Castleport Test Prep

Free ARDMS RVT Practice Test

Answer 60 original questions in this free ARDMS RVT practice test for the Vascular Technology (VT) specialty exam, then reveal each explanation. This unofficial set includes four schematic questions and is not a full-length exam.

Practice questions

Question 1

A healthy adult's resting common femoral artery waveform is multiphasic and high resistance. Right after brisk treadmill walking, what change is expected in a normal limb?

  • A. No change; a normal waveform stays triphasic regardless of demand
  • B. Lower resistance, with increased forward diastolic flow
  • C. A tardus-parvus waveform with a prolonged acceleration time
  • D. Flow reversal persisting through diastole
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Lower resistance, with increased forward diastolic flow

Exercise dilates muscle arterioles and drops peripheral resistance, so diastolic flow increases and the early-diastolic reversal disappears. A ignores that resistance changes with demand. C signals upstream obstruction, not normal physiology. D is not the expected normal response to exercise.

Review topic: Exercise and arterial resistance
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-01

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Question 2

Which spectral Doppler pattern is expected in a normal internal carotid artery?

Terms: ICA = internal carotid artery.

  • A. High resistance, multiphasic, with brief reversal in early diastole
  • B. Low resistance, with continuous forward flow throughout diastole
  • C. Delayed systolic upstroke with a rounded, low-amplitude peak
  • D. Absent diastolic flow with a sharp systolic peak
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Low resistance, with continuous forward flow throughout diastole

The ICA supplies the brain, a low-resistance bed, so forward flow continues through diastole. A is the normal resting pattern of an extremity artery. C is a tardus-parvus waveform downstream of significant obstruction. D is high resistance; in an ICA it would raise concern for a distal obstruction.

Review topic: Normal ICA waveform
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-02

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Question 3

Through the transtemporal window in an adult, you obtain a signal at about 50 mm depth with flow toward the transducer, traceable laterally from the terminal ICA. Which vessel is this most likely?

Terms: MCA = middle cerebral artery; ACA = anterior cerebral artery. M1 and A1 identify the proximal segments of those arteries.

  • A. Anterior cerebral artery (A1)
  • B. Basilar artery
  • C. Middle cerebral artery (M1)
  • D. Ophthalmic artery
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Middle cerebral artery (M1)

The M1 segment of the MCA is insonated through the temporal window with flow toward the probe. The ACA's A1 segment flows away from the probe. The basilar artery is examined through the suboccipital (foramen magnum) window, and the ophthalmic artery through the transorbital window.

Review topic: TCD vessel identification
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-03

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Question 4

In the antecubital fossa, the brachial artery normally divides into which two arteries?

  • A. Radial and ulnar arteries
  • B. Axillary and subclavian arteries
  • C. Anterior and posterior interosseous arteries
  • D. Deep and superficial palmar arches
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Radial and ulnar arteries

The brachial artery normally divides near the elbow into the radial and ulnar arteries. A high bifurcation is a common variant worth noting when you map arm arteries. The axillary and subclavian arteries lie upstream of the brachial, the interosseous arteries branch from the ulnar system, and the palmar arches are in the hand.

Review topic: Upper-extremity arterial anatomy
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-04

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Question 5

What is the normal spectral Doppler pattern in the intrahepatic (proximal) inferior vena cava?

Terms: IVC = inferior vena cava.

  • A. Continuous flow that doesn't change with respiration or the cardiac cycle
  • B. High-resistance arterial-type flow
  • C. No flow except during Valsalva
  • D. Pulsatile, phasic flow reflecting right atrial pressure changes and respiration
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Pulsatile, phasic flow reflecting right atrial pressure changes and respiration

Near the heart, venous flow mirrors right atrial pressure changes, so it's pulsatile, and it also varies with breathing. Continuous, nonphasic flow in a central vein can suggest obstruction or compression further toward the heart. Arterial-type flow doesn't belong in the IVC.

Review topic: Central venous waveforms
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-05

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Question 6

What is the normal direction and character of flow in the extracranial vertebral artery?

  • A. Antegrade (toward the head), low resistance
  • B. Retrograde (toward the arm), high resistance
  • C. Bidirectional throughout the cardiac cycle
  • D. Antegrade with absent diastolic flow
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Antegrade (toward the head), low resistance

The vertebral artery normally flows toward the head in the same direction as the common carotid, and because it supplies the brain it has a low-resistance waveform with forward diastolic flow. Retrograde or bidirectional flow suggests subclavian steal physiology. Absent diastolic flow is abnormal.

Review topic: Normal vertebral flow
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-06

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Question 7

In a normal hepatic vein waveform, which component reflects flow briefly back toward the liver (away from the heart)?

  • A. S wave
  • B. D wave
  • C. a wave
  • D. None — hepatic vein flow is continuous toward the heart
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. a wave

Right atrial contraction produces the a wave, a brief reversal toward the liver. The S and D waves are forward flow toward the heart during ventricular systole and diastole. Hepatic vein flow is normally pulsatile, not continuous, because it tracks right atrial pressure.

Review topic: Hepatic vein waveform
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-07

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Question 8

Which description fits a normal adult intrarenal (interlobar) artery waveform?

  • A. Multiphasic with early diastolic flow reversal
  • B. Rapid systolic upstroke with continuous forward diastolic flow
  • C. Delayed upstroke with a rounded, damped systolic peak
  • D. Absent diastolic flow
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Rapid systolic upstroke with continuous forward diastolic flow

The kidney is a low-resistance bed, so intrarenal arteries normally show a brisk upstroke and continuous forward diastolic flow. A is a high-resistance peripheral pattern. C (tardus-parvus) suggests upstream renal artery stenosis. D indicates abnormally high resistance, which is not the expected normal intrarenal pattern.

Review topic: Normal renal waveform
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-08

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Question 9

A preliminary worksheet notes "thrombus in the superficial femoral vein." How should this finding be classified?

Terms: DVT = deep vein thrombosis.

  • A. Superficial thrombophlebitis not involving the deep system
  • B. Great saphenous vein thrombosis
  • C. Perforator vein thrombosis
  • D. Deep vein thrombosis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Deep vein thrombosis

"Superficial femoral vein" is a misleading older name for the femoral vein, which is a deep vein. Thrombus there is DVT. Professional guidance recommends saying "femoral vein" precisely because the old term has led clinicians to treat DVT as a superficial clot.

Review topic: Femoral vein naming
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-09

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Question 10

The small saphenous vein most commonly terminates in which vein?

  • A. Popliteal vein
  • B. Great saphenous vein at the saphenofemoral junction
  • C. Posterior tibial vein
  • D. Common femoral vein
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Popliteal vein

The small saphenous vein most often joins the popliteal vein at the saphenopopliteal junction, though its termination varies and can be higher. The great saphenous vein, not the small saphenous, joins the common femoral vein at the saphenofemoral junction. The posterior tibial veins are paired deep calf veins.

Review topic: Saphenous anatomy
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-10

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Question 11

Which upper-extremity vein belongs to the superficial venous system?

  • A. Brachial vein
  • B. Axillary vein
  • C. Cephalic vein
  • D. Radial vein
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Cephalic vein

The cephalic and basilic veins are superficial. The radial, ulnar, and brachial veins are paired deep veins that travel with their arteries, and the axillary vein is a deep vein that continues from the brachial vein after the basilic vein joins.

Review topic: Upper-extremity venous anatomy
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-11

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Question 12

At approximately what vertebral level does the abdominal aorta normally bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?

  • A. T12
  • B. L1
  • C. L4
  • D. S1
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. L4

The aorta usually divides at about L4. It passes through the diaphragm at about T12, and the renal arteries arise near L1–L2. S1 is too low.

Review topic: Aortic landmarks
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-12

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Question 13

During preoperative vein mapping for dialysis access, why is a tourniquet placed on the upper arm?

  • A. To stop arterial inflow so the arteries can be skipped
  • B. To measure brachial blood pressure
  • C. To provoke reflux for venous insufficiency testing
  • D. To distend the superficial veins so their diameter and continuity can be assessed
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. To distend the superficial veins so their diameter and continuity can be assessed

A proximal tourniquet distends the superficial veins so you can measure their diameter and trace their continuity — features that help determine whether a vein can be used for a fistula. The arteries are evaluated during mapping too, not skipped. Reflux testing belongs to venous insufficiency exams.

Review topic: Dialysis vein mapping
Domain: Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-13

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Question 14

A patient with severe anemia has elevated velocities throughout both carotid systems. Which additional parameter can help account for this systemic elevation when grading ICA stenosis?

Terms: PSV = peak systolic velocity; CCA = common carotid artery; ECA = external carotid artery.

  • A. ICA peak systolic velocity alone
  • B. ICA/CCA peak systolic velocity ratio
  • C. External carotid artery PSV
  • D. Vertebral artery flow direction
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. ICA/CCA peak systolic velocity ratio

The ICA/CCA ratio compares the ICA with the same patient's CCA and can help when systemic hemodynamics elevate absolute velocities. It must be interpreted with plaque, lumen appearance, and the other Doppler findings; contralateral or tandem disease can still complicate grading. ICA PSV alone can overestimate stenosis here. ECA velocity and vertebral direction don't grade ICA stenosis.

Review topic: ICA/CCA ratio
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-14

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Question 15

Color Doppler shows a markedly narrowed, string-like ICA lumen with a trickle of flow. PSV in the narrowed segment is only 45 cm/s. What is the best interpretation?

  • A. Less than 50% stenosis, because the PSV is below 180 cm/s
  • B. Normal flow with an artifact
  • C. Total occlusion
  • D. Near occlusion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Near occlusion

In near occlusion, velocities can be high, low, or undetectable, so a low PSV doesn't mean mild disease. The markedly narrowed lumen and residual flow support near occlusion. Total occlusion requires confirmation of absent flow with optimized Doppler settings and supportive lumen findings; an insensitive Doppler setting alone can miss slow flow. That's why the current IAC carotid criteria list near occlusion as its own category instead of grading it by velocity.

Review topic: Near occlusion
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-15

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Question 16

The right internal carotid artery is occluded. Which change is most likely in the right common carotid artery waveform?

  • A. Higher resistance, with diminished diastolic flow
  • B. Increased diastolic flow with a low-resistance pattern
  • C. Reversed flow throughout the cardiac cycle
  • D. Tardus-parvus with a prolonged acceleration time
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Higher resistance, with diminished diastolic flow

With the low-resistance ICA outflow gone, CCA flow goes mainly to the high-resistance ECA, so the CCA waveform becomes higher resistance with reduced (sometimes absent or reversed) diastolic flow. B is the opposite. A delayed CCA upstroke instead suggests a proximal inflow lesion. Reversal throughout the cycle is not the characteristic response described here.

Review topic: ICA occlusion effects
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-16

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Question 17

In an adult seven days after a subarachnoid hemorrhage, TCD shows a right MCA mean velocity of 150 cm/s. The right extracranial ICA mean velocity is 40 cm/s. What are the Lindegaard ratio and the most likely interpretation?

Terms: TCD = transcranial Doppler ultrasound.

  • A. 0.27; hyperemia
  • B. 3.75; hyperemia
  • C. 3.75; vasospasm
  • D. 110; vasospasm
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. 3.75; vasospasm

Lindegaard ratio = MCA mean ÷ ipsilateral extracranial ICA mean = 150 ÷ 40 = 3.75. A ratio above 3 together with this elevated MCA mean velocity supports vasospasm. An elevated MCA velocity with a ratio below 3 suggests hyperemia — more flow overall, not narrowing. A inverts the ratio; D subtracts instead of dividing.

Review topic: Lindegaard ratio
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-17

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Question 18

What is the primary sonographic criterion for DVT in a previously normal femoral or popliteal vein?

  • A. Absent color filling
  • B. Visible echogenic material in the lumen
  • C. Incomplete compressibility of the vein under transducer pressure in the transverse plane
  • D. Loss of respiratory phasicity
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Incomplete compressibility of the vein under transducer pressure in the transverse plane

Noncompressibility in transverse is the primary criterion. Very fresh thrombus can be almost anechoic, so the absence of visible echoes doesn't exclude DVT. Absent color can come from slow flow or settings. Loss of phasicity suggests obstruction elsewhere, usually more central, rather than proving local thrombus. Noncompressibility alone does not establish the age of thrombus.

Review topic: DVT primary criterion
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-18

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Question 19

Which finding favors acute thrombosis rather than chronic postthrombotic change in a leg vein?

  • A. A distended, incompletely compressible vein with soft, deformable intraluminal material
  • B. A contracted, small vein with bright echogenic material
  • C. Thickened, irregular vein walls with nearby collaterals
  • D. Partial recanalization with several small flow channels
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A distended, incompletely compressible vein with soft, deformable intraluminal material

Acute thrombus typically distends the vein and may deform under transducer pressure. B, C, and D favor chronic postthrombotic change: a contracted vein, wall-adherent material, wall thickening, collaterals, and recanalized channels. These appearances favor a category; echogenicity alone cannot reliably date thrombus. Clinical history and prior imaging matter, and conflicting findings may need an indeterminate classification.

Review topic: Acute vs chronic thrombus
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-19

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Question 20

The right common femoral vein shows continuous flow that doesn't vary with respiration. The left common femoral vein is phasic and augments normally. Where is the most likely obstruction?

Terms: CFV = common femoral vein.

  • A. Right popliteal vein
  • B. Right iliac vein
  • C. Infrarenal IVC
  • D. Left femoral vein
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Right iliac vein

Continuous, nonphasic CFV flow can suggest obstruction central to that vein. With a normal left-sided waveform under comparable respiratory and positioning conditions, the right iliac veins are the best fit among these choices. An IVC obstruction would usually affect both sides. A popliteal thrombus is distal to the sampled CFV and does not best explain this unilateral loss of phasicity. This is why both CFVs should be compared.

Review topic: Unilateral central venous obstruction
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-20

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Question 21

A young woman has left leg swelling and left iliofemoral DVT. In May-Thurner syndrome, which structure compresses the left common iliac vein?

  • A. Left common iliac artery
  • B. Inguinal ligament
  • C. Left renal vein
  • D. Right common iliac artery
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Right common iliac artery

In May-Thurner (iliac vein compression) syndrome, the right common iliac artery crosses over and compresses the left common iliac vein against the lumbar spine. The left renal vein is the compressed structure in nutcracker syndrome, not a compressor here.

Review topic: May-Thurner
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-21

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Question 22

Under the SVS/AVF/AVLS varicose vein guidelines, which finding defines a pathologic perforator in a patient with varicose veins (CEAP class C2)?

  • A. Any perforator visible on duplex
  • B. Outward flow lasting more than 500 ms and a diameter more than 3.5 mm
  • C. Inward flow from the superficial to the deep system
  • D. Diameter of at least 1 mm with any outward flow
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Outward flow lasting more than 500 ms and a diameter more than 3.5 mm

For CEAP C2, the definition includes outward (deep-to-superficial) flow of more than 500 ms and a diameter of more than 3.5 mm. An ulcer is not required for this C2 definition. Inward flow is the normal direction for leg perforators. The guideline defines reflux as more than 500 ms in superficial truncal veins and more than 1 second in the common femoral, femoral, and popliteal veins; the perforator diameter criterion should not be applied to every refluxing vein.

Review topic: Pathologic perforator
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-22

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Question 23

A competitive swimmer with no central venous catheter has sudden swelling and heaviness of the dominant arm after training. Duplex shows thrombus in the subclavian and axillary veins. What is this presentation usually called?

  • A. Paget-Schroetter syndrome (effort thrombosis)
  • B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
  • C. Arterial thoracic outlet syndrome
  • D. Catheter-related thrombosis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Paget-Schroetter syndrome (effort thrombosis)

Effort thrombosis is subclavian-axillary vein thrombosis linked to repetitive overhead activity and compression at the thoracic outlet. Those veins are deep, so this isn't superficial thrombophlebitis. Arterial TOS involves the subclavian artery, and there's no catheter in this history.

Review topic: Effort thrombosis
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-23

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Question 24

Duplex of a native femoral artery shows a PSV of 90 cm/s in a normal segment just proximal to a focal lesion and 260 cm/s at the lesion. What does the velocity ratio suggest?

Terms: Native artery means the artery without a bypass graft or stent in the measured segment.

  • A. Ratio 0.35; no significant stenosis
  • B. Ratio 1.4; less than 50% stenosis
  • C. Ratio 2.9; at least 50% diameter stenosis
  • D. Ratio 2.9; complete occlusion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Ratio 2.9; at least 50% diameter stenosis

Velocity ratio = 260 ÷ 90 ≈ 2.9. In the native peripheral-artery criteria summarized by the SVM/SVU consensus, a ratio above 2 supports at least 50% diameter stenosis. Apply the laboratory's criteria for the artery and clinical setting rather than treating this as a universal graft or stent threshold. An occlusion would have no flow to measure.

Review topic: Peripheral velocity ratio
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-24

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Question 25

At rest, the common femoral artery waveform is multiphasic, but the popliteal artery waveform on the same side is monophasic with a delayed upstroke. Where is the significant disease most likely?

Terms: CFA = common femoral artery.

  • A. Aortoiliac segment
  • B. Tibial arteries only
  • C. Ipsilateral common iliac vein
  • D. Femoropopliteal segment (between the CFA and popliteal artery)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Femoropopliteal segment (between the CFA and popliteal artery)

A delayed upstroke suggests flow-limiting disease upstream of the recording site. A preserved CFA waveform makes disease between the groin and the knee the best fit among these choices, but does not by itself rule out all inflow disease. The superficial femoral artery remains a current arterial name. Tibial-only disease does not best explain the delayed popliteal upstroke.

Review topic: Locating arterial disease by waveform
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-25

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Question 26

At rest, both common femoral arteries show monophasic waveforms with a delayed systolic upstroke. Where is the significant disease most likely?

  • A. Both femoropopliteal segments only
  • B. Tibial arteries only
  • C. Aortoiliac (inflow) segment
  • D. No disease — this is a normal resting pattern
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Aortoiliac (inflow) segment

Damped, tardus-parvus waveforms at the groin suggest obstruction upstream of the CFA; when both sides look this way, think distal aorta or both iliac systems. Disease confined below the groin is a poorer fit for the delayed CFA upstrokes. The delayed upstroke is the important clue; phasicity alone is not a diagnosis.

Review topic: Aortoiliac inflow disease
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-26

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Question 27

A 32-year-old woman with hypertension has elevated velocities and turbulence in the mid-to-distal main renal artery; the ostium looks normal. What is the most likely cause?

  • A. Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis
  • B. Fibromuscular dysplasia
  • C. Nutcracker syndrome
  • D. Renal vein thrombosis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Fibromuscular dysplasia

Fibromuscular dysplasia predominantly affects women. Its multifocal form usually involves the middle and distal renal artery and can have a "string of beads" appearance on angiography; it typically spares the ostium. Atherosclerotic stenosis typically sits at the ostium and proximal segment in older patients. Nutcracker syndrome and renal vein thrombosis are venous problems.

Review topic: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-27

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Question 28

On mesenteric duplex, celiac artery PSV is markedly elevated in expiration and returns toward normal with deep inspiration. What does this suggest?

Terms: SMA = superior mesenteric artery.

  • A. Median arcuate ligament compression
  • B. Fixed atherosclerotic celiac stenosis
  • C. Superior mesenteric artery occlusion
  • D. A normal postprandial response
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Median arcuate ligament compression

The median arcuate ligament compresses the celiac axis during expiration, so velocity rises in expiration and falls toward normal on deep inspiration. A fixed atherosclerotic stenosis is less likely to improve markedly with inspiration. The pattern says nothing about the SMA, and this change follows respiration rather than a meal. Imaging evidence of compression alone does not establish symptomatic median arcuate ligament syndrome.

Review topic: Median arcuate ligament
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-28

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Question 29

In a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma, the main portal vein is expanded by echogenic material that contains pulsatile, arterial-type flow on spectral Doppler. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Bland portal vein thrombus
  • B. Normal portal vein with slow flow
  • C. Hepatofugal portal flow
  • D. Tumor thrombus
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Tumor thrombus

Arterial (pulsatile) flow inside portal vein thrombus reflects tumor neovascularity and is characteristic of tumor thrombus; expansion of the vein supports it. Bland thrombus generally lacks this internal arterial signal. Its absence does not exclude tumor thrombus. Normal slow flow does not explain vascularized intraluminal material, and hepatofugal flow describes direction rather than the nature of that material.

Review topic: Portal vein tumor thrombus
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-29

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Question 30

A patient's radial artery waveform and digit PPG tracing are normal with the arm at the side but flatten markedly when the arm is abducted and externally rotated. What does this suggest?

Terms: PPG = photoplethysmography, an optical recording of changes in blood volume.

  • A. Raynaud phenomenon
  • B. Positional compression of the subclavian artery at the thoracic outlet
  • C. Fixed distal radial artery occlusion
  • D. Subclavian vein thrombosis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Positional compression of the subclavian artery at the thoracic outlet

Loss of distal arterial signal only in provocative arm positions points to dynamic arterial compression at the thoracic outlet. Similar signal changes can occur in healthy people, so provocative Doppler findings alone do not diagnose clinical arterial thoracic outlet syndrome. Raynaud is triggered by cold or emotion, not position. A fixed occlusion would be abnormal at rest. Subclavian vein thrombosis does not best explain arterial signals that normalize when the arm returns to rest.

Review topic: Arterial thoracic outlet
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-30

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Question 31

A patient with abdominal pain and ascites has hepatic veins that contain echogenic material with no detectable flow, and intrahepatic collateral veins are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Portal vein thrombosis
  • B. Right heart failure
  • C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • D. Normal hepatic veins with slow flow
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Budd-Chiari syndrome

Budd-Chiari syndrome is obstruction of hepatic venous outflow: thrombosed or absent hepatic vein flow and intrahepatic ("spiderweb") collaterals, often with pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly. Right heart failure distends the hepatic veins and increases pulsatility rather than abolishing flow. The portal vein isn't the vessel described.

Review topic: Budd-Chiari
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-31

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Question 32

After femoral catheterization, duplex shows high-velocity, low-resistance flow through a channel from the femoral artery into the femoral vein, pulsatile arterialized flow in the vein, and a color "bruit" in the surrounding tissue. What is this?

  • A. Arteriovenous fistula
  • B. Pseudoaneurysm
  • C. Hematoma
  • D. Acute DVT
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Arteriovenous fistula

An iatrogenic AV fistula shunts arterial blood straight into a vein: a high-velocity jet, arterialized venous flow, and tissue vibration shown as a color bruit. A pseudoaneurysm has a sac with swirling "yin-yang" flow and to-and-fro flow in its neck. A hematoma has no internal flow. DVT is a venous clot, not a direct artery-to-vein channel.

Review topic: Post-catheter AV fistula
Domain: Pathology, Perfusion, and Function
Question ID: RVT-PT-32

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Question 33

On a dialysis-access duplex of the fistula shown, which labeled region is the inflow artery?

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): a radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula in the forearm.

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): a radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula in the forearm.

Read diagram description

The radial artery runs left to right, from the elbow side to the hand side. A vein leaves the top of the artery near the right and runs up and then left toward the elbow. A: the point where the vein meets the artery. B: the vein, on the elbow side. C: the artery beyond the junction, toward the hand. D: the artery on the elbow side of the junction, where an arrow shows flow moving toward the junction. An arrow in the vein shows flow moving toward the elbow.

Terms: An anastomosis is a connection between vessels; inflow brings blood into the access and outflow carries it away.

  • A. Region A
  • B. Region B
  • C. Region C
  • D. Region D
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Region D

The inflow (feeding) artery is the artery upstream of the anastomosis. In this radiocephalic fistula, that's the radial segment on the elbow side of the connection — D, where the arrow shows flow heading into the junction. A is the arteriovenous anastomosis itself, B is the outflow (draining) cephalic vein, and C is the radial artery continuing toward the hand past the anastomosis. A complete access duplex looks at all three parts: inflow artery, anastomosis, and outflow vein.

Review topic: AV access anatomy
Domain: Surgically Altered Anatomy and Pathology
Question ID: RVT-PT-33

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Question 34

Surveillance of an infrainguinal vein bypass graft shows a focal stenosis with a PSV of 350 cm/s and a velocity ratio of 3.8 compared with a nearby nonstenotic proximal graft segment. How is this usually classified?

  • A. Normal post-surgical finding
  • B. High-risk stenosis that warrants consideration of intervention
  • C. Graft occlusion
  • D. Arteriovenous fistula at the anastomosis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. High-risk stenosis that warrants consideration of intervention

A PSV above 300 cm/s with a velocity ratio above 3.5 identifies a high-risk graft stenosis linked to graft failure. Measurable flow excludes complete occlusion at the sampled site, and nothing here describes arterialized venous flow.

Review topic: Vein graft surveillance
Domain: Surgically Altered Anatomy and Pathology
Question ID: RVT-PT-34

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Question 35

Why shouldn't native-artery velocity criteria be applied directly to a carotid artery after stenting?

  • A. Stented segments tend to show higher velocities than native arteries with the same narrowing, so native criteria overestimate stenosis
  • B. Stents can't be imaged with ultrasound
  • C. Stented arteries always have reversed flow
  • D. Velocities inside stents are always below 50 cm/s
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Stented segments tend to show higher velocities than native arteries with the same narrowing, so native criteria overestimate stenosis

A stent makes the artery stiffer and less compliant, so velocities run higher than in a native artery with the same degree of narrowing. Native criteria therefore overestimate in-stent stenosis, and modified, stent-specific thresholds are used. Stents are well seen on ultrasound; stenting does not inherently reverse flow or keep velocities below 50 cm/s.

Review topic: Carotid stent velocities
Domain: Surgically Altered Anatomy and Pathology
Question ID: RVT-PT-35

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Question 36

After a liver transplant, the intrahepatic hepatic artery shows a tardus-parvus waveform with a resistive index of 0.45 and an acceleration time of 0.12 seconds. What should be suspected?

Terms: RI = resistive index.

  • A. A normal post-transplant hepatic artery
  • B. Hepatic vein thrombosis
  • C. Hepatic artery stenosis upstream of the sampled site
  • D. Portal vein hyperemia
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Hepatic artery stenosis upstream of the sampled site

A tardus-parvus waveform — RI below 0.5 with an acceleration time above 0.08 s — downstream of the anastomosis suggests upstream hepatic artery stenosis. It is a reason for further evaluation, not a diagnosis by itself; this waveform can give false-positive results. A normal hepatic artery has a brisk upstroke. The hepatic and portal veins aren't the vessel sampled.

Review topic: Liver transplant hepatic artery
Domain: Surgically Altered Anatomy and Pathology
Question ID: RVT-PT-36

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Question 37

Systolic pressures: right brachial 150 mmHg, left brachial 136 mmHg; right posterior tibial 108 mmHg, right dorsalis pedis 96 mmHg. What is the right ABI, and how is it classified?

Terms: ABI = ankle-brachial index; PAD = peripheral artery disease.

  • A. 0.64; abnormal
  • B. 0.79; abnormal
  • C. 0.72; abnormal
  • D. 1.39; noncompressible
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. 0.72; abnormal

ABI = the higher ankle pressure in that leg ÷ the higher of the two brachial pressures = 108 ÷ 150 = 0.72. An ABI of 0.90 or less is abnormal and consistent with PAD. A used the lower ankle pressure (96 ÷ 150); B used the lower arm pressure (108 ÷ 136); D inverted the fraction.

Review topic: ABI calculation
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-37

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Question 38

A patient's resting ABI is 0.95. How is this classified under the current ACC/AHA multisociety PAD guideline?

  • A. Normal
  • B. Abnormal, consistent with PAD
  • C. Noncompressible
  • D. Borderline
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Borderline

The categories are: 0.90 or less abnormal, 0.91–0.99 borderline, 1.00–1.40 normal, and above 1.40 noncompressible. In a patient with exertional leg symptoms, a borderline result is a reason for further testing such as an exercise ABI.

Review topic: ABI categories
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-38

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Question 39

A patient has calf pain with walking, but the resting ABI is 0.98. Which test best evaluates for PAD?

  • A. Exercise treadmill ABI, looking for a drop in ankle pressure after exercise
  • B. Venous duplex of the calf
  • C. Repeat the resting ABI in six months
  • D. Carotid duplex
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Exercise treadmill ABI, looking for a drop in ankle pressure after exercise

When symptoms suggest claudication but the resting ABI is normal or borderline, guidelines recommend an exercise treadmill ABI to unmask PAD. Venous and carotid duplex examine different vascular problems, and simply waiting to repeat the resting ABI does not evaluate the current exertional symptoms.

Review topic: Exercise ABI
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-39

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Question 40

In segmental limb pressure testing, what pressure drop between adjacent levels in the same leg generally suggests significant intervening arterial disease?

  • A. 5 mmHg or more
  • B. 20 mmHg or more
  • C. 50 mmHg or more
  • D. Any difference at all
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. 20 mmHg or more

A drop of 20 mmHg or more between adjacent cuff levels in the same leg generally suggests significant disease between those levels. Interpret segmental pressures with the waveforms and the rest of the examination; a smaller difference alone does not exclude disease.

Review topic: Segmental pressures
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-40

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Question 41

A blood pressure cuff whose bladder is too narrow for the limb tends to produce what error?

  • A. No error; cuff size affects only comfort
  • B. Falsely low pressure
  • C. A falsely low ABI in every case
  • D. Falsely high pressure
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Falsely high pressure

A cuff that's too small needs more pressure to compress the artery, so it artificially elevates the reading; a cuff that's too large gives an artificially low reading. That's why cuff size must match limb size at every level you measure.

Review topic: Cuff size error
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-41

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Question 42

In venous photoplethysmography (PPG), what does venous refill time measure?

  • A. The time for skin blood volume to return to baseline after calf-muscle exercise empties the veins
  • B. The time for an arterial pulse to travel from the heart to the ankle
  • C. The duration of femoral vein reflux after a Valsalva maneuver
  • D. The time needed to compress a vein fully with the transducer
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The time for skin blood volume to return to baseline after calf-muscle exercise empties the veins

After repeated calf contractions empty the leg veins, the PPG sensor tracks how long skin blood volume takes to return to baseline. Normally the veins refill slowly from arterial inflow (roughly 20 seconds or more); reflux refills them backward and shortens the time. B is pulse transit time, C is duplex reflux timing, and D isn't a measurement.

Review topic: Venous PPG refill
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-42

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Question 43

Which sensor is typically used to detect pulse return when measuring a toe pressure?

  • A. Continuous-wave Doppler at the posterior tibial artery
  • B. A strain gauge at the thigh
  • C. A photoplethysmography (PPG) sensor on the toe tip
  • D. Pulsed-wave duplex of the popliteal artery
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. A photoplethysmography (PPG) sensor on the toe tip

Toe pressures use a small digit cuff with a PPG sensor on the toe tip, which detects pulsatile changes in skin blood volume as the cuff deflates. The other options don't measure pressure at the digit.

Review topic: Toe pressure sensor
Domain: Physiologic Exams
Question ID: RVT-PT-43

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Question 44

While assisting the proceduralist with ultrasound-guided thrombin injection of the femoral pseudoaneurysm shown, which labeled point is the appropriate needle-tip target?

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): a femoral pseudoaneurysm with four candidate needle-tip points.

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): a femoral pseudoaneurysm with four candidate needle-tip points.

Read diagram description

Skin is at the top. A rounded pseudoaneurysm sac sits above the common femoral artery and connects to it through a narrow neck. The common femoral vein runs below the artery. A: inside the narrow neck. B: inside the sac, near its top edge and far from the neck. C: inside the common femoral artery. D: inside the common femoral vein.

  • A. Point A
  • B. Point B
  • C. Point C
  • D. Point D
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Point B

B is inside the sac and away from the neck. Keeping the tip away from the neck reduces the risk of thrombin entering the native artery through the neck (A) and causing distal thrombosis; it does not eliminate that risk. The artery (C) and the vein (D) are not injection targets for this procedure.

Review topic: Thrombin injection target
Domain: Ultrasound-guided Procedures/Intraoperative Assessment
Question ID: RVT-PT-44

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Question 45

During ultrasound-guided compression repair of a femoral pseudoaneurysm, what is the goal of transducer pressure?

  • A. Compress the common femoral vein to prevent embolism
  • B. Stop all flow in the femoral artery for 30 minutes
  • C. Compress nearby lymph nodes
  • D. Stop flow into the pseudoaneurysm at the neck while keeping flow in the native artery
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Stop flow into the pseudoaneurysm at the neck while keeping flow in the native artery

Pressure over the neck stops flow into the sac so it can thrombose, while flow in the femoral artery is maintained. Occluding the native artery would risk limb ischemia.

Review topic: Compression repair
Domain: Ultrasound-guided Procedures/Intraoperative Assessment
Question ID: RVT-PT-45

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Question 46

Before a planned great saphenous vein ablation, the proceduralist asks you to identify the saphenofemoral junction. Which labeled position marks that junction?

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): superficial and deep venous anatomy near the groin.

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): superficial and deep venous anatomy near the groin.

Read diagram description

The common femoral vein runs vertically on the left, head toward the top. The great saphenous vein runs down the leg on the right and curves up to meet the common femoral vein. A: in the great saphenous vein below the meeting point. B: inside the common femoral vein. C: at the point where the great saphenous vein meets the common femoral vein. D: far down the great saphenous vein at knee level.

  • A. Position A
  • B. Position B
  • C. Position C
  • D. Position D
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Position C

C marks the connection between the great saphenous vein and the common femoral vein: the saphenofemoral junction. Identifying this superficial-to-deep connection is part of mapping the anatomy before treatment. B is within the common femoral vein; A and D are along the great saphenous vein.

Review topic: Pre-ablation junction anatomy
Domain: Ultrasound-guided Procedures/Intraoperative Assessment
Question ID: RVT-PT-46

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Question 47

A patient develops new leg pain and swelling after thermal ablation of the great saphenous vein. Why is an early duplex examination indicated?

  • A. To measure the vein for future grafting
  • B. To confirm the great saphenous vein has reopened
  • C. To assess for ablation-related thrombus extension (ARTE) or deep vein thrombosis
  • D. To measure the ABI
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. To assess for ablation-related thrombus extension (ARTE) or deep vein thrombosis

New symptoms after thermal ablation warrant early duplex to assess for ablation-related thrombus extension (ARTE) or deep vein thrombosis. ARTE includes the complication previously called endovenous heat-induced thrombosis (EHIT). The 2023 multisociety guideline recommends early duplex in symptomatic patients and advises it for high-risk patients; it recommends against routine early duplex solely to look for ARTE or DVT in average-risk, asymptomatic patients after thermal ablation. Vein graft measurement, confirming reopening, and an ABI do not address the suspected venous complication.

Review topic: Symptomatic post-ablation assessment
Domain: Ultrasound-guided Procedures/Intraoperative Assessment
Question ID: RVT-PT-47

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Question 48

An ICA spectral waveform looks high resistance with no diastolic flow, but color Doppler shows flow throughout the cycle. Which setting is most likely responsible?

  • A. Velocity scale set too low
  • B. Sample volume in the center of the vessel
  • C. A Doppler angle of 50 degrees
  • D. Wall filter set too high
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Wall filter set too high

A high wall filter strips out low-velocity signals near the baseline and can erase genuine diastolic flow, making a low-resistance vessel look high resistance. A too-low scale causes aliasing, not lost diastole. Center placement and a 50-degree angle are correct technique.

Review topic: Wall filter artifact
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-48

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Question 49

Each panel shows the same vessel, flow direction, Doppler beam, and sample gate; only the angle-correction cursor changes. In which panel is the cursor aligned correctly for a velocity measurement?

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): four placements of the angle-correction cursor.

Schematic (original, not a sonogram): four placements of the angle-correction cursor.

Read diagram description

All four panels show the same straight horizontal vessel with flow from left to right, the same Doppler beam entering from above at 60 degrees to the flow, and a sample gate in the center of the vessel. Only the solid cursor line changes. A: the cursor lies parallel to the vessel walls and the flow. B: the cursor lies along the Doppler beam. C: the cursor is perpendicular to the flow. D: the cursor is tilted 30 degrees from the flow direction.

  • A. Panel A
  • B. Panel B
  • C. Panel C
  • D. Panel D
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Panel A

The angle-correction cursor belongs parallel to the direction of flow — here, parallel to the vessel walls — so the system uses the true angle between the beam and the flow (60° in every panel). B lines the cursor up with the beam, C sets it perpendicular to the flow, and D tilts it 30° off the flow. Each makes the machine calculate velocity with the wrong angle. Keep the beam-to-flow angle at 60° or less, because velocity errors grow quickly at larger angles.

Review topic: Angle-correction cursor
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-49

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Question 50

An artery has a PSV of 90 cm/s, an end-diastolic velocity of 15 cm/s, and a time-averaged maximum velocity (TAMX) of 40 cm/s, measured from the spectral envelope over a cardiac cycle. What is the pulsatility index (Gosling)?

Terms: EDV = end-diastolic velocity; TAMX = time-averaged maximum velocity.

  • A. 0.83
  • B. 1.88
  • C. 2.25
  • D. 6.00
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. 1.88

PI = (PSV − EDV) ÷ TAMX = (90 − 15) ÷ 40 = 1.875 ≈ 1.88. TAMX is the maximum-velocity envelope averaged over the cardiac cycle, not the intensity-weighted mean velocity. A is the resistive index, (90 − 15) ÷ 90. C divides PSV by TAMX; D divides PSV by EDV.

Review topic: Pulsatility index
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-50

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Question 51

How is acceleration time measured on a spectral waveform?

  • A. From peak systole to end diastole
  • B. From the ECG R wave to the dicrotic notch
  • C. From the onset of systole to the first (early) systolic peak
  • D. From end diastole of one cycle to end diastole of the next
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. From the onset of systole to the first (early) systolic peak

Acceleration time runs from the start of the systolic upstroke to the early systolic peak. A prolonged acceleration time — a slow upstroke — suggests obstruction upstream of where you're sampling.

Review topic: Acceleration time
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-51

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Question 52

While you scan the subclavian artery, a duplicate copy of the artery, with color flow, appears deep to the pleura. What artifact is this?

  • A. Reverberation
  • B. Mirror image
  • C. Refraction (edge shadowing)
  • D. Aliasing
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Mirror image

The pleura–lung interface is a strong reflector that can produce a mirror-image duplicate of the subclavian artery, including its Doppler signal. Reverberation creates evenly spaced repeated lines; refraction creates edge shadows; aliasing is a Doppler wraparound.

Review topic: Mirror-image artifact
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-52

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Question 53

A lab compares 100 arterial duplex studies with angiography. Angiography shows significant stenosis in 50; duplex correctly identified 45 of them. Of the 50 without stenosis, duplex called 4 positive. What is the duplex sensitivity?

  • A. 90%
  • B. 92%
  • C. 91.8%
  • D. 91%
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. 90%

Sensitivity = true positives ÷ everyone with disease = 45 ÷ 50 = 90%. B is specificity (46 ÷ 50), C is positive predictive value (45 ÷ 49), and D is overall accuracy (91 ÷ 100). Correlation studies like this are how a lab checks its own criteria.

Review topic: Sensitivity and specificity
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-53

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Question 54

During a lower-extremity arterial exam, the patient becomes short of breath and sweaty and reports chest pain. What should you do first?

  • A. Finish the remaining images quickly
  • B. Note the symptoms on the worksheet and continue
  • C. Have the patient rest, then resume in a few minutes
  • D. Stop the exam and get immediate help using the facility's emergency protocol
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Stop the exam and get immediate help using the facility's emergency protocol

Possible acute cardiac or respiratory distress takes priority over the images. The sonographer monitors the patient's condition and activates the emergency protocol when needed.

Review topic: Patient monitoring
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-54

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Question 55

A requisition for a lower-extremity venous duplex lists "calf pain with walking, relieved by rest." What is the most appropriate action?

  • A. Perform the venous duplex as ordered without comment
  • B. Contact the ordering provider or supervising physician to confirm the appropriate exam
  • C. Perform an arterial exam instead without telling anyone
  • D. Cancel the exam
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Contact the ordering provider or supervising physician to confirm the appropriate exam

Exertional calf pain relieved by rest suggests arterial claudication. When the order doesn't fit the history, the sonographer clarifies it through facility policy with the supervising physician or referring provider — not by silently changing or cancelling it.

Review topic: Order appropriateness
Domain: Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles
Question ID: RVT-PT-55

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Question 56

Which vascular exam most commonly calls for the patient to fast beforehand?

  • A. Mesenteric artery duplex
  • B. Carotid duplex
  • C. Upper-extremity venous duplex
  • D. Ankle-brachial index
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Mesenteric artery duplex

Mesenteric duplex is done after fasting (commonly 6 hours or more) to reduce bowel gas and to remove the effect of digestion, which increases mesenteric flow. Carotid, upper-extremity venous, and ABI exams need no fasting.

Review topic: Patient preparation
Domain: Preparation, Documentation, and Communication
Question ID: RVT-PT-56

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Question 57

Before starting an exam, how should you confirm the patient's identity?

  • A. Ask, "Are you Mr. Smith?"
  • B. Check the room number
  • C. Rely on transport staff's confirmation
  • D. Use at least two patient identifiers, such as full name and date of birth
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Use at least two patient identifiers, such as full name and date of birth

At least two person-specific identifiers, such as full name and date of birth, are the patient-safety standard, and a room number never counts as one. A yes/no question invites a wrong "yes," and someone else's confirmation doesn't replace your own check.

Review topic: Patient identification
Domain: Preparation, Documentation, and Communication
Question ID: RVT-PT-57

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Question 58

A clinically stable patient with heart failure has chronic orthopnea: lying flat causes breathlessness that resolves when the head is raised. For a lower-extremity venous duplex, what is the best positioning adaptation?

  • A. Cancel the exam
  • B. Insist on the supine position to follow protocol
  • C. Raise the head of the bed or use reverse Trendelenburg, and document the position used
  • D. Scan only the calf veins
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Raise the head of the bed or use reverse Trendelenburg, and document the position used

Raising the head of the bed or using reverse Trendelenburg can improve tolerance in this stable patient. Reverse Trendelenburg also improves leg-vein distention for compression. Document the adaptation so the study can be interpreted and repeated. The exam should not be abandoned or narrowed solely because the patient cannot lie flat.

Review topic: Adapting the exam
Domain: Preparation, Documentation, and Communication
Question ID: RVT-PT-58

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Question 59

During a venous duplex, the patient asks, "Do I have a blood clot?" What is the best response?

  • A. Tell the patient the diagnosis
  • B. Explain that the interpreting physician will review the images and the results will come through the ordering provider, following facility policy
  • C. Refuse to talk with the patient
  • D. Tell the patient everything looks fine
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Explain that the interpreting physician will review the images and the results will come through the ordering provider, following facility policy

The sonographer refers specific diagnostic questions to the appropriate physician or healthcare provider and communicates results to the patient only as authorized by facility policy. A respectful explanation of the process avoids giving an unauthorized diagnosis, ignoring the patient, or falsely reassuring them.

Review topic: Patient questions and scope
Domain: Preparation, Documentation, and Communication
Question ID: RVT-PT-59

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Question 60

At the end of a carotid duplex, which step belongs to completing the exam?

  • A. Delete images that weren't labeled
  • B. Leave the worksheet for the next shift to finish
  • C. Tell the patient the degree of stenosis
  • D. Confirm the images are archived and document the preliminary findings and any technical limitations
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Confirm the images are archived and document the preliminary findings and any technical limitations

Finishing the exam means making sure the images reached the archive and documenting preliminary findings and limitations for the interpreting physician. Deleting images loses the record, and the diagnosis comes from the interpreting physician.

Review topic: Completing documentation
Domain: Preparation, Documentation, and Communication
Question ID: RVT-PT-60

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Use your result to choose what to review

Give yourself one point for each correct answer you chose before opening its explanation. For a complete-set score, unanswered questions and answers revealed before you chose an option receive zero points.

Practice percentage = correct answers ÷ 60 × 100. For example, 45 correct answers out of 60 is 75%.

Your result describes these 60 questions. It is not an ARDMS scaled score and cannot predict whether you will pass. Use missed and guessed questions to choose what to review next.

Start with two or three questions you missed or guessed. For each one, write down the clue that supports the best answer, why your choice did not fit, and the principle you need to review. Rework calculation questions from the inputs before looking at the formula again.

Find your review area

The set approximately follows the proportions in the official VT Content Outline v24.1, with whole-question rounding. It does not cover every detailed task in that outline. A domain with only four or five questions gives limited feedback, so use the individual explanations to guide your review.

Review area Official exam weight Questions in this set
Normal Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function 21% 1–13 (13 questions)
Pathology, Perfusion, and Function 32% 14–32 (19 questions)
Surgically Altered Anatomy and Pathology 6% 33–36 (4 questions)
Physiologic Exams 12% 37–43 (7 questions)
Ultrasound-guided Procedures/Intraoperative Assessment 7% 44–47 (4 questions)
Quality Assurance, Safety, and Physical Principles 14% 48–55 (8 questions)
Preparation, Documentation, and Communication 8% 56–60 (5 questions)

How this practice set compares with the VT exam

RVT is the credential; VT is the specialty examination. The official RVT pathway requires the applicable prerequisites and the SPI and VT examinations. This page practices vascular technology; the Sonography Principles and Instrumentation (SPI) exam is separate.

Feature This practice set Official VT examination
Length 60 questions Approximately 170 questions
Time Work at your own pace Three hours; the official page separately lists a five-minute survey
Format Single-best-answer questions, including four original schematics with A–D choices Multiple-choice and hotspot questions
Result Number correct and a practice percentage A scaled score; 555 or higher passes on a 300–700 scale

Sources: Official VT examination — “Question format & scoring” and official passing standard.

The diagrams are teaching schematics, not clinical sonograms or a reproduction of the testing interface. An official scaled score cannot be calculated from your percentage on this set. For the testing interface, Pearson’s ARDMS page provides a “Sample testing” tutorial link.

Sources and editorial information

By Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.

Last verified: October 29, 2026. The exam format, scoring, linked VT outline, and the teaching principles cited with these 60 questions were checked against the identified sources. Source links and specific sections appear beside each explanation.

This resource was developed and checked with AI assistance. The checks covered sources, answer consistency, calculations, and editorial clarity; no credentialed clinical review is claimed. Read our methodology for how Castleport distinguishes these checks. These exercises support exam preparation and do not replace clinical training or supervised practice.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher, not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the American Registry for Diagnostic Medical Sonography (ARDMS). The questions and schematics are original, unofficial practice material, not actual ARDMS exam items. Exam and credential names identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners.

Free ARDMS RVT Practice Test: 60 Questions + Answers