EPPP Exam Prep: Free Study Guide, Plan, and Practice Questions
This free EPPP exam prep guide covers the current EPPP Part 1-Knowledge with a worked example, 25 original practice questions with full explanations, domain-by-domain review, and a 12-week study plan. Facts are current to ASPPB's September 2026 Candidate Handbook; if you're preparing for Part 2 or the new integrated EPPP, check your route first.
Start here: your first 45 minutes
| Time | Do this now |
|---|---|
| 10 minutes | Solve the worked example below. Build the table yourself before reading the answer. |
| 30 minutes | Answer assessment questions 12–15 and research question 21. Read every explanation, including the ones you got right. |
| 5 minutes | Record one missed or guessed concept in your error log, then choose a specific review task for your study plan. |
Worked example: sensitivity isn't positive predictive value
EPPP-W01 · Assessment and Diagnosis · original and unofficial; all numbers are hypothetical.
In a hypothetical group of 1,000 adults, an independent reference assessment finds that 100 have a condition and 900 do not. A screening test has 90% sensitivity and 95% specificity in this group. What proportion of people who screen positive actually have the condition?
- A. 10%
- B. About 66.7%
- C. 90%
- D. 95%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B, about 66.7%.
| Screening result | Has the condition | Doesn't have it | Total |
|---|---|---|---|
| Positive | 90 | 45 | 135 |
| Negative | 10 | 855 | 865 |
| Total | 100 | 900 | 1,000 |
- Condition present (100): 90% sensitivity gives 90 true positives and 10 false negatives.
- Condition absent (900): 95% specificity gives 855 true negatives and 45 false positives.
- Everyone who screens positive: 90 + 45 = 135.
- Positive predictive value = 90 / 135 = 2/3, about 66.7%.
The question starts with people who screened positive, so the denominator is all 135 positives. A is the base rate (prevalence) in this group, C is sensitivity, and D is specificity. Each answers a different 'among whom?' question.
Source: StatPearls, Diagnostic Testing Accuracy (NCBI Bookshelf NBK557491), PPV formula; arithmetic by Castleport. The habit to keep: before you calculate, write "among whom?" next to what the question asks for.
By Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team
Which EPPP are you preparing for?
ASPPB is replacing the two-part EPPP with a single integrated exam. Your route depends on when you test and what your board requires.
| Your situation | What to prepare for |
|---|---|
| Approved for EPPP Part 1 and testing before the integrated exam launches (ASPPB: fourth quarter of 2027) | The current Part 1 described on this page. |
| You are a first-time EPPP candidate approved by a participating licensing board or college for the March–April 2027 EPPP Beta Test | Use the integrated EPPP blueprint. This current Part 1 guide is not a beta-exam simulation. |
| Your board also requires Part 2-Skills | Part 1 first. You take Part 2 only after passing Part 1, with a separate board approval. See Part 2 basics. |
| You failed Part 1 or Part 2 before the integrated exam launches | You can retake that same part through March 31, 2028, with board approval. |
| First-time candidate after launch, or anyone testing from April 1, 2028 | The integrated EPPP, with a different six-domain blueprint. This page's questions aren't a simulation of it. See what changes. |
Sources: ASPPB, Current EPPP Exams FAQ (Oct 2026) (PDF), p. 1; EPPP Beta Test FAQ (Oct 2026), pp. 1–3 (PDF); Which Exam Should I Take?
Your EPPP Part 1 priority map
Part 1 has 175 scored questions spread across eight domains. ASPPB publishes the percentages; the approximate question counts are our arithmetic (175 × weight).
| Domain | Weight | ≈ Scored questions | What it covers |
|---|---|---|---|
| Assessment and Diagnosis | 16% | ~28 | Psychometrics, reliability and validity, sensitivity and specificity, base rates, instruments, differential diagnosis, classification |
| Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues | 16% | ~28 | APA and CPA ethics codes, testing standards, laws and court decisions, supervision and research ethics, telepsychology |
| Treatment, Intervention, Prevention, and Supervision | 15% | ~26 | Choosing treatments and their evidence, prevention, consultation, career development, telepsychology, health systems, supervision |
| Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior | 13% | ~23 | Learning, memory, intelligence, motivation, emotion, cognition |
| Growth and Lifespan Development | 12% | ~21 | Developmental theories, family, life events, risk and protective factors |
| Social and Cultural Bases of Behavior | 11% | ~19 | Social cognition, group processes, personality, culture, identity, oppression |
| Biological Bases of Behavior | 10% | ~18 | Neuroscience, psychopharmacology, behavioral genetics, brain imaging |
| Research Methods and Statistics | 7% | ~12 | Design, sampling, analysis, power and effect size, program evaluation |
The top three domains make up 47% of the scored exam. The rounded counts illustrate the published weights; they are not a guarantee of exact counts on a particular exam form. Weights describe the exam, not how hard a domain will be for you. Your own misses decide where extra time goes.
Source: ASPPB, EPPP Candidate Handbook (Sept 2026) (PDF), Appendix A, pp. 22–25 (based on ASPPB's 2017 Job Task Analysis).
EPPP practice questions (25, with explanations)
Original, unofficial practice questions written by Castleport Test Prep. They are not actual or recalled EPPP items. The count per domain roughly follows the Part 1 weights, and like the current exam, each question has three or four options and one best answer.
Your score on this set describes these 25 questions only. With two to four questions per domain, it can point you toward concepts to review, but it can't measure mastery, convert to a scaled score, or predict whether you'll pass.
Biological Bases of Behavior
1. (EPPP-P1-01) A 58-year-old client with bipolar I disorder has taken lithium at a stable dose for years. During a two-week heat wave she has also taken ibuprofen daily for knee pain. Her family now reports a coarse hand tremor, an unsteady gait, and new confusion. Which explanation is most likely?
- A. The expected fine tremor of a therapeutic lithium level
- B. A slowly developing medication-induced personality change
- C. Serotonin syndrome caused by the ibuprofen
- D. A rising lithium level from reduced kidney clearance, producing chronic toxicity
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Lithium is cleared almost entirely by the kidneys and is reabsorbed along with sodium, so fluid loss and drugs such as NSAIDs (ibuprofen), thiazide diuretics, and ACE inhibitors can push levels up. Chronic toxicity typically shows up neurologically: coarse tremor, ataxia, and confusion. A fails because a coarse tremor plus gait and mental-status changes are toxicity signs, not routine side effects. B does not fit the new coarse tremor, gait disturbance, and confusion after ibuprofen was added. C fails because ibuprofen is not the serotonergic agent here; serotonin syndrome belongs on the differential, but the timing and interaction point to lithium. In practice this calls for urgent medical evaluation.
Sources: StatPearls, Lithium Toxicity (updated August 17, 2026), Patterns of Toxicity; Etiology; History and Physical—Neurologic; DailyMed lithium prescribing information, §§5.1 and 7.1
2. (EPPP-P1-02) After surgery that damaged both hippocampi, a patient cannot recognize staff he met after the operation. Yet over several days his speed on a new puzzle improves, even though he denies ever seeing it. Which description fits best?
- A. Retrograde amnesia with intact memory for new events
- B. Anterograde amnesia with spared procedural learning
- C. Encoding failure caused by inattention
- D. Proactive interference from older memories
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Anterograde amnesia impairs the formation of new long-term declarative memories, such as memories for events and facts; hippocampal damage can produce this pattern (as in patient H.M.). Procedural (skill) memory can still form, which is why puzzle speed improves without conscious recall. A describes loss of memories from before the injury. C is ordinary forgetting from not paying attention, not a deficit after brain injury. D is old learning interfering with the recall of newer information.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 8.3 Problems with Memory
Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior
3. (EPPP-P1-03) For months, parents gave in to their child's tantrums unpredictably: sometimes after one tantrum, sometimes after five or six. They now stop giving in entirely. What should they expect?
- A. Tantrums persist for a long time before extinguishing
- B. Tantrums disappear quickly because reinforcement was inconsistent
- C. Tantrums follow a scalloped pattern tied to the clock
- D. Tantrums drop off at once because reinforcement stopped
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses is a variable-ratio schedule. It produces high, steady responding and is the most resistant to extinction. B gets the logic backwards: unpredictability makes behavior more persistent, not less. C describes the fixed-interval pattern. D ignores how slowly behavior with a variable-ratio history extinguishes.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 6.3 Operant Conditioning (Reinforcement Schedules)
4. (EPPP-P1-04) A client with social anxiety leaves parties early. Each time she leaves, her anxiety drops sharply, and over several months she leaves earlier and earlier. Which process best explains the growing avoidance?
- A. Positive reinforcement
- B. Negative reinforcement
- C. Negative punishment
- D. Extinction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Something unpleasant (anxiety) is removed after the behavior, and the behavior increases. That is negative reinforcement: 'negative' means removed, not bad. A requires adding a stimulus that increases the behavior. C involves removing a stimulus followed by a decrease in behavior. D is the weakening of behavior when reinforcement stops; here reinforcement keeps happening every time she leaves.
5. (EPPP-P1-05) A month after her clinic switched to a new records system, a psychologist still types her old password first almost every morning. This is best described as:
- A. Retroactive interference
- B. Anterograde amnesia
- C. Proactive interference
- D. Blocking
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. In proactive interference, old learning gets in the way of recalling new learning. A is the reverse: new learning disrupting older memories. B concerns impaired formation of new long-term declarative memories, which the stem does not describe. D is a temporary tip-of-the-tongue failure to retrieve something stored, not an older response crowding out a newer one.
Social and Cultural Bases of Behavior
6. (EPPP-P1-06) A supervisee decides a client who missed three sessions "just isn't committed," without asking about the client's new night-shift schedule. Which bias does this reasoning best illustrate, one that research links more strongly to individualistic cultures?
- A. Self-serving bias
- B. Just-world hypothesis
- C. Halo effect
- D. Fundamental attribution error
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The fundamental attribution error is overweighting another person's disposition and underweighting the situation. It is most pronounced in individualistic cultures. A concerns how people explain their own successes and failures. B, the belief that people get what they deserve, is related, but the core error in the stem is ignoring an obvious situational cause. C is a global impression coloring judgments of other traits.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 12.1 What Is Social Psychology?
7. (EPPP-P1-07) Students are randomly assigned to a difficult initiation, an easy initiation, or no initiation before joining a discussion group that is deliberately boring. According to effort-justification theory, which group is predicted to rate the group most favorably, and why?
- A. No initiation, because they had the least reason to resent the group
- B. Difficult initiation, because valuing the group reduces cognitive dissonance
- C. Easy initiation, because moderate arousal produces the most liking
- D. No difference, because the discussion was equally dull for everyone
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Going through something unpleasant for a disappointing payoff creates dissonance; deciding the group is worthwhile resolves it. This is effort justification, and in Aronson and Mills's classic study the difficult-initiation group rated the group most favorably. A, C, and D each predict the opposite result or no effect.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 12.3 Attitudes and Persuasion
8. (EPPP-P1-08) A health department presents strong, data-heavy arguments to an audience that is motivated and has time to think carefully. According to the elaboration likelihood model, the most likely result is:
- A. Temporary attitude change through the peripheral route
- B. Lasting attitude change through the central route
- C. No change, because the message lacked celebrity cues
- D. Change only among the least attentive listeners
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Motivated, analytical audiences weigh the quality of the argument (the central route), and strong arguments processed that way can produce relatively durable attitude change. A describes low-effort processing driven by cues outside the message. C wrongly treats peripheral cues as necessary. D reverses the role of attention.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 12.3 (Elaboration Likelihood Model)
Growth and Lifespan Development
9. (EPPP-P1-09) A child watches two identical balls of clay. One is rolled into a long snake, and she insists the snake has more clay. In Piaget's theory, which stage is she most likely in, and what hasn't developed yet?
- A. Preoperational; conservation
- B. Sensorimotor; object permanence
- C. Concrete operational; abstract reasoning
- D. Formal operational; hypothetical reasoning
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Preoperational children (roughly ages 2 to 7) have not yet developed conservation, so they judge amount by appearance. Conservation is mastered in the concrete operational stage. B concerns knowing that hidden objects still exist. C and D describe older children who already conserve.
Source: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 9.2 Lifespan Theories, Table 9.2
10. (EPPP-P1-10) A 16-year-old keeps changing friend groups, style, and career plans and asks, "Who am I, really?" Erikson would describe her central task as:
- A. Industry vs. inferiority
- B. Intimacy vs. isolation
- C. Identity vs. role confusion
- D. Initiative vs. guilt
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Adolescence (about ages 12 to 18) centers on building a sense of self by trying on roles. A is the elementary-school task of competence, B is early adulthood, and D is the preschool years.
11. (EPPP-P1-11) A 4-year-old holds a card with a yellow circle on the side facing her and a blue triangle on the side facing her father. She has seen both sides, but when asked what her father can see, she says, “The yellow circle, just like me.” In Piaget's framework, this response best illustrates:
- A. Preoperational egocentrism
- B. A lack of object permanence
- C. Adolescent egocentrism
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The child assumes the other observer shares her visual perspective. That illustrates preoperational egocentrism in Piaget's framework. B concerns understanding that an object continues to exist when it is out of sight. C refers to adolescent self-focus, not the preschool perspective-taking difficulty described here.
Assessment and Diagnosis
12. (EPPP-P1-12) In a hypothetical study, an independent reference assessment identifies 50 people who have a condition. A screening test is positive for 40 of them and negative for 10. What is the test's sensitivity in this group?
- A. 20%
- B. It can't be calculated without the number of true negatives
- C. 80%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Sensitivity starts with people who have the condition: 40 of 50 tested positive, so sensitivity is 80%. A is the false-negative share of that same group. B asks for a number that belongs to specificity, not sensitivity. Note what these numbers can't give you: positive predictive value, which needs the false positives from people without the condition.
Source: StatPearls, Diagnostic Testing Accuracy (NBK557491), sensitivity formula
13. (EPPP-P1-13) The screening test from the worked example is moved to a specialty clinic where half of the 1,000 people screened have the condition. For this hypothetical calculation, assume sensitivity remains 90% and specificity remains 95% in the new population. Its positive predictive value will be closest to:
- A. About 67%, because sensitivity and specificity didn't change
- B. 90%
- C. About 50%
- D. About 95%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Rebuild the table: 500 with the condition gives 450 true positives; 500 without gives 5% false positives, or 25. PPV = 450 / (450 + 25) = 450 / 475, about 94.7%. With sensitivity and specificity held fixed in this hypothetical example, increasing prevalence increases positive predictive value. A is the classic trap. B is sensitivity. C is the new prevalence.
Source: StatPearls, Diagnostic Testing Accuracy (NBK557491), PPV formula; arithmetic by Castleport
14. (EPPP-P1-14) A new questionnaire is intended to help identify whether clients meet criteria for a particular anxiety disorder. It produces nearly identical scores when the same clients retake it two weeks later, but its classifications show poor agreement with an established, validated diagnostic interview administered independently. Which conclusion is best supported?
- A. Good test-retest reliability; this study does not support validity for the intended diagnostic use
- B. Good validity; poor reliability
- C. Both reliability and validity are established
- D. Poor reliability, because validity is poor
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Consistent scores over time support test-retest reliability. Poor agreement with the established diagnostic criterion weighs against the proposed diagnostic use in this study. Consistency alone does not establish validity. B and C contradict the findings. D confuses two different questions: weak validity evidence does not make the observed scores inconsistent.
Source: NCME Assessment Glossary, reliability/precision and validity
15. (EPPP-P1-15) A psychologist is reporting results from an instrument whose validity or reliability has not been established for the client's population. Under APA Standard 9.02(b), what must the psychologist do when reporting those results?
- A. Score it against the standard norms and report the results without comment
- B. Treat validity evidence from another population as sufficient without qualification
- C. Decline to report any results at all
- D. Describe the strengths and limitations of the results and interpretation
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Standard 9.02(b) says that when validity or reliability hasn't been established for the population tested, psychologists describe the strengths and limitations of the results and interpretation. Standard 9.06 adds that interpretation should account for linguistic and cultural factors and note significant limitations. This disclosure does not by itself justify using an unsuitable instrument; Standard 9.02(a) also requires a purpose and use supported by appropriate evidence. A ignores the limitation. B assumes evidence for another population transfers without qualification. C isn't required by the Code.
Source: APA Ethics Code, Standards 9.02(a), 9.02(b), 9.02(c), 9.06
Treatment, Intervention, Prevention, and Supervision
16. (EPPP-P1-16) After a car crash, a client with PTSD avoids driving and anything that reminds her of the accident. Her therapist plans weekly 60- to 120-minute sessions in which she gradually approaches trauma memories and safe situations she has been avoiding because they remind her of the accident. Which treatment is this, and what is its proposed mechanism?
- A. Prolonged exposure; she learns that trauma memories and safe reminders can be approached without the harm she fears
- B. EMDR; bilateral stimulation reduces the vividness of the memory
- C. Cognitive processing therapy; challenging trauma-related beliefs without an exposure focus
- D. Relaxation training alone; lowering arousal without approaching reminders
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Prolonged exposure is a CBT-based treatment involving repeated engagement with trauma memories and safe situations avoided because of the trauma. This supports learning that these memories and safe reminders can be tolerated without the feared harm. B and C are real PTSD treatments, but neither matches a plan built around extended, graded approach. D contradicts the stem, which centers on approaching reminders.
Sources: APA Clinical Practice Guideline for PTSD, Treatments page (updated April 2025), Prolonged Exposure; VA National Center for PTSD, Theoretical Model and Session Content
17. (EPPP-P1-17) A client referred by her spouse says she sees nothing wrong with her drinking and has no plans to change. Which approach best matches her stage of change?
- A. Build a detailed relapse-prevention plan
- B. Set a quit date for this week
- C. Use empathic, nonconfrontational work that raises awareness and accommodates her resistance
- D. Reinforce her success in maintaining change
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. She is in precontemplation: no recognized problem and no intention to change. Consciousness-raising, empathy, and working with resistance rather than against it fit this stage. A and D suit action and maintenance. B is preparation or action work and assumes a readiness to act that she has not expressed.
18. (EPPP-P1-18) A doctoral intern begins therapy with a new client. Legal responsibility for the treatment rests with the licensed supervisor. Under the APA Ethics Code, during informed consent the client must be told:
- A. Nothing about supervision unless the client asks
- B. That the therapist is in training and supervised, and the supervisor's name
- C. Only the agency's name, since the agency holds the license
- D. About the supervision only if a complaint is filed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Standard 10.01(c) requires that when the therapist is a trainee and legal responsibility lies with the supervisor, the client is told that the therapist is in training and being supervised, and is given the supervisor's name. A, C, and D all withhold information the Code requires up front.
19. (EPPP-P1-19) A community program is offered only to children whose parents have a substance use disorder. None of the children shows signs of a problem. How is this prevention program classified?
- A. Universal
- B. Selective
- C. Indicated
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Selective prevention targets people presumed to be at elevated risk, here because of a parental risk factor. A would offer the program to the whole population regardless of risk. C targets people who already show some early, demonstrable sign of a problem, which the stem rules out. The label describes who is eligible, not whether the program works.
Source: Institute of Medicine, Pathways of Addiction (1996), Chapter 6 Prevention, opening section
Research Methods and Statistics
20. (EPPP-P1-20) In a true experiment, the main purpose of random assignment is to:
- A. Make the sample representative of the larger population
- B. Keep participants unaware of which condition they're in
- C. Reduce systematic preexisting differences between conditions, supporting causal inference about the independent variable
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Random assignment distributes participant characteristics across conditions by chance and helps make groups comparable on average, supporting causal inference. It does not guarantee exact balance or remove every source of bias. A describes random sampling, the most common mix-up. B describes blinding.
Sources: OpenStax, Psychology 2e, section 2.3 (Selecting and Assigning Experimental Participants); NHLBI controlled-intervention study guidance, Questions 2–3 and 6
21. (EPPP-P1-21) A researcher sets alpha at .05. Unknown to her, a new intervention has no real effect, but her study finds a statistically significant difference and she rejects the null hypothesis. What happened?
- A. A Type I error
- B. A Type II error
- C. A correct decision, since the result was significant
- D. A failure of statistical power
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Rejecting a null hypothesis that is actually true is a Type I error, and alpha is the rate at which that happens when the null is true. B is failing to reject a false null. C confuses statistical significance with the truth. D is wrong because power is the probability of rejecting a false null (1 minus beta); low power leads to Type II errors, not this one.
Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues
22. (EPPP-P1-22) A psychologist in a small town wants peer consultation about a difficult case. The colleague may know the client socially, and the client hasn't consented to disclosure. The psychologist should:
- A. Share full details, because the colleague is also bound by confidentiality
- B. Not consult at all without written consent
- C. Get a court order before consulting
- D. Share only what the consultation requires and leave out information that could reasonably identify the client
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Standard 4.06 permits consultation but bars disclosing information that could reasonably identify the client (unless the client consented or disclosure can't be avoided) and limits disclosure to what the consultation needs. A ignores those limits. B is overly restrictive; consultation is allowed with these safeguards. C isn't required.
Source: APA Ethics Code, Standard 4.06
23. (EPPP-P1-23) Eighteen months after therapy ended, a former client proposes a sexual relationship with the psychologist. Under the APA Ethics Code:
- A. It's allowed, because the therapy relationship has ended
- B. It's prohibited: sexual intimacies are barred for at least two years after termination, and afterward only in the most unusual circumstances, with the psychologist bearing the burden of showing no exploitation
- C. It's allowed if the psychologist first consults a colleague
- D. It's allowed because the former client initiated it
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Standard 10.08(a) sets a minimum two-year bar. Standard 10.08(b) adds that even after two years it's permitted only in the most unusual circumstances, with the psychologist responsible for showing there was no exploitation. Eighteen months falls inside the bar. A, C, and D describe conditions the Code doesn't recognize.
Source: APA Ethics Code, Standard 10.08
24. (EPPP-P1-24) A court orders a psychological evaluation of a parent in a custody matter. Under APA Standard 3.10(c), before beginning, the psychologist must tell the parent:
- A. Nothing, because court-ordered services require no disclosure
- B. That the results will stay confidential
- C. Only the fee arrangement
- D. The nature of the services, that they're court-ordered, and the limits of confidentiality
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Standard 3.10(c) requires informing the person of the nature of the anticipated services, including that they're court-ordered, and any limits of confidentiality, before proceeding. A misreads the standard. B promises confidentiality without explaining its limits. C is incomplete.
25. (EPPP-P1-25) A psychologist trained only with adults is asked to start treating young children. Child specialists practice nearby, and there is no emergency. Under the APA Ethics Code, the psychologist should:
- A. Proceed, because a general license covers all populations
- B. Proceed if the parents agree to waive the competence concern
- C. Get relevant education, training, supervised experience, consultation, or study before taking on this population, or refer
- D. Proceed but describe the work to the parents as experimental
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Standard 2.01(a) limits services to areas within one's competence, and 2.01(c) requires relevant education, training, supervised experience, consultation, or study before working with a population new to the psychologist. A, B, and D don't create competence. The exceptions in 2.01(d) and 2.02 (no other services available, or an emergency) are ruled out by the stem.
Source: APA Ethics Code, Standards 2.01(a), 2.01(c), 2.01(d), 2.02
What to know in each domain
These are the distinctions behind the questions above, plus the next ones worth checking. They're a starting point, not full coverage of the blueprint.
Biological Bases of Behavior (10%)
- Lithium has a narrow safety margin. It's cleared almost entirely by the kidneys and reabsorbed along with sodium, so dehydration, low-sodium states, and drugs like NSAIDs, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs can raise levels. Chronic toxicity tends to show up as neurologic signs (coarse tremor, unsteady gait, confusion) rather than stomach upset. StatPearls: Lithium Toxicity
- Anterograde vs. retrograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia impairs forming new long-term declarative memories after its onset; retrograde amnesia affects memories formed before it. Hippocampal damage disrupts forming new episodic and semantic memories, while procedural learning can survive. OpenStax 8.3
Practice: questions 1–2.
Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior (13%)
- Classify consequences on two axes. Was something added or removed? Did the behavior go up or down? Reinforcement always increases behavior; punishment always decreases it. "Negative" just means removed.
- Schedules. Variable ratio produces high, steady responding and is the most resistant to extinction. Fixed interval is the least productive, the easiest to extinguish, and produces the scalloped pause after each reinforcer. OpenStax 6.3
- Interference runs in two directions. Proactive: old learning blocks new. Retroactive: new learning blocks old. OpenStax 8.3
Practice: questions 3–5.
Social and Cultural Bases of Behavior (11%)
- Attribution errors. The fundamental attribution error overweights another person's traits and underweights their situation, and it's stronger in individualistic cultures. Actor-observer bias adds the contrast with your own behavior, which you tend to explain by the situation. Self-serving bias credits yourself for success and the situation for failure. OpenStax 12.1
- Dissonance and persuasion. People reduce dissonance by changing behavior, beliefs, or adding new justifications; effort justification is a classic case. In the elaboration likelihood model, motivated audiences with the ability to evaluate an argument are more likely to use the central route. When persuasion succeeds, attitude change from central processing tends to be more durable than change based mainly on peripheral cues. OpenStax 12.3
Practice: questions 6–8.
Growth and Lifespan Development (12%)
- Piaget's four stages: sensorimotor (about 0–2; object permanence), preoperational (about 2–7; pretend play, egocentrism, no conservation), concrete operational (about 7–11; conservation, reversibility), formal operational (about 11 on; abstract and hypothetical reasoning).
- Erikson's eight stages, in order: trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. role confusion, intimacy vs. isolation, generativity vs. stagnation, integrity vs. despair. Know the age band and the core task for each. OpenStax 9.2
Practice: questions 9–11.
Assessment and Diagnosis (16%)
- Reliability is consistency; validity is support for a specific interpretation and use. Scores can be consistent and still not measure what you need. OpenStax 2.3
- Ask "among whom?" before you calculate. Sensitivity starts with people who have the condition. Specificity starts with people who don't. Positive predictive value starts with people who tested positive; when sensitivity and specificity are held fixed, it increases as prevalence increases. StatPearls: Diagnostic Testing Accuracy
- Testing ethics. Use instruments for evidence-supported purposes and with established validity and reliability for the person's population; when population evidence is missing, describe the strengths and limitations (APA Standards 9.02(a)–(b)). Test data go to the client or others named in a release; withholding to prevent substantial harm, misuse, or misrepresentation is subject to applicable law (9.04). APA Ethics Code
Practice: questions 12–15, plus the worked example.
Treatment, Intervention, Prevention, and Supervision (15%)
- Match the approach to the stage of change. Precontemplation calls for empathy and awareness-raising; contemplation for working through ambivalence; preparation for planning; action and maintenance for support and relapse prevention. StatPearls: Stages of Change
- Know what a treatment actually does. Prolonged exposure has clients gradually approach avoided trauma memories and safe reminders; cognitive processing therapy challenges trauma-related beliefs. APA PTSD Guideline
- Prevention levels describe who is eligible. Universal: everyone in a population. Selective: people presumed at higher risk. Indicated: people already showing early signs. IOM, Pathways of Addiction, ch. 6
- Supervision duties. When the therapist is a trainee and legal responsibility for treatment rests with the supervisor, informed consent includes the therapist's training and supervision status and the supervisor's name (10.01(c)). Supervisors set up a timely, specific feedback process at the start and evaluate actual performance (7.06). APA Ethics Code
Practice: questions 16–19.
Research Methods and Statistics (7%)
- Random sampling vs. random assignment. Sampling affects who you can generalize to; random assignment helps support causal inference by allocating participants to conditions by chance. It does not guarantee identical groups or eliminate other threats to validity. OpenStax 2.3
- Correlation isn't causation. A third, confounding variable can drive both measures.
- Errors and power. Type I: rejecting a true null (its rate is alpha). Type II: failing to reject a false null (beta). Power is 1 − beta. A statistically significant result isn't automatically a practically important one, especially with a very large sample. NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook 1.3.5
Practice: questions 20–21.
Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues (16%)
These APA Ethics Code standards support the questions and review below. Read the full Code at least twice; the summaries below are paraphrases.
| Standard | What it requires |
|---|---|
| 1.04 / 1.05 | Try informal resolution when appropriate and confidentiality permits; take further action for substantial harm or likely substantial harm when informal resolution is inappropriate or unsuccessful, subject to the standards' confidentiality and retained-review exceptions |
| 2.01 / 2.02 | Work within your competence; build it before taking on new populations or techniques; emergencies are a limited exception |
| 3.05 | Avoid multiple relationships reasonably expected to impair objectivity, competence, or effectiveness, or risk exploitation or harm; ones that do not pose those problems are not unethical under this standard |
| 3.10(c) | For court-ordered or mandated services, explain the services, that they're mandated, and the limits of confidentiality first |
| 4.05 / 4.06 | Disclose without consent only as law requires or permits for a valid purpose; in consultation, leave out identifying details unless consented or unavoidable, and disclose only what the consultation needs |
| 9.04 | Release test data per the client's release, subject to applicable law and the substantial-harm, misuse, or misrepresentation provision; without a release, provide data only as required by law or court order |
| 10.08 | No sexual intimacies with former clients for at least two years, and afterward only in the most unusual circumstances |
| 10.10 | End therapy when the client no longer needs it, is unlikely to benefit, or is being harmed; unless precluded by client or third-party-payor actions, provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative providers as appropriate |
The Code and your jurisdiction's laws are separate authorities. When they conflict, Standard 1.02 asks you to clarify the conflict, state your commitment to the Code, and take reasonable steps to resolve it. The standard does not authorize human rights violations.
Practice: questions 22–25.
Your 12-week EPPP study plan
Time assumption: 10 hours a week, or 120 hours total. That's our planning template, not an ASPPB requirement or a promise that 120 hours is enough for you. Use the lessons and questions here alongside the linked free references, the official outline, and your existing training notes. The 25-item set is a starting resource, not 120 hours of fresh practice.
| Day | Time | What to do |
|---|---|---|
| Monday–Thursday | 75 minutes each | 10 min: recall last session's material without notes. 30 min: study the week's topic. 20 min: apply it to a question or create and check a new example. 15 min: check answers against a source and update your error log. |
| Saturday | 3 hours | Mix questions and closed-note explanations across the domains you've covered, check them against the linked sources or your training notes, then review misses. Use new examples when available; memorized answers are not new evidence of learning. |
| Sunday | 2 hours | Re-explain the week's misses with your notes closed, then plan next week. |
| Friday | Off | Rest or catch up. |
Why recall first: in Roediger and Karpicke's experiments, students who practiced recalling a passage remembered more of it a week later than students who restudied it, even though restudying made them feel more confident (Psychological Science, 2006 (PDF)). Spacing review over time also helps, and the best gap depends on how long you need to remember (Cepeda et al., 2008). Those studies used other learning tasks; they support the method, not a specific EPPP timeline.
| Week | Focus | Targets for the week |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Baseline + ethics, first pass | Do the worked example and 25 questions. Read the full APA Ethics Code once. Confirm your testing window in Clarus. |
| 2 | Assessment I | Reliability types, validity evidence, standard error of measurement, norms, test construction, fairness |
| 3 | Assessment II | Sensitivity, specificity, predictive values and base rates (rebuild the worked example from memory), classification, common instruments, differential diagnosis |
| 4 | Treatment I | Choosing treatments, evidence for major approaches, stages of change, prevention levels |
| 5 | Treatment II + ethics, second pass | Consultation and supervision models, telepsychology, health systems. Reread Code Sections 2, 3, 4, 7, 9, and 10. |
| 6 | Cognitive-affective bases | Classical and operant conditioning, schedules, memory and interference, intelligence, motivation, emotion |
| 7 | Lifespan development | Piaget, Erikson, Kohlberg, attachment, family development, risk and protective factors |
| 8 | Social and cultural bases | Attribution, dissonance, persuasion, conformity and groups, personality theories, culture and identity |
| 9 | Biological bases | Neuroanatomy, neurotransmitters, psychopharmacology (drug classes, effects, interactions), behavioral genetics, imaging |
| 10 | Research methods and statistics | Designs and validity threats, sampling vs. assignment, inferential statistics, power, effect size, program evaluation |
| 11 | Timed mixed practice | If you have unfamiliar multiple-choice items, work two mixed sets at an average of about 68 seconds per question. Otherwise mix closed-note explanations and source-checked examples without treating their timing as exam pacing. Spend half your hours on two topics with recurring errors in the error log |
| 12 | Final review | Error log, Ethics Code skim, test-day logistics (below). Keep the last two days light. |
Adjusting the plan
- Only 5 hours a week? Stretch each week's targets across two calendar weeks rather than cutting them in half.
- More time? Add a second pass on the three biggest domains and more fresh practice, not repeats of questions you've memorized.
- Test date coming fast? Prioritize the domains your misses point to, plus the three biggest domains. A compressed plan isn't equivalent preparation; be honest with yourself about that.
- Retaking? Start with the domain bar graph on your score report and your error log. ASPPB suggests allowing about 90 days between attempts to prepare.
Turn a missed question into your next study task
Use an error log to give your next review a specific purpose. For every miss (and every lucky guess), write down why the wrong answer looked right.
| Question | What I was thinking | What the source says | Next task |
|---|---|---|---|
| Worked example | I picked 90% because the question mentioned a positive result. | PPV starts with everyone who tested positive; sensitivity starts with everyone who has the condition. | Rebuild the 2×2 table from memory and state both denominators out loud. |
| Your next miss | Knowledge gap, two concepts confused, missed a key word, setup error, or guessed right | The exact principle, with its source | One concrete explanation or practice task |
How to review a miss: state what the stem actually asks, name the principle that answers it, find the facts in the stem that support the key, then explain why each other option fails. Skip universal shortcuts like "always pick the most ethical-sounding answer." They don't replace reading the facts you're given.
EPPP Part 1 at a glance
| Item | Current rule |
|---|---|
| Questions | 225 total: 175 scored and 50 unscored pretest questions, which you can't tell apart |
| Format | Multiple choice with three or four options and one correct answer |
| Time | 4 hours 15 minutes for the questions, plus about 15 minutes for the acknowledgment, tutorial, and closing survey. That works out to about 68 seconds per question. |
| Scoring | Scaled score from 200 to 800. ASPPB recommends 500 for independent practice and 450 for supervised practice; your board applies its own standard. |
| Cost | $600 exam fee + $91.88 test-center sitting fee = $691.88 USD per attempt, non-refundable. Your board's application fees are separate. |
| Registration | Apply to your licensing board. Once approved, you register, pay, and schedule through Clarus (ASPPB's portal since September 29, 2026), then test at a Pearson VUE center. |
| Testing window | Test within 12 months of paying, or by your board's earlier end date, shown on your Clarus dashboard. Don't pay until you're ready. |
| Accommodations | Request through your licensing board and obtain its approval before registering. After ASPPB receives that approval, its final review and Pearson's implementation planning can take up to 10–15 business days. You cannot schedule until the accommodations process is complete. |
Source: ASPPB, EPPP Candidate Handbook (Sept 2026) (PDF), pp. 1, 5–8, 12, 14–15. Pacing and total cost are our arithmetic from those figures.
What changes in 2027–2028
The integrated EPPP replaces both current parts. It's scheduled to become operational in the fourth quarter of 2027; ASPPB hasn't published an exact launch day in the materials we checked.
- At launch: Part 1 and Part 2 close to first-time test takers.
- Through March 31, 2028: candidates who failed Part 1 or Part 2 before launch can retake that part.
- From April 1, 2028: the integrated EPPP is the only version, and its examination fee becomes $650 USD, plus the applicable Pearson VUE sitting fee.
- Format: 215 questions (175 scored, 40 unscored) in one session of five hours, plus an optional 30-minute break. Question types include three- and four-option multiple choice, extended multiple choice, scenario-based case sets, and audio or video items. Results are pass/fail based on a total score.
- Six domains: Scientific Orientation to Practice (15%), Assessment (20%), Intervention (20%), Consultation and Supervision (10%), Interpersonal Relationships (15%), Ethical and Professional Practice (20%).
- Official preparation information: Use the integrated EPPP blueprint and ASPPB's current transition FAQs for the applicable content and preparation guidance.
If you are taking the current Part 1 exam, use the current Part 1 blueprint. Candidates approved for the March–April 2027 EPPP Beta Test should use the integrated EPPP blueprint. ASPPB states that 2026 and 2027 administrations of Part 1 and Part 2 use their published blueprints. Some concepts carry forward, but candidates assigned the integrated exam should use its own content specifications and formats.
Sources: ASPPB, The integrated EPPP FAQ (Oct 2026), pp. 3–4 (PDF); EPPP Beta Test FAQ (Oct 2026), pp. 1–3 (PDF); Integrated EPPP FAQ (Oct 2026) (PDF), pp. 1–6; Updates on the EPPP's Accessibility, Eligibility, and Cost for 2028; Future EPPP Content Areas.
Do you need EPPP Part 2?
Only if your board requires it. ASPPB paused its earlier plan to require Part 2 everywhere starting in January 2026, and Part 2 remains available to jurisdictions that choose to use it (ASPPB, March 2026). If yours does, you take it only after passing Part 1, with a separate board approval.
Part 2-Skills has 170 questions (130 scored) in 4 hours 10 minutes and costs $450 plus the $91.88 sitting fee. It uses multiple-response, scenario (including audio and video), point-and-click, and drag-and-drop items, and its largest domain is Assessment and Intervention (33%). ASPPB recommends taking it after you finish your board's required supervised experience. Find your licensing board to confirm whether it applies to you.
Test-day essentials
- Arrive 30 minutes early with two acceptable IDs: a current government-issued photo ID plus a second ID with your name and a signature or photo. Your first and last names must match your registration exactly. (Pearson's ASPPB page)
- Late counts as a no-show. You won't be seated, and you forfeit your fees.
- No scheduled breaks. You can step out, but the clock keeps running and you can't leave the test center.
- Whiteboard on request; no personal scratch paper. Earplugs or noise-canceling headphones can be requested on site.
- Answer every question. Your raw score is based on the number of scored questions you answer correctly, so answer every question even when you are unsure. Flagged questions still count if you've answered them.
- Watch the 5-minute tutorial. Test-center staff won't know the exam's navigation tools.
- Rescheduling: to avoid a fee, reschedule more than 31 days before your start time. Rescheduling less than 31 days but more than 24 hours before the start time costs $87.50 plus applicable tax. Within 24 hours, you forfeit your exam and sitting fees.
Source: Handbook (PDF), pp. 10–13.
After the exam: scores and retakes
You get an unofficial score at the test center before you leave. Your score is transferred into Clarus, where you and your board can see it, and your board decides whether it meets its standard. If you score below 500, your report includes a domain-by-domain bar graph. Keep it; it's the best starting point for a retake plan.
Retakes need your board's approval and a new Authorization to Test, and boards can add waiting periods or other conditions. Regardless of board rules, no one may take either part more than four times in any 12-month period. ASPPB's suggested 90 days between attempts is a recommendation for preparation time, not a universal waiting rule. If you're applying in more than one jurisdiction, the other boards need an official score transfer from ASPPB.
Sources: Handbook (PDF), pp. 14–15; ASPPB Retake Process.
Common questions
How long should I study for the EPPP? ASPPB doesn't set a study length. Our plan assumes 10 hours a week for 12 weeks. If you're further from your coursework or working full time, plan for longer. Your error log is a better guide than the calendar.
What practice score means I'm ready? There is no universal conversion from a practice-test percentage to an EPPP scaled score. ASPPB does not present performance on its sample exams as a valid indicator of future licensing-exam performance or a guarantee of passing (Handbook, p. 18 (PDF)). Better signs: steady improvement on fresh questions across all eight domains, and an error log where the same mistakes stop repeating.
I'm a master's-level counselor. Is the EPPP my exam? The EPPP is the psychology licensing exam. Professional counselors usually take NBCC exams instead; see our NCE exam prep or NCMHCE exam prep. Confirm with the board that licenses your profession.
Can I see real EPPP questions? The free Candidate Handbook (PDF) includes sample items in Appendices B and D. Live exam content is confidential, and candidates agree not to share or reproduce it.
Sources and how we built this page
Last verified: November 5, 2026 for the EPPP format, fees, scoring, registration, retake limits, and the 2027–2028 transition.
Official exam sources (ASPPB and Pearson VUE)
- EPPP Candidate Handbook, September 2026 (PDF) (handbook page)
- Current EPPP Exams FAQ (Oct 2026) (PDF) · Integrated EPPP FAQ (Oct 2026) (PDF)
- Updates on the EPPP's Accessibility, Eligibility, and Cost for 2028 · Future EPPP Content Areas · The EPPP: Legacy and Future
- Which Exam Should I Take? · Registration and Fees · Retake Process · Contact a Licensing Board
- Pearson VUE: ASPPB EPPP exam page
Teaching sources
- American Psychological Association, Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002, amended effective 2010 and 2017)
- APA, Clinical Practice Guideline for PTSD: Treatments; VA National Center for PTSD, Prolonged Exposure for PTSD
- OpenStax, Psychology 2e: §2.3, §6.3, §8.3, §9.2, §12.1, §12.3
- StatPearls (NCBI Bookshelf): Lithium Toxicity · Diagnostic Testing Accuracy · Stages of Change Theory
- Institute of Medicine, Pathways of Addiction (1996), ch. 6, Prevention
- NCME, Assessment Glossary: reliability/precision and validity
- NHLBI, Study Quality Assessment Tools: controlled-intervention study guidance
- DailyMed, Lithium carbonate prescribing information, §§5.1 and 7.1
- NIST/SEMATECH, e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, 1.3.5
- Roediger & Karpicke (2006), Test-Enhanced Learning (PDF), Psychological Science 17(3), 249–255 · Cepeda et al. (2008), Spacing Effects in Learning, Psychological Science 19(11), 1095–1102
How we built this page: The Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team checked every exam rule against ASPPB's and Pearson VUE's current published materials and wrote each practice question from the teaching source cited beside it. Checking sources is not the same as clinical or legal review by a licensed psychologist. Read more about how we develop and check study material.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB) or Pearson VUE. Exam and credential names are used to identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. Our practice questions are original and unofficial. Nothing on this page guarantees a score, licensure, or employment. Confirm your requirements with your licensing board.