Castleport Test Prep

CPCE Exam Prep: Free Practice Questions, Review Guide, and Study Plan

The Counselor Preparation Comprehensive Examination (CPCE) has 160 three-choice questions across the eight CACREP core areas, and your counseling program, not CCE, sets the passing score. Start with the 8-question baseline below, one question per area, then use the review guide and study plan to work on the concepts you missed.

Start here: 8-question baseline

Original, unofficial practice questions written by Castleport Test Prep. These are not CCE exam questions. Your score shows how you did on these eight items. It doesn't predict your CPCE result.

Question 1 · Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice

A judge orders a client to attend 12 counseling sessions. Under the 2014 ACA Code of Ethics, what should the counselor do before counseling begins?

  • A. Explain the required limits to confidentiality, including what information will be shared and with whom
  • B. Begin treatment right away, because a court order means the client can't refuse services
  • C. Get informed consent from the court instead of from the client
Reveal answer for question 1

Answer: A. Standard A.2.e says counselors discuss the required limits to confidentiality with mandated clients and explain what information is shared, and with whom, before counseling starts. B is wrong because the same standard says the client may still refuse services; the counselor then talks through the consequences of refusing. C is wrong because a court order doesn't replace the informed-consent conversation with the client.

Source: ACA Code of Ethics (2014), Standard A.2.e, p. 4 (PDF).

Question 2 · Social and Cultural Diversity

A counselor assumes every client should aim to become independent from family, because that is what healthy adulthood looked like in the counselor's own upbringing. This is an example of:

  • A. cultural humility
  • B. cultural encapsulation
  • C. acculturation
Reveal answer for question 2

Answer: B. Wrenn's term "culturally encapsulated counselor" describes a counselor who treats their own cultural assumptions as reality and misses how clients differ. A is close to the opposite stance: ongoing self-examination and openness to the client's worldview. C is the change people go through when cultures come into contact; it doesn't describe a counselor's bias.

Source: Wrenn, C. G. (1996), Intelligence, Feeling, Caring, ch. 6, pp. 30–31; reprint of the 1962 essay (PDF).

Question 3 · Human Growth and Development

A 15-year-old keeps switching friend groups, styles and career ideas while trying to figure out "who I really am." Which of Erikson's stages fits best?

  • A. Industry vs. inferiority
  • B. Intimacy vs. isolation
  • C. Identity vs. role confusion
Reveal answer for question 3

Answer: C. Erikson places the adolescent task of building a coherent identity, by exploring roles, values and future directions, in identity vs. role confusion. A is the school-age task of building competence. B is the young-adult task of forming close relationships.

Source: Erikson, E. H., "Eight Ages of Man," in Childhood and Society, pp. 258–264 (PDF).

Question 4 · Career Development

On Holland's RIASEC hexagon, which pair of types sits next to each other and so forms the most consistent profile?

  • A. Realistic and Social
  • B. Investigative and Artistic
  • C. Artistic and Conventional
Reveal answer for question 4

Answer: B. The hexagon runs R–I–A–S–E–C. Neighboring types have the most in common, so a profile built from them is the most consistent. A and C are both opposite pairs on the hexagon (R–S and A–C), which are the least consistent combinations.

Sources: NCDA (2020), Facilitating Career Development: Instructor Manual, p. 3-15, "Consistency"; O*NET Interest Profiler Manual (2021), ch. 1, pp. 6–7 and Figure 1 (PDF).

Question 5 · Counseling and Helping Relationships

A counselor's outward responses match what she is actually experiencing in the session, without a professional front. Rogers called this:

  • A. congruence
  • B. unconditional positive regard
  • C. countertransference
Reveal answer for question 5

Answer: A. Congruence, or genuineness, is the match between what the counselor experiences inside and what she expresses. It is one of Rogers' necessary conditions for therapeutic change. B is nonjudgmental acceptance of the client. C is the counselor's emotional reaction rooted in her own history, a psychodynamic idea.

Source: Rogers, C. R. (1957), The necessary and sufficient conditions of therapeutic personality change, conditions 3–5 and "The Therapist’s Genuineness in the Relationship," PDF pp. 1–4 (PDF).

Question 6 · Group Counseling and Group Work

In the third session of a support group, a member says, "I thought I was the only one who felt this way." Which therapeutic factor is at work?

  • A. Altruism
  • B. Catharsis
  • C. Universality
Reveal answer for question 6

Answer: C. Universality is the relief of finding out that other people share your problems and feelings. A is the benefit a member gets from helping others. B is the release of strong emotion; this member is describing recognition, not an emotional release.

Source: American Group Psychotherapy Association, Practice Guidelines for Group Psychotherapy, Table 1, "Therapeutic Factors".

Question 7 · Assessment and Testing

The same people take an anxiety inventory twice, two weeks apart, and their two sets of scores correlate at .91. This is evidence of:

  • A. test-retest reliability
  • B. content validity
  • C. predictive validity
Reveal answer for question 7

Answer: A. Consistency of scores across two administrations over time is test-retest reliability. B is about whether the items fairly sample the content the test claims to cover. C is about whether scores forecast a later outcome, not whether they repeat.

Source: AERA, APA, & NCME (2014), Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, pp. 14, 17 and 37–38 (PDF).

Question 8 · Research and Program Evaluation

Using a hypothesis test, a researcher concludes that a new intervention reduced depression, but in reality it had no effect. What happened?

  • A. A Type II error
  • B. A Type I error
  • C. A ceiling effect
Reveal answer for question 8

Answer: B. A Type I error rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true, so the researcher claims an effect that isn't there. A is the reverse: missing an effect that is real. C is a measurement problem where scores bunch at the top of a scale; it doesn't describe a false claim of an effect.

Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §1.3.5, "Significance Level".

What to do with your baseline

Each question above comes from a different area, in the same order as the review guide below. Every miss points you to an area to start with. Eight questions are too few to rate an area as strong or weak, so read a miss as "check this area first," not "I'm failing this area."

Baseline questions and the area each one points to
Question Area to review
1 Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice
2 Social and Cultural Diversity
3 Human Growth and Development
4 Career Development
5 Counseling and Helping Relationships
6 Group Counseling and Group Work
7 Assessment and Testing
8 Research and Program Evaluation

Log every miss, and every lucky guess, in an error log like this one. The last column is the important one: a few days later, explain the idea from memory.

Error log: one example row and one blank row
Question or concept What I picked and why The distinction I missed Where to review it Review again on Explained from memory?
Q7, reliability Picked "content validity" because both answers sounded like "the test works" Same scores over time = test-retest reliability; validity asks whether a specific use of the scores is supported Assessment review below; my testing textbook 4 days later Yes, with a new example
Blank row for your next missed or guessed question

Review the eight CPCE content areas

Each area carries the same 17 scored questions, so none is safe to skip. The lettered topics come from CCE's CPCE Content Outline (PDF) (August 2024). Under each area you'll find a short review of core ideas and two more practice questions. The review is a starting point, not a replacement for your coursework: check the outline's full topic list against your course notes.

The eight CPCE content areas
Area Scored questions Outline topics Start with
Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice 17 I.A–M ACA ethical principles, informed consent, confidentiality limits, impairment, supervision
Social and Cultural Diversity 17 II.A–H MSJCC domains, encapsulation, acculturation, microaggressions, levels of advocacy
Human Growth and Development 17 III.A–I Piaget, Erikson, attachment, learning theory, ecological systems
Career Development 17 IV.A–J Holland, Super, O*NET, interests vs. abilities
Counseling and Helping Relationships 17 V.A–N Major theories, Rogers' conditions, stages of change, consultation, crisis and suicide prevention
Group Counseling and Group Work 17 VI.A–G Therapeutic factors, group stages, leader skills, screening, group types
Assessment and Testing 17 VII.A–M Reliability vs. validity, the normal curve, standard scores, risk assessment
Research and Program Evaluation 17 VIII.A–J Designs, Type I/II errors, choosing a statistical test, program evaluation

The lettered labels identify topics in the outline. They don't change how many questions the area gets.

Your syllabus uses different names? CACREP's 2024 Standards renamed several core areas. CCE's CPCE outline still uses its own names, so match your studying to the CPCE outline.

CPCE outline names compared with CACREP 2024 names
CPCE outline name CACREP 2024 name
Social and Cultural Diversity Social and Cultural Identities and Experiences
Human Growth and Development Lifespan Development
Counseling and Helping Relationships Counseling Practice and Relationships
Assessment and Testing Assessment and Diagnostic Processes

The other four areas have the same names in both. Source: 2024 CACREP Standards (PDF), Section 3.

Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice

Ethics questions reward knowing what a standard actually says, not a general sense of "be careful." The 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF) is still the current code: ACA's ethics page says it stays in effect until the board formally adopts the revised code.

  • Six principles (Preamble, p. 3): autonomy (the client directs their own life), nonmaleficence (avoid harm), beneficence (do good), justice (treat people fairly), fidelity (keep commitments) and veracity (be truthful).
  • Informed consent is ongoing (A.2.a). It is reviewed in writing and out loud, and documented throughout counseling, not signed once and forgotten.
  • Assent (A.2.d): with minors or adults who can't give voluntary consent, counselors still seek the client's assent and include them in decisions as appropriate.
  • Mandated clients (A.2.e): counselors explain the limits of confidentiality before starting, and the client may still refuse.
  • Confidentiality exceptions (B.2.a): the usual confidentiality requirement does not apply when disclosure is required to protect clients or identified others from serious and foreseeable harm, or when the law requires it. In groups (B.4.a), counselors explain how confidentiality works for that specific group.
  • Former clients (A.5.c): sexual or romantic relationships with former clients, their romantic partners or their family members are prohibited for 5 years after the last professional contact. After 5 years, counselors must document the potential for exploitation or harm before considering a relationship and avoid it if either remains.
  • Impairment (C.2.g): counselors watch for it in themselves and step back when it would affect their work.
  • Supervision (F.1.a): the supervisor's primary job is to monitor the supervisee's services and protect clients.

The outline also covers the profession's history, professional organizations, credentialing (licensure vs. certification vs. accreditation), advocacy and self-care. Use your orientation course for those.

Practice: two more questions

Question 9 · Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice

During a painful divorce, a counselor notices she can't concentrate in sessions and is snapping at clients. What does the ACA Code direct her to do?

  • A. Keep her full caseload and note the stressor in her own records
  • B. Tell each client about the divorce and let them decide whether to continue
  • C. Watch for impairment, seek help, and limit or pause her work until she can safely resume
Reveal answer for question 9

Answer: C. Standard C.2.g tells counselors to monitor themselves for impairment, refrain from providing services when impaired, seek help, and limit, suspend or end their work until it is safe to resume. A ignores the impairment. B hands the counselor's responsibility to clients and burdens them with her personal life.

Source: ACA Code of Ethics (2014), Standard C.2.g, p. 9 (PDF).

Question 10 · Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice

According to the ACA Code, what is a primary obligation of a counseling supervisor?

  • A. Deciding whether the supervisee should be hired after graduation
  • B. Monitoring the services the supervisee provides, to protect client welfare
  • C. Providing personal counseling to the supervisee when stress affects their work
Reveal answer for question 10

Answer: B. Standard F.1.a names monitoring the supervisee's services, and with them client welfare, as a primary obligation. A isn't the supervisor's core duty. C is ruled out by F.6.c: supervisors help supervisees find counseling but don't provide it themselves.

Source: ACA Code of Ethics (2014), Standards F.1.a and F.6.c, pp. 12 and 14 (PDF).

Social and Cultural Diversity

Start with the four developmental domains of the Multicultural and Social Justice Counseling Competencies (PDF) (MSJCC, p. 3): counselor self-awareness, client worldview, the counseling relationship, and counseling and advocacy interventions. Much of this area comes back to one move: check your own assumptions, then learn this client's meaning instead of applying a group generalization.

  • Cultural encapsulation (Wrenn): treating your own cultural assumptions as universal truth.
  • Acculturation strategies (Berry): integration (keep your heritage culture and take part in the new one), assimilation (adopt the new culture and give up the heritage culture), separation (keep the heritage culture and avoid the new one), marginalization (little connection to either).
  • Microaggressions (Sue et al., 2007): microassaults are explicit attacks; microinsults demean a person's identity; microinvalidations deny a person's experience. "Where are you really from?" is a microinvalidation.
  • Levels of intervention (MSJCC, pp. 11–14): intrapersonal, interpersonal, institutional (schools, agencies, community organizations), community, public policy, and international. When a center changes its hours because they shut out working clients, that is an institutional-level change. Nothing about the individual client is being "fixed."
  • Also review power and privilege, help-seeking differences, spirituality, and racial and cultural identity development models.

Practice: two more questions

Question 11 · Social and Cultural Diversity

An Asian American client who was born in Ohio is complimented on how well she speaks English. In Sue and colleagues' taxonomy, this is primarily a:

  • A. microassault
  • B. microinsult
  • C. microinvalidation
Reveal answer for question 11

Answer: C. Sue and colleagues classify "alien in one's own land" messages, such as "You speak good English," as microinvalidations: they negate a person's experience and American identity. A is an explicit, deliberate attack. B conveys rudeness or demeans a person's identity through themes such as assumptions about intelligence.

Source: Sue et al. (2007), Racial microaggressions in everyday life, p. 274 and Table 1, pp. 276–277 (PDF).

Question 12 · Social and Cultural Diversity

A client who immigrated keeps her heritage language and traditions at home while taking part fully at work and in her new community. In Berry's model, this strategy is:

  • A. integration
  • B. assimilation
  • C. separation
Reveal answer for question 12

Answer: A. Integration means keeping your heritage culture while also taking part in the larger society. B means giving up the heritage culture to adopt the host culture. C means keeping the heritage culture while avoiding the host culture.

Source: Berry, J. W. (1997), Immigration, acculturation, and adaptation, pp. 9–11 and Figure 1 (PDF).

Human Growth and Development

This area covers development across the lifespan, learning, and the contexts that shape them. Build a grid with one row per theory: key idea, stages in order, and one example.

  • Piaget: sensorimotor (object permanence develops), preoperational (symbolic thinking, egocentrism), concrete operational (conservation, logical thinking about concrete things), formal operational (abstract, hypothetical reasoning).
  • Erikson: eight psychosocial stages. Know them in order, especially identity vs. role confusion (adolescence), intimacy vs. isolation (young adulthood), generativity vs. stagnation (middle adulthood: guiding the next generation) and integrity vs. despair (late life). Source: Erikson, "Eight Ages of Man" (PDF).
  • Attachment (Ainsworth's Strange Situation): secure, avoidant, and resistant/ambivalent. Disorganized was added later by other researchers.
  • Learning: in operant conditioning, reinforcement makes a behavior more likely and punishment makes it less likely. "Positive" means something is added; "negative" means something is taken away. Bandura's social learning adds learning by watching others.
  • Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems: microsystem (immediate settings like home and school), mesosystem (connections between those settings), exosystem (settings that affect the person indirectly, like a parent's workplace), macrosystem (the broader culture).
  • Also review moral development (Kohlberg and Gilligan), addiction theories, the effects of trauma and crisis, and resilience.

Sources for the developmental and learning summaries: Piaget, "Development and Learning," pp. 20–21 (PDF); Piaget on egocentrism, pp. 156–157 (PDF); Waters on attachment, pp. 11–14 (PDF); Skinner, pp. 73 and 171–173 (PDF); Bandura, Ross & Ross (1961); Bronfenbrenner (1977), pp. 514–515 (PDF).

A developmental model is a way to describe patterns, not a deadline. Practice matching a behavior to its concept without treating an age as a diagnosis.

Practice: two more questions

Question 13 · Human Growth and Development

In the Strange Situation procedure, a toddler shows little distress when the caregiver leaves and avoids the caregiver when they return. This pattern is:

  • A. secure
  • B. avoidant
  • C. resistant (ambivalent)
Reveal answer for question 13

Answer: B. Avoidant infants may show little overt distress at separation and avoid the caregiver at reunion. A infants may or may not be distressed at separation; they seek contact or interaction with the caregiver at reunion and use it for comfort. C infants both seek and resist contact at reunion and may be highly distressed.

Source: Waters, E. (2002), Strange Situation Scoring, pp. 11–14; scoring material adapted from Ainsworth et al. (1978) (PDF).

Question 14 · Human Growth and Development

A client notices his tension headaches ease when he takes a walk, and he starts walking more often. Which principle explains the increase in walking?

  • A. Positive reinforcement
  • B. Negative punishment
  • C. Negative reinforcement
Reveal answer for question 14

Answer: C. Taking away something unpleasant (the headache) makes the behavior (walking) more likely. That is negative reinforcement. A adds a stimulus and makes a behavior more likely. B removes a stimulus and makes a behavior less likely.

Source: Skinner, B. F. (1953), Science and Human Behavior, pp. 73, 171–173 and 185 (PDF).

Career Development

  • Holland's RIASEC: Realistic (hands-on work with tools and machines), Investigative (research and analysis), Artistic (creative expression), Social (helping and teaching), Enterprising (persuading and leading), Conventional (organized, detailed work). On the hexagon, neighbors are most alike and opposites (R–S, I–E, A–C) are least alike. "Congruence" in Holland's theory means a fit between a person's type and their work environment (NCDA instructor manual, pp. 3-15–3-17).
  • Super's life-span, life-space theory: self-concept is the organizing idea. The stages are growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance and disengagement, and the "life-career rainbow" shows people holding several roles at once (NCDA instructor manual, ch. 3).
  • Other theorists to know: Krumboltz (PDF) (social learning and planned happenstance), Gottfredson (circumscription and compromise), Roe (early parent-child relationships and occupational choice).
  • Occupational information: O*NET is the national database of occupational information, sponsored by the U.S. Department of Labor. Its Interest Profiler uses the six RIASEC types to support career exploration.
  • Interests are not abilities. An interest inventory tells you what someone likes to do. It doesn't prove they have the skills, or qualify them for a regulated job. Use results to start an exploration conversation, not to pick a career for the client.

Practice: two more questions

Question 15 · Career Development

A 48-year-old accountant is focused on holding onto her position and keeping her skills current. In Super's life-span model, she is in:

  • A. maintenance
  • B. establishment
  • C. disengagement
Reveal answer for question 15

Answer: A. Maintenance, roughly the mid-40s to mid-60s in Super's model, centers on holding on, updating and innovating within an established career. B is the earlier stage of stabilizing and advancing. C involves slowing down and planning to leave work.

Sources: NCDA (2020), Facilitating Career Development: Instructor Manual, pp. 3-29–3-30; Williams & Savickas (1990), Developmental Tasks of Career Maintenance, pp. 166, 172–173 (PDF).

Question 16 · Career Development

A client wants current information about the tasks, skills and work context of specific occupations. Which free resource, sponsored by the U.S. Department of Labor, fits best?

  • A. Strong Interest Inventory
  • B. O*NET OnLine
  • C. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
Reveal answer for question 16

Answer: B. O*NET is the national occupational information database, developed under U.S. Department of Labor sponsorship, and O*NET OnLine is its free web interface. A and C assess the client (interests and personality type); they aren't occupational information resources.

Source: O*NET Resource Center, "About O*NET".

Counseling and Helping Relationships

This area covers theories, skills, consultation, crisis and suicide prevention. For theories, know each one's view of the problem, the counselor's role, and one signature technique.

  • Person-centered (Rogers): congruence (genuineness), unconditional positive regard and empathic understanding. Source: Rogers (1957).
  • Cognitive-behavioral: identify and test the thoughts behind a feeling. REBT (Ellis) disputes irrational beliefs using the ABC model (Beck Institute; Ellis, pp. 1–2 (PDF)).
  • Solution-focused: the miracle question, exceptions (times the problem doesn't happen) and scaling questions (SFBTA treatment manual, 3rd ed., pp. 18–24 (PDF)).
  • Also review: Adlerian, existential, Gestalt, reality therapy/choice theory, psychodynamic and family systems approaches.
  • Microskills: open questions invite the client to say more; closed questions get specific facts; a reflection restates the meaning or feeling the client expressed, without adding advice or your own explanation. Reflective listening is also a core skill in motivational interviewing (SAMHSA TIP 35, ch. 3).
  • Stages of change (Prochaska and DiClemente): precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance (SAMHSA TIP 35, ch. 2).
  • Caplan's four consultation types: client-centered case (a plan for one client), consultee-centered case (build the consultee's own skill or objectivity), program-centered administrative (fix a program), consultee-centered administrative (build administrators' ability to run programs). Sources: Caplan, pp. 25–26 (PDF); Hylander, pp. 23–25 (PDF).
  • Also review case conceptualization, treatment planning with measurable goals, suicide prevention models, and crisis approaches such as Psychological First Aid.

Practice: two more questions

Question 17 · Counseling and Helping Relationships

A client says, "My drinking isn't a problem. My wife is overreacting," and has no plan to change. In the transtheoretical model, he is in:

  • A. contemplation
  • B. preparation
  • C. precontemplation
Reveal answer for question 17

Answer: C. Precontemplation means no intention to change in the foreseeable future, often with little awareness of a problem. A involves admitting a problem and weighing change. B involves intending to act soon, often with small first steps.

Sources: SAMHSA TIP 35 (2019), ch. 4, "Key Messages" and precontemplation definition; SAMHSA TIP 35 (2019), ch. 2, "Tailoring Motivational Interventions to the Stages of Change".

Question 18 · Counseling and Helping Relationships

A school counselor consults with a teacher about a disruptive student. The focus is on building the teacher's own skill and objectivity so she can handle this student and others like him. In Caplan's model, this is:

  • A. consultee-centered case consultation
  • B. client-centered case consultation
  • C. program-centered administrative consultation
Reveal answer for question 18

Answer: A. Consultee-centered case consultation targets the consultee's knowledge, skill, confidence or objectivity, so the benefit carries over to future cases. B focuses on a plan for one specific client. C focuses on improving a program, not one case.

Sources: Caplan (2004), "Recent Advances in Mental Health Consultation and Collaboration," pp. 25–26, essential element 3 (PDF); Hylander, Turning Processes, ch. 2, pp. 23–25, "Four part categorization" (PDF).

Group Counseling and Group Work

  • Yalom's therapeutic factors: know what each looks like in a session. Universality ("I'm not the only one"), instillation of hope, altruism (helping others), imparting information, interpersonal learning, group cohesiveness, catharsis, existential factors, the corrective recapitulation of the family group, socializing techniques and imitative behavior (AGPA Practice Guidelines, Table 1).
  • Stages: Tuckman's forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning (1965 paper (PDF); Tuckman & Jensen's 1977 addition of adjourning). Beginning groups need orientation, a clear purpose and workable norms. Ending groups focus on applying what was learned and on saying goodbye.
  • Leader skills: blocking (stopping harmful behavior), linking (connecting members' shared themes), cutting off, drawing out, and redirecting from talking about content to noticing how members interact (process). See AGPA's guidance on here-and-now work and boundary violations and SAMHSA TIP 41, ch. 6.
  • Screening (ACA Code (PDF), A.9.a): select members whose needs fit the group's goals, who won't impede the group, and whose well-being won't be put at risk.
  • Group types by main purpose: psychoeducational groups teach information, skills development groups practice behaviors with feedback, support groups offer mutual support, and counseling or therapy groups work on personal concerns. Real groups often blend these (SAMHSA TIP 41, ch. 2).

Practice: two more questions

Question 19 · Group Counseling and Group Work

Group members begin challenging the leader and each other, and resistance comes to the surface. In Tuckman's model, this stage is:

  • A. forming
  • B. storming
  • C. norming
Reveal answer for question 19

Answer: B. Storming is marked by conflict and resistance over control and direction. A is the opening stage of orientation and cautious participation. C comes after the conflict, as cohesion and shared norms develop.

Source: Tuckman, B. W. (1965), Developmental sequence in small groups, p. 396 (PDF).

Question 20 · Group Counseling and Group Work

Before a grief group starts, the leader meets one-on-one with each person who wants to join. Which statement best describes the purpose under the ACA Code?

  • A. To select members whose needs fit the group's goals, who won't impede the group, and whose well-being won't be put at risk
  • B. To replace the informed-consent discussion with a shorter screening conversation
  • C. Screening is required only for closed groups, so here it is optional
Reveal answer for question 20

Answer: A. Standard A.9.a describes screening in exactly these terms. B is wrong because screening doesn't replace informed consent, which Standard A.2 requires. C is wrong because A.9.a doesn't limit screening to closed groups.

Source: ACA Code of Ethics (2014), Standard A.9.a, p. 6 (PDF).

Assessment and Testing

Reliability is about consistency; validity is about whether a specific use of the scores is supported. A test can give very consistent scores and still be the wrong tool for a new purpose. The Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (PDF) frame validity as evidence for an intended interpretation, not as a fixed property of the test.

  • Reliability types: test-retest (over time), alternate or parallel forms, internal consistency (split-half, coefficient alpha) and inter-rater reliability.
  • Validity evidence: content, criterion-related (concurrent and predictive) and construct (convergent and discriminant).
  • Norm-referenced vs. criterion-referenced: a norm-referenced score compares you with other people; a criterion-referenced score compares you with a fixed standard.
  • Scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio.
  • Also review risk assessment for suicide and harm to others, abuse reporting, and using assessment results in diagnosis.

Worked example: standard scores. These are made-up numbers, not a CPCE score. A test has a mean of 45 and a standard deviation of 5, and a client scores 55.

  1. Subtract the mean: 55 − 45 = 10.
  2. Divide by the standard deviation: 10 ÷ 5 = 2. So z = +2, which means two standard deviations above the mean. A score below the mean gives a negative z.
  3. Convert to a T-score: T = 50 + 10z = 50 + 20 = 70.

Check yourself: a score of 45 gives z = 0 (T = 50), and a score of 40 gives z = −1 (T = 40). On a normal curve, about 68% of scores fall within ±1 standard deviation of the mean, about 95% within ±2, and about 99.7% within ±3. Sources: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, normal standardization and proportions; HealthMeasures, T-score metric. The T-score conversion follows from a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10.

Practice: two more questions

Question 21 · Assessment and Testing

Scores on a test are normally distributed, with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. About what percentage of scores fall between 85 and 115?

  • A. About 50%
  • B. About 68%
  • C. About 95%
Reveal answer for question 21

Answer: B. 85 and 115 are one standard deviation below and above the mean, and about 68% of a normal distribution falls within ±1 standard deviation. A is roughly the share within ±0.67 standard deviations. C is the share within about ±2 standard deviations, which here would be 70 to 130.

Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §6.5.1, "Interpretation of σ".

Question 22 · Assessment and Testing

A client's z-score is +1.5. What is the equivalent T-score?

  • A. 65
  • B. 55
  • C. 115
Reveal answer for question 22

Answer: A. T = 50 + 10z, so 50 + 10(1.5) = 65. B is the T-score for z = +0.5. C mixes up scales: 115 is the deviation-IQ score (mean 100, standard deviation 15) for z = +1.0.

Source: HealthMeasures, "Interpret Scores," T-Scores (mean 50, standard deviation 10); conversion calculated from that metric.

Research and Program Evaluation

  • Random assignment vs. random sampling. Random assignment puts participants into conditions by chance, which is what lets a true experiment support cause-and-effect conclusions. Random sampling chooses who is studied, which supports generalizing to a population. A study can have one without the other.
  • Designs: true experimental (random assignment and a control group), quasi-experimental (interventions without random assignment, using comparison groups or repeated measurements over time; CDC evaluation designs), correlational (relationships, not causes), single-subject (such as A-B-A).
  • Variables: in an experiment, the independent variable is what the researcher manipulates; the dependent variable is what gets measured.
  • Errors: a Type I error claims an effect that isn't there (a false positive); a Type II error misses a real effect (a false negative).
  • Choosing a test: an independent-samples t test compares two group means; ANOVA can compare two or more; chi-square tests categorical data; correlation measures a relationship (NIST, comparison of means).
  • Qualitative traditions: phenomenology, grounded theory, ethnography, case study, narrative.
  • Program evaluation: a needs assessment identifies unmet needs and existing resources for a new or existing program; formative evaluation improves a program during development or implementation; summative evaluation judges effectiveness and outcomes, often after completion (REL evaluation toolkit, p. 2 (PDF); CMS needs assessment model). A before-and-after improvement on its own doesn't prove the program caused it (CDC evaluation overview).

Practice: two more questions

Question 23 · Research and Program Evaluation

Halfway through a new peer-mentoring program, the counseling staff collects feedback so they can adjust activities before the program ends. This is:

  • A. a needs assessment
  • B. summative evaluation
  • C. formative evaluation
Reveal answer for question 23

Answer: C. Formative evaluation happens while a program is running, to spot strengths and weaknesses and improve it. B judges program effectiveness and outcomes, often after completion. A identifies unmet needs and existing resources, including when revising an existing program.

Sources: Breslow & Bock (2020), Evaluating Professional Learning: A Tool for Schools and Districts, p. 2, "What is evaluation?" (PDF); CMS, "Step 1: Needs Assessment," needs assessment model.

Question 24 · Research and Program Evaluation

A researcher compares mean anxiety scores across three independent treatment groups. Assume independent observations, approximately normal within-group distributions, and similar variances. Which statistical test fits this comparison?

  • A. Chi-square test of independence
  • B. Independent-samples t test
  • C. One-way ANOVA
Reveal answer for question 24

Answer: C. One-way ANOVA compares means across three or more independent groups on one factor. B compares only two group means, and running several unadjusted t tests instead raises the chance of a Type I error. A tests the association between categorical variables, not differences in means.

Sources: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §7.4.3.2, "The one-way ANOVA model and assumptions"; NIST §1.3.5.3, "Two-Sample t-Test for Equal Means"; NIST §7.4.7.3, "Bonferroni’s method".

Hide all answers All 24 answers and explanations are open on this page.

Your CPCE study plan

Assumptions: you've finished (or nearly finished) the core courses, and most study sessions last about 60 minutes. Both plans cover all eight areas. Use baseline misses, course notes and repeated practice to choose what to revisit in the flex sessions. This is our editorial plan, not CCE's required preparation time. If you can't explain an idea without notes, keep working on it even after the plan is done.

For review sessions, use the same pattern: 5 minutes recalling yesterday's topic from memory, 30 minutes reviewing, 15 minutes of practice questions, and 10 minutes explaining your misses in your error log. Spacing review over time and quizzing yourself both have research support (IES practice guide, Organizing Instruction and Study to Improve Student Learning, recommendations 1 and 5b).

Timed blocks replace that routine. Allow 90–120 minutes for Sessions 17 and 19 of the four-week plan, including review. The eight-week plan separates the 40-question blocks from review; its 80-question block needs about 1 hour 53 minutes for answering, with review in a flex session.

4-week plan (20 sessions, 5 a week)

4-week CPCE study plan: 20 sessions
Week Session Task
1 1 Take the 8-question baseline. Ask your program for its cut score. Skim the CCE outline.
1 2 Ethics review. Read ACA Code Sections A and B.
1 3 Ethics: Section C and F.1. Answer Questions 9–10. Log misses.
1 4 Social and cultural diversity review. Answer Questions 11–12.
1 5 Recall one idea from each area so far. Compare against the outline and list gaps.
2 6 Human growth and development: build your theorist grid.
2 7 Finish the grid. Answer Questions 13–14.
2 8 Career development review. Answer Questions 15–16.
2 9 Helping relationships: theories.
2 10 Helping relationships: skills, consultation, crisis. Answer Questions 17–18.
3 11 Group work review. Answer Questions 19–20.
3 12 Assessment: work the standard-score example with your own numbers. Answer Questions 21–22.
3 13 Research and program evaluation review. Answer Questions 23–24.
3 14 Review every error-log entry. Rewrite each correct distinction in your own words.
3 15 Flex: your weakest area.
4 16 Flex: your second-weakest area.
4 17 Timed block: 40 questions in 56 minutes, from your course texts or another practice source you trust. Review every miss.
4 18 Redo Questions 1–12 without notes. These are repeats, so explain your reasoning instead of just checking the letter.
4 19 Timed block: 40 more questions. Redo Questions 13–24 without notes.
4 20 Light review of your grids and error log. Confirm your appointment, ID and (for online testing) the system test.

8-week plan (32 sessions, 4 a week)

8-week CPCE study plan: 32 sessions
Week Focus
1 Baseline and cut score; ethics (2 sessions); error-log review
2 Social and cultural diversity (2); human growth and development (2)
3 Career development (2); helping relationships: theories (2)
4 Helping relationships: skills, consultation, crisis (1); group work (2); mixed review (1)
5 Assessment and testing (2); research and program evaluation (2)
6 Flex: your two weakest areas (2 sessions each)
7 Two timed 40-question blocks; two sessions reviewing your misses
8 One timed 80-question half (about 1 hour 53 minutes); two flex sessions; light final review

Only two weeks? Do the 4-week plan's 20 sessions at 10 a week, and keep all eight areas. Cramming won't make a topic you can't explain safe to skip.

What score do you need on the CPCE?

There is no national CPCE passing score. CCE reports your score to your program, and your program sets the cut score and decides pass or fail (Candidate Handbook (PDF), pp. 16, 24, 34). The cut can also change with each version of the exam. One university, Liberty, publishes the cuts it has seen: from 62 to 85 out of 136, depending on the version. Those are one program's numbers, not yours. Ask your CPCE coordinator for your program's rule, including whether you also need a minimum score in each area.

Points, not percentages. Scores are raw counts out of 136 scored questions. The 24 pretest questions don't count, but you can't tell which ones they are, so treat every question as if it counts.

Turn your program's cut score into a target. This is our math: the cut ÷ 136 gives a percentage, and the cut ÷ 8 gives the average you'd need per area.

Turning a program cut score into percent and per-area targets
Cut score (out of 136) Percent correct Average correct per area (out of 17)
62 45.6% 7.8
70 51.5% 8.8
76 55.9% 9.5
85 62.5% 10.6
90 66.2% 11.3
100 73.5% 12.5

The per-area figure is only an average. A program may score the total alone, or set its own area minimums. These percentages don't convert scores on this practice set into CPCE results.

CPCE exam facts and common mix-ups

The CPCE at a glance (from CCE's Candidate Handbook (PDF), revised March 25, 2025)

  • 160 multiple-choice questions: 136 scored, 24 unscored pretest questions you can't tell apart
  • 3 answer choices per question (A, B, C), and no penalty for guessing
  • 225 minutes to answer, plus a 15-minute break after Question 80
  • 8 areas, each with 17 scored questions (12.5% each)
  • No calculator
Common CPCE mix-ups and what the current handbook says
What you may have heard What CCE's current handbook says
Four answer choices Three: A, B or C (pp. 13, 21, 30). CCE trialed a mix of three- and four-choice questions from January to July 2024 (CCE news); the current handbook shows three.
You get 4 hours 15 minutes to answer You get 225 minutes to answer. The 255-minute session adds a 5-minute agreement, a 10-minute tutorial and the 15-minute break (pp. 13, 21, 30).
There's a standard passing score, like 90 Your program sets the cut (pp. 16, 24, 34).
You'll find out whether you passed at the test center You see a raw score only, with no pass/fail. Your program gets the official results about 45 days after your exam (pp. 15, 23–24, 34).
You can return to earlier questions after the OnVUE break Online (OnVUE) testers can't go back to questions from before the break (p. 32). Finish your first-half review before the break.
The CPCE counts toward licensure It doesn't. NBCC says the CPCE is "not used for state licensure or to fulfill the examination requirement for certification" (NBCC Counseling Acronyms (PDF)).

Pacing: 225 minutes for 160 questions comes to about 84 seconds per question (our math). At that pace, you'd reach Question 80 after about 1 hour 53 minutes. Online testers get no unscheduled breaks, so if you know you'll need one, test in person. At in-person appointments, the exam clock continues during unscheduled breaks.

Before test day: your program checklist

  1. Get approved by your program. Your program has to approve you to take the CPCE. Ask your coordinator for the deadline, the cut score and any extra parts your program adds, such as essays or specialty questions (CCE CPCE page, Students FAQ 1–2; handbook p. 8).
  2. Need accommodations? Get them approved before you register or pay. Your school's disability office sends a signed and dated letter on school letterhead to accommodations@cce-global.org, including your name and the specific approved accommodations. Approved candidates schedule by phone at 800-466-0450, option 3 (handbook pp. 11–12, 19–20, 28).
  3. Register in CCE's Credentialing Gateway at my.cce-global.org, using your program's instructions (CCE registration notice). Do not repeat a pending registration: that can delay you.
  4. Watch for your Authorization to Test email. It includes your candidate ID and your 6-month testing window. If you completed CCE registration seven business days ago and still have no email, contact cpce@cce-global.org (CCE CPCE page, Students FAQ 3).
  5. Schedule and pay. Unless you have approved accommodations, use the CPCE tile in the Gateway, which links to your Pearson VUE dashboard. For a campus APB exam, your university sets the date and time. CCE's page lists the fee as $75 for on-campus testing (APB) and $150 for testing at a Pearson VUE center or online (OnVUE). Your school decides which formats are available to you. For online testing, run Pearson's OnVUE system test before you schedule.
  6. Know the change rules. For test-center and OnVUE appointments, rescheduling costs $50 and needs at least 24 hours' notice. Missing your appointment, or arriving more than 15 minutes late, forfeits your fee (handbook pp. 20, 28–29). For a campus APB exam, ask your coordinator about changing the date; your university controls scheduling and late admission (pp. 9, 12).
  7. After the exam: your raw score may take 24–48 hours to appear in your Pearson VUE dashboard. If graduation depends on the result, schedule early: your program gets official results about 45 days after your exam (handbook pp. 15–16, 23–24, 34).
  8. If you need another attempt, contact your CPCE coordinator first (Pearson VUE CPCE page). The handbook allows two attempts within the 6-month window, at least 30 days apart for on-campus or test-center testing. Two online attempts must be at least 90 days apart, but you can switch to a test center after 30. Each attempt needs a new registration and fee. Your program may set its own attempt limit (handbook pp. 10, 17–18, 26).

CPCE vs. NCE

The CPCE is your program's comprehensive exam: your school uses the results and sets the cut score. The NCE is NBCC's exam for national certification and state licensure, with its own content outline, registration and scoring (NBCC NCE page). Many concepts overlap, and some review books cover both, but always study against each exam's own outline. If you're also preparing for the NCE, see our NCE exam prep guide. For application steps, use our NBCC exam registration guide.

Sources and verification

Last verified November 5, 2026 (UTC+08:00). We checked the exam format, timing, scoring, score reporting, retake rules, registration and accommodations against CCE's CPCE Candidate Handbook (revised March 25, 2025). We checked the content areas and topics against CCE's CPCE Content Outline (August 2024), fees and delivery formats against CCE's CPCE page, and CACREP area names against the 2024 CACREP Standards. The cut-score examples are one university's published list. Ethics questions use the 2014 ACA Code of Ethics, which ACA says remains current until a revised code is adopted. The source for each practice question is listed under its explanation.

Official CPCE sources

Standards and teaching references

Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. The practice questions are original, unofficial practice written for this page; they are not official CPCE questions.

AI-assisted drafting and source checking supported this page; source checking is not a review by a licensed counseling professional. See our editorial methodology.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Center for Credentialing & Education (CCE), the National Board for Certified Counselors (NBCC), CACREP, the American Counseling Association or Pearson VUE. Exam and credential names are used only to identify the exams discussed; trademarks belong to their respective owners. We don't guarantee any score, passing result, graduation or licensure.

CPCE Exam Prep: Free Practice Questions & Study Plan