answers
StatusOfficial certification examOriginal, unofficial practice

The 20 pretest items on the real exam are being trialled for future use and do not count toward your score. You will not be told which ones they are.

If you want to rehearse the pace, the real exam works out at roughly 65 seconds per item. Fifty questions at that rate is about 55 minutes.

What does a passing score of 390 mean?

NHA reports ExCPT results on a scaled score from 200 to 500, and 390 passes. A scaled score is not a percentage and not a count of correct answers. NHA weights the questions by difficulty across different versions of the exam so that 390 means the same standard whichever version you sit.

How many questions can I get wrong?

Nobody outside NHA can tell you. NHA does not publish a conversion from raw correct answers to the scaled score, and because the weighting shifts with the difficulty of the particular form you take, there is no fixed number that works across versions. If a study site gives you a specific number to aim for, they are guessing.

So treat your result on this page as what it is: how you did on these 50 questions. It is not a scaled score, not a prediction, and not a measure of how far you are from passing.

What you do get from NHA after the real exam is a score report showing, for each of the five domains, whether you were above, near, or below the passing standard. Two details in that report catch people out. Near does not mean you did well enough — it means your performance was close to the standard, not that it cleared it. And the domain ratings cannot be added up to explain your overall result, because they account for question difficulty while the overall pass or fail does not. If a domain had five or fewer questions on your form, it shows as N/A, because too few items makes the rating unreliable.

Test day: what you can and cannot bring

This changed recently, so old advice is circulating.

Since 1 June 2026, NHA exams delivered through PSI no longer permit scratch paper. Instead:

  • An embedded calculator is built into the exam.
  • Testing remotely: you get a digital whiteboard on screen.
  • Testing at a PSI test centre: the centre provides a physical whiteboard.

You cannot use your own calculator or your phone's calculator. If you are testing at a school or employer that administers NHA exams itself rather than through PSI, follow the instructions that site gives you, because those arrangements are set separately.

Bring a current government-issued photo ID. The exam runs in one continuous session. Candidates approved for extra time as an accommodation receive 150% of the standard time, and NHA asks for about 30 days to review an accommodation request.

If you are used to scribbling calculations on paper, practise the four calculation questions above using an on-screen whiteboard or a blank page you cannot rearrange. It is a small thing that feels strange on the day.

If you do not pass

You can retake it. Under NHA's current rules, you wait a minimum of 30 days between attempts, and you are allowed three attempts. After a third unsuccessful attempt, you wait a year before each further attempt. You re-register and pay the exam fee again each time.

Results arrive faster than most people expect. If you tested at a PSI centre or through live remote proctoring, your score report is posted to your NHA account within 48 hours. If you tested at a school or employer site, a preliminary report appears as soon as you finish, though preliminary results are not final.

Use the domain ratings to aim your review. Start with anything marked below or near the standard, and do not write off a domain marked above, because that band is wide and being at the bottom of it still looks like above.

Is this practice test current?

The ExCPT changed. NHA ran a job analysis in 2023, rewrote the test plan, and the new exam applies to exams scheduled on or after 9 July 2025. A lot of free ExCPT material online was written against the older plan and has not been updated.

Here is what moved:

Older planCurrent plan
Technician role and general dutiesInside a domain called "Overview and Laws" (11 of 25 items)Its own domain, 15 items
Laws and regulations89
Controlled substances66
Drug classification98
Frequently prescribed medications65
Intake and entry1513
Preparing and dispensing1313
Calculations77
Sterile and non-sterile, compounding, repackaging1010
Medication safety and quality assurance1514

You do not have to take our word for whether any given free test is current. Four checks you can run on anything you find:

  1. Does it use the domain name "Overview and Laws"? That domain no longer exists. It was split into two.
  2. Does it test Roman numerals? The older plan listed Roman numerals under measurement systems. The current one lists metric, household and military time.
  3. Does it cite the Orphan Drug Act? That appeared in the older plan and is not in the current one. NHA said the update reduced the focus on historical pharmacy laws and acts.
  4. Does NIOSH appear anywhere? NIOSH requirements are now an explicit task and knowledge statement in the safety domain. They were not in the older plan.

Run those same checks on this page a year from now.

Is the ExCPT the same as the PTCB exam?

No. They are two different credentials from two different organisations. NHA owns the ExCPT. The Pharmacy Technician Certification Board owns a separate exam called the PTCE. They cover overlapping subject matter, but the question counts, timing, score scales and domain structures are not the same, so a PTCE practice test is not an ExCPT practice test even when it is labelled as one.

That matters more than it sounds. Several pages that rank for "free ExCPT practice test" describe a 90-question, 110-minute exam. That is the PTCE. The ExCPT is 120 questions in 130 minutes.

One more thing candidates ask about: passing the ExCPT gives you a national certification. It does not by itself give you permission to work as a pharmacy technician in your state. NHA says plainly that its requirements are separate from any state requirement to practise, and that you are responsible for checking your own state's rules. Your state board of pharmacy is the only place that can answer that, and it is worth doing before you book.

Sources

Exam facts on this page come from NHA's own published materials. The federal rules behind the practice questions come from the issuing agency in each case. Every link below was opened and read on 11 September 2026.

The exam

Federal rules used in the questions

On the exam fee. NHA sets and publishes the ExCPT fee in its own shop rather than in the Candidate Handbook, and the figures repeated on third-party sites do not agree with each other. We are not printing a number we cannot verify against NHA. Check the ExCPT exam application page for the current amount.

How this page was made

The 50 questions are original, written from the sources listed above. Each one was drafted against a task on the current test plan, then checked against the underlying rule or reference rather than against another study site's answer key. The four calculations were worked and re-checked independently. Questions are spread across the five domains in the proportions NHA publishes.

No pharmacist or other licensed professional has reviewed these questions. Checking a source is not the same as professional review, and we are not going to describe it as one.

Last verified 11 September 2026: NHA's current test plan, exam update notices, product update notices and Candidate Handbook, and the federal and reference sources cited in the explanations above.

Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team


Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Healthcareer Association. These practice questions are original and unofficial. They are not actual ExCPT exam questions. Exam and credential names are used to identify the subjects discussed, and trademarks belong to their respective owners. This resource does not provide patient-specific medical advice, and it does not guarantee an exam result, certification, licensure, employment or income.