Castleport Test Prep

Free CPCE Practice Test: 80 Questions With Explanations

This free CPCE practice test has 80 original, unofficial questions for the Counselor Preparation Comprehensive Examination: 10 in each of the eight content areas, each with three answer choices (A–C) like the current exam. Pick an answer, then check the explanation; no signup.

Practice questions

Question 1

A counselor's religious beliefs conflict with a client's goal of strengthening her same-sex relationship. The counselor is competent to address relationship concerns. What should the counselor do?

Question 1: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 1

Correct answer: B. Continue counseling and seek consultation or supervision to keep personal values out of the work. The 2014 ACA Code bars referring clients based solely on the counselor's personally held values (A.11.b) and requires counselors to avoid imposing their values (A.4.b). Consultation or supervision is how a counselor manages a values conflict while staying in the relationship.

  • Why not A: A values-based referral is exactly what A.11.b prohibits. Explaining the conflict does not make a referral based solely on the counselor's values appropriate.
  • Why not C: Steering the client toward the family's faith imposes values the client didn't bring as a goal.

Concept: Values-based referral vs. value imposition · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-01
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), A.4.b (p. 5), A.11.b (p. 6), and C.2.e (p. 9).

Jump to an area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · Social and Cultural Diversity · Human Growth and Development · Career Development · Counseling and Helping Relationships · Group Counseling and Group Work · Assessment and Testing · Research and Program Evaluation

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Question 2

A counselor reliably returns calls when promised and follows through on every commitment made to clients. Which ACA ethical principle does this behavior reflect?

Question 2: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 2

Correct answer: C. Fidelity. Fidelity means honoring commitments and keeping promises, which is the foundation of trust in the counseling relationship.

  • Why not A: Veracity is truthfulness. It's related, but the scenario is about following through, not telling the truth.
  • Why not B: Beneficence is working for the good of the client and society. Keeping promises serves that, but the specific principle is fidelity.

Concept: Six ethical principles (fidelity) · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-02
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), Preamble, fundamental principles of professional ethical behavior (p. 3).

Question 3

Which type of credential is granted to a counselor education program rather than to an individual counselor?

Question 3: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 3

Correct answer: A. Accreditation. Accreditation (for example, by CACREP) recognizes that a program meets professional standards.

  • Why not B: Licensure is legal permission from a state for an individual to practice.
  • Why not C: Certification, such as the National Certified Counselor (NCC) credential, is a voluntary credential awarded to an individual. NBCC notes that applying for NCC certification is voluntary, unlike state licensure.

Concept: Accreditation vs. licensure vs. certification · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-03
Source: CACREP: About accreditation, Understanding Accreditation; NBCC faculty FAQ, national certification and state licensure.

Question 4

A licensed counselor trained only in adult mental health counseling is asked to provide play therapy to a 5-year-old. What is the most appropriate response?

Question 4: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 4

Correct answer: A. Refer the child, or first obtain appropriate education and supervised experience in play therapy. Counselors practice within the boundaries of their education, training, and supervised experience (C.2.a) and enter a new specialty only after appropriate education, training, and supervised experience (C.2.b).

  • Why not B: Reading alongside live practice isn't the supervised training C.2.b requires.
  • Why not C: A license sets legal scope. Competence is a separate ethical requirement.

Concept: Boundaries of competence · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-04
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), C.2.a and C.2.b (p. 8).

Question 5

When should a counselor explain the limits of confidentiality to a client?

Question 5: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 5

Correct answer: C. At the start of counseling and throughout the process as needed. The 2014 ACA Code (B.1.d) calls for discussing confidentiality's limits at the start of counseling and throughout the process.

  • Why not A: Waiting until a disclosure is underway denies the client an informed choice about what to share.
  • Why not B: Written intake consent matters, but informed consent is an ongoing process, not a one-time form.

Concept: Limits of confidentiality are ongoing · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-05
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), B.1.d (p. 7) and A.2.a (p. 4).

Question 6

An adult client with moderate dementia is brought to counseling by his daughter, who is his legal guardian. The client cannot give legally valid consent. What should the counselor do?

Question 6: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 6

Correct answer: B. Seek the client's assent and include him in decisions as appropriate, alongside the guardian's consent. When clients can't give voluntary consent, counselors seek their assent and include them in decision-making as appropriate (A.2.d), balancing the client's welfare with the guardian's legal rights.

  • Why not A: Guardian consent is necessary, but it doesn't erase the client's role. He is still the client.
  • Why not C: The Code provides consent and assent procedures for clients who cannot consent independently; that inability alone is not a reason to refuse counseling.

Concept: Assent when a client can't consent · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-06
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), A.2.d (p. 4).

Question 7

After a family death, a counselor notices she is struggling to concentrate in sessions and has made errors in documentation. What is the most appropriate response?

Question 7: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 7

Correct answer: A. Seek help and, if necessary, limit or suspend professional responsibilities until she can safely resume. Counselors monitor themselves for impairment, refrain from providing services when impaired, seek assistance, and limit, suspend, or terminate responsibilities if needed until it is safe to resume (C.2.g).

  • Why not B: Self-care helps, but it doesn't address impairment that is already affecting client care.
  • Why not C: That shifts the burden to clients and doesn't protect them from the errors.

Concept: Counselor impairment · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-07
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), C.2.g (p. 9).

Question 8

A counselor is starting video sessions with a client. Beyond the usual informed-consent content, what should the counselor add?

Question 8: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 8

Correct answer: C. Technology-specific issues such as privacy risks, possible technology failure, response times, emergency procedures, and time zone differences. Section H.2.a of the 2014 ACA Code requires counselors who offer distance counseling to address technology-specific issues in addition to standard informed consent.

  • Why not A: Distance counseling carries risks that standard consent doesn't cover.
  • Why not B: Cost is one item, not the substance of technology-specific consent.

Concept: Distance-counseling informed consent · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-08
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), H.2.a (p. 17) and H.2.b–c (p. 18).

Question 9

Which activity is the clearest example of advocating for the counseling profession itself?

Question 9: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 9

Correct answer: B. Meeting with state legislators to support licensure portability for counselors. Professional advocacy promotes the profession itself: recognition, licensure, and access to practice. The CPCE outline lists advocacy for the profession separately from advocacy that removes barriers for clients.

  • Why not A: This is client-level advocacy that removes a barrier for one person.
  • Why not C: This is outreach or prevention. It's valuable, but it isn't advocacy for the profession.

Concept: Professional vs. client advocacy · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-09
Source: CPCE Content Outline (PDF), Area I, topics D and E; ACA Advocacy Task Force: Professional advocacy, Professional advocacy and its importance.

Question 10

Who developed the plans for Boston's Vocation Bureau, established in 1908, and is often called the father of vocational guidance?

Question 10: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 10

Correct answer: A. Frank Parsons. Frank Parsons developed the plans for the Vocation Bureau. His book Choosing a Vocation (1909) laid out the matching approach that became trait-and-factor counseling.

  • Why not B: Rogers developed person-centered counseling decades later.
  • Why not C: Beers launched the mental hygiene movement with A Mind That Found Itself (1908). It's the same year, but a different contribution.

Concept: History of the profession · Area: Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice · ID: CPCE-PO-10
Source: Parsons, Choosing a Vocation (1909), primary excerpts, chapters II (p. 5) and XII (pp. 91–92); NCDA statement on Parsons; ADPCA: History of the Person-Centered Approach; Mental Health America 2022 Annual Report (PDF), History (p. 8).

Social and Cultural Diversity · Questions 11–20

Question 11

A client keeps her heritage language and traditions at home while fully participating in mainstream friendships and work. In Berry's acculturation model, this strategy is called:

Question 11: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 11

Correct answer: C. Integration. Integration means keeping one's heritage culture while also participating in the larger society.

  • Why not A: Assimilation gives up heritage culture in favor of the dominant one.
  • Why not B: Separation keeps heritage culture while avoiding the dominant one, which isn't what this client does.

Concept: Berry's acculturation strategies · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-01
Source: Berry (1997), Immigration, acculturation, and adaptation (PDF), acculturation strategies (pp. 9–10).

Question 12

In Cross's Nigrescence model, the stage in which an event shatters a person's prior view of race and prompts exploration of Black identity is called:

Question 12: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 12

Correct answer: A. Encounter. The encounter stage is triggered by an experience that challenges the person's existing worldview about race.

  • Why not B: Pre-encounter describes an orientation in which race is minimized or the dominant view is accepted; it does not describe the triggering experience.
  • Why not C: Internalization describes a secure, integrated identity rather than the experience that prompts reconsideration.

Concept: Cross's Nigrescence stages · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-02
Source: Cross, Neville, Austin, and Reinhardt (2022), Black Lives Matter and Nigrescence Theory, Revised Nigrescence Theory, Pre-Encounter, Encounter, and Internalization sections.

Question 13

In the Multicultural and Social Justice Counseling Competencies (MSJCC), which domain addresses how the counselor's and client's privileged and marginalized statuses interact in their work together?

Question 13: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 13

Correct answer: B. Counseling relationship. The counseling relationship domain focuses on how both parties' identities, privilege, and marginalization shape the interaction.

  • Why not A: Self-awareness is the counselor's understanding of their own identities and biases, not the interaction.
  • Why not C: Client worldview is about understanding the client's identities and experiences.

Concept: MSJCC domains · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-03
Source: Multicultural and Social Justice Counseling Competencies (2015) (PDF), III. Counseling Relationship (pp. 9–10).

Question 14

A U.S.-born Asian American client is repeatedly asked, "But where are you really from?" In Sue and colleagues' taxonomy, this is best classified as a:

Question 14: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 14

Correct answer: C. Microinvalidation. Microinvalidations negate a person's experiential reality. Sue et al. (2007) list "alien in one's own land" as a microinvalidation theme.

  • Why not A: Microassaults are explicit, usually conscious, derogation.
  • Why not B: Microinsults convey rudeness or demean a person's heritage. The core message here is "you don't belong here," which is invalidation.

Concept: Microaggression types · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-04
Source: Sue et al. (2007), Racial microaggressions in everyday life (PDF), microinvalidation and related categories (p. 274; Table 1).

Question 15

An approach that understands a client's behavior through concepts specific to the client's own culture is called:

Question 15: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 15

Correct answer: B. Emic. Emic approaches are culture-specific. Etic approaches assume universal concepts that apply across cultures.

  • Why not A: Etic is the universal perspective, which is the opposite.
  • Why not C: Cultural encapsulation is a counselor's error of treating their own norms as universal.

Concept: Emic vs. etic · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-05
Source: APA Dictionary: emic and etic, definition 1; Wrenn, The Culturally Encapsulated Counselor, reprinted in Intelligence, Feeling, Caring (PDF), chapter 6 (pp. 27–38).

Question 16

A counselor assumes that her own culture's norms about independence are the healthy standard for every client. Wrenn called this:

Question 16: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 16

Correct answer: A. Cultural encapsulation. Wrenn (1962) described the culturally encapsulated counselor, who substitutes stereotypes and their own cultural assumptions for understanding the client.

  • Why not B: Acculturative stress is the strain a person feels adjusting to a new culture.
  • Why not C: Cultural relativism judges behavior within its cultural context, which is the reverse of the error described.

Concept: Cultural encapsulation · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-06
Source: Wrenn, The Culturally Encapsulated Counselor (1962), reprinted in Intelligence, Feeling, Caring (1996) (PDF), chapter 6 (pp. 27–38); Berry (1997) (PDF), psychological acculturation and acculturative stress.

Question 17

In counseling literature, privilege is best defined as:

Question 17: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 17

Correct answer: C. Unearned advantages conferred by group membership, often invisible to those who hold them. McIntosh's well-known description treats privilege as unearned assets that their holders often don't notice.

  • Why not A: "Unearned" is the defining feature.
  • Why not B: Prejudice is an individual attitude. Privilege is a systemic advantage that exists regardless of attitude.

Concept: Privilege · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-07
Source: McIntosh (1989), White Privilege: Unpacking the Invisible Knapsack, opening paragraphs.

Question 18

A client says prayer is her main way of coping with grief. The counselor is not religious. What is the best approach?

Question 18: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 18

Correct answer: A. Explore what prayer means to her and how it might support her goals, following her lead. Spiritual beliefs are part of a client's worldview, and the CPCE outline lists them in this area. Exploring them on the client's terms respects her autonomy and avoids imposing the counselor's values (A.4.b).

  • Why not B: Replacing a valued coping resource imposes the counselor's worldview.
  • Why not C: Avoidance isn't neutrality. It leaves out something central that the client raised.

Concept: Spirituality as part of worldview · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-08
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), A.4.b (p. 5); CPCE Content Outline (PDF), Area II, topic G.

Question 19

In the Racial/Cultural Identity Development model, a person who rejects the dominant culture and fully embraces their own cultural group is in which stage?

Question 19: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 19

Correct answer: B. Resistance and immersion. Resistance and immersion involves endorsing one's own group and rejecting dominant-culture values.

  • Why not A: Conformity is a preference for the dominant culture.
  • Why not C: Integrative awareness is a later, more balanced appreciation of one's own and other cultures.

Concept: R/CID stages · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-09
Source: SAMHSA, Improving Cultural Competence (TIP 59, 2014), Exhibit 2-1, Racial/Cultural Identity Development model.

Question 20

A counselor testifies before a city council about housing discrimination affecting many of her clients. Under the ACA Advocacy Competencies, this advocacy is at the:

Question 20: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 20

Correct answer: C. Public arena level. Public arena advocacy addresses public policy and public information, such as testimony, media, and legislation.

  • Why not A: Client-level advocacy is with or on behalf of an individual.
  • Why not B: School/community advocacy can overlap with public-arena work, but this scenario emphasizes public-policy testimony on behalf of a client population.

Concept: Advocacy Competencies levels · Area: Social and Cultural Diversity · ID: CPCE-SC-10
Source: ACA Advocacy Competencies, updated 2018 (PDF), levels of advocacy (p. 2) and Social/Political Advocacy (pp. 9–10).

Human Growth and Development · Questions 21–30

Question 21

A 45-year-old client finds new meaning in mentoring younger colleagues and volunteering with youth. Which Erikson stage is most relevant?

Question 21: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 21

Correct answer: A. Generativity vs. stagnation. Midlife generativity centers on guiding and contributing to the next generation.

  • Why not B: Integrity vs. despair is late-life reflection on one's life as a whole.
  • Why not C: Intimacy vs. isolation is the young-adult task of forming close relationships.

Concept: Erikson's midlife stage · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-01
Source: Reich (1995), History of the Notion of Care, Erik Erikson subsection; Open RN, Nursing Health Promotion, chapter 13, section 13.2, Erik Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory.

Question 22

A child understands that pouring water into a taller, thinner glass doesn't change the amount. In Piaget's theory, mastery of conservation marks which stage?

Question 22: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 22

Correct answer: C. Concrete operational. Conservation is a hallmark of concrete operational thinking.

  • Why not A: Preoperational children typically fail conservation tasks because they focus on one dimension, like height.
  • Why not B: Formal operations involve abstract and hypothetical reasoning, which comes after conservation.

Concept: Piaget: conservation · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-02
Source: Open Yale Courses, Paul Bloom: The Development of Thought, lecture 5 transcript, Chapter 1, water conservation and Piaget’s stages.

Question 23

A student says he won't cheat because he'd get punished if caught. In Kohlberg's theory, this reasoning is:

Question 23: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 23

Correct answer: B. Preconventional. Reasoning based on avoiding punishment is preconventional.

  • Why not A: Conventional reasoning centers on approval, social roles, and law and order.
  • Why not C: Postconventional reasoning appeals to social contracts and universal ethical principles.

Concept: Kohlberg's levels · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-03
Source: Kohlberg, Moral Stages and Moralization: The Cognitive-Developmental Approach (PDF), Table 2.1 (pp. 174–176).

Question 24

A college sophomore has committed to becoming a pharmacist because her parents chose it for her. She has never considered alternatives. In Marcia's identity statuses, she is in:

Question 24: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 24

Correct answer: B. Foreclosure. Foreclosure is commitment without exploration.

  • Why not A: Achievement requires both exploration and commitment.
  • Why not C: Moratorium is active exploration without commitment yet.

Concept: Marcia's identity statuses · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-04
Source: Marcia (1966), Development and validation of ego-identity status (PDF), status definitions (pp. 551–552).

Question 25

In the Strange Situation, an infant is very distressed when the caregiver leaves, then on reunion both seeks contact and angrily resists it. This pattern is:

Question 25: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 25

Correct answer: A. Insecure-resistant (ambivalent). Seeking and resisting contact at reunion defines the resistant/ambivalent pattern Ainsworth described.

  • Why not B: Avoidant infants often show little outward distress and avoid or ignore the caregiver on return.
  • Why not C: Secure infants may be upset, but they are readily comforted at reunion.

Concept: Attachment patterns · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-05
Source: Ainsworth (1979), Infant–Mother Attachment (PDF), descriptions of Groups A, B, and C (p. 932).

Question 26

A parent's employer cuts family-leave benefits, which affects the child's home life even though the child never enters the workplace. In Bronfenbrenner's model, the workplace is part of the child's:

Question 26: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 26

Correct answer: C. Exosystem. The exosystem includes settings the child isn't directly part of that still affect the child.

  • Why not A: The microsystem is settings the child directly participates in, like home and school.
  • Why not B: The mesosystem is the connections among the child's microsystems, such as links between home and school.

Concept: Bronfenbrenner's systems · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-06
Source: Bronfenbrenner (1977), Toward an experimental ecology of human development (PDF), ecological environment definitions (pp. 514–515).

Question 27

The gap between what a learner can do alone and what they can do with guidance is Vygotsky's:

Question 27: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 27

Correct answer: C. Zone of proximal development. The zone of proximal development is where scaffolded learning happens.

  • Why not A: Assimilation is Piaget's term for fitting new information into existing schemas.
  • Why not B: A schema is Piaget's term for an organized mental framework.

Concept: Zone of proximal development · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-07
Source: Vygotsky, Thinking and Speech, chapter 6, section 4; Wood, Bruner, and Ross (1976), scaffolding (p. 90); Open Yale Courses, lecture 5, Chapter 1, schemas and assimilation.

Question 28

A parent stops nagging as soon as a teen cleans his room, and the teen begins cleaning more often. This is an example of:

Question 28: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 28

Correct answer: A. Negative reinforcement. Removing an unpleasant stimulus (the nagging) increases the behavior. That's negative reinforcement.

  • Why not B: Punishment decreases a behavior, and the cleaning increased.
  • Why not C: Extinction is withholding reinforcement so a behavior fades.

Concept: Reinforcement vs. punishment · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-08
Source: Skinner, Science and Human Behavior, p. 317, negative reinforcement; p. 69, extinction.

Question 29

Which model views addiction as a chronic, relapsing condition involving changes in brain function?

Question 29: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 29

Correct answer: B. Disease (medical) model. The disease model treats addiction as a chronic, relapsing, brain-based condition, consistent with the Surgeon General's report on alcohol, drugs, and health.

  • Why not A: The moral model treats addiction as a failure of willpower or character.
  • Why not C: Sociocultural models emphasize environment, norms, and culture.

Concept: Models of addiction · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-09
Source: US Surgeon General, Facing Addiction in America (2016), chapter 2, An Evolving Understanding of Substance Use Disorders and Key Findings.

Question 30

A 52-year-old client was laid off. The counselor assesses his situation, self, supports, and strategies. Which framework is the counselor using?

Question 30: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 30

Correct answer: A. Schlossberg's transition model. Schlossberg's "4 S's" (situation, self, support, strategies) assess a person's resources for coping with a transition.

  • Why not B: Kübler-Ross described reactions to dying and loss, not a resource assessment.
  • Why not C: Erikson's stages describe lifespan crises, not transition resources.

Concept: Schlossberg's 4 S's · Area: Human Growth and Development · ID: CPCE-HG-10
Source: Schlossberg (2011), The Challenge of Change: The Transition Model and Its Applications, abstract.

Career Development · Questions 31–40

Question 31

A client with the Holland code SEA works in a job whose environment code is also SEA. Holland would describe this person–environment match as high:

Question 31: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 31

Correct answer: B. Congruence. Congruence is the match between a person's type and the work environment.

  • Why not A: Consistency is how close a person's first two code letters sit on the RIASEC hexagon.
  • Why not C: Differentiation is how clearly defined a person's profile is (distinct peaks vs. a flat profile).

Concept: Holland: congruence · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-01
Source: Milsom & Coughlin (2017), Examining Person–Environment Fit and Academic Major Satisfaction, “Holland’s Person–Environment Fit.”.

Question 32

Who developed the life-career rainbow, which depicts life roles across the lifespan?

Question 32: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 32

Correct answer: A. Donald Super. Super's life-career rainbow shows roles like child, student, worker, and homemaker across life stages.

  • Why not B: Holland is known for the RIASEC typology.
  • Why not C: Roe linked early parent–child relationships to occupational orientation.

Concept: Super's life-career rainbow · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-02
Source: Super (1980), life-career rainbow, reproduced in Employee Upgrading for a Quality Workforce (PDF), Appendix A, “Example 1: Life-Career Rainbow,” printed p. 179 (PDF p. 173)..

Question 33

In Gottfredson's theory, young children eliminate occupations they see as wrong for their gender or social standing. This process is called:

Question 33: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 33

Correct answer: C. Circumscription. Circumscription narrows the zone of acceptable alternatives based on self-concept, sex type, and prestige.

  • Why not A: Compromise comes later, when people give up preferred options for more accessible ones.
  • Why not B: Crystallization is a term from Super's developmental tasks, not Gottfredson's theory.

Concept: Gottfredson: circumscription · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-03
Source: Gottfredson (1981), Circumscription and Compromise (PDF), p. 549 (PDF p. 5)..

Question 34

A counselor encourages a client to stay curious, persistent, flexible, optimistic, and willing to take risks so unplanned events become opportunities. Which theory is the counselor applying?

Question 34: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 34

Correct answer: A. Planned happenstance theory. Krumboltz and colleagues' planned happenstance identifies those five skills for capitalizing on chance events.

  • Why not B: Trait-and-factor theory matches individual traits to job requirements.
  • Why not C: Career construction focuses on life themes and career adaptability.

Concept: Planned happenstance · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-04
Source: Mitchell, Levin & Krumboltz (1999), Planned Happenstance (PDF), p. 118 (PDF p. 4)..

Question 35

Concern, control, curiosity, and confidence are the four dimensions of career adaptability in:

Question 35: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 35

Correct answer: C. Career construction theory. Savickas's career construction theory defines adaptability through these four Cs.

  • Why not A: Social cognitive career theory centers on self-efficacy, outcome expectations, and goals.
  • Why not B: Work adjustment centers on satisfaction and satisfactoriness.

Concept: Career adaptability (4 Cs) · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-05
Source: Savickas (2005), The Theory and Practice of Career Construction (PDF), “Dimensions of Career Adaptability,” p. 51..

Question 36

Which theorist proposed that early parent–child relationships shape whether a person gravitates toward occupations oriented toward people or away from them?

Question 36: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 36

Correct answer: B. Anne Roe. Roe linked childhood climate (accepting, avoidant, or emotionally concentrated) to person-oriented vs. non-person-oriented occupations.

  • Why not A: Ginzberg described developmental periods of career choice (fantasy, tentative, realistic).
  • Why not C: Tiedeman focused on the decision-making process (anticipation and implementation).

Concept: Roe's personality theory · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-06
Source: Roe, in Perspectives on Vocational Development (1972) (PDF), pp. 72–73 and Figure 2; Super’s discussion of Ginzberg, p. 17; Tiedeman’s decision-process discussion, p. 234..

Question 37

A counselor in Ohio wants projected employment for a specific occupation within Ohio. Which source fits that question best?

Question 37: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 37

Correct answer: B. State-level long-term projections produced through the state's labor market information office. The Bureau of Labor Statistics explains that its Occupational Outlook Handbook projections are national and points readers to state-level projections for state-specific questions.

  • Why not A: National projections don't answer a question about one state, and state trends can differ from national ones.
  • Why not C: An interest profile describes the client's interests. It contains no labor market projections.

Concept: National vs. state projections · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-07
Source: BLS Occupational Outlook Handbook FAQ, “Where can I find state resources on occupations and labor markets?”.

Question 38

Which instrument assesses career interests organized by Holland's themes?

Question 38: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 38

Correct answer: B. Strong Interest Inventory. The Strong Interest Inventory reports General Occupational Themes based on Holland's RIASEC types.

  • Why not A: The MMPI-3 assesses personality and psychopathology.
  • Why not C: The WAIS-IV measures adult intelligence.

Concept: Career assessment instruments · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-08
Source: The Myers-Briggs Company, Strong Interest Inventory validity, General Occupational Themes; University of Minnesota Press, MMPI-3, description and scales; Pearson, WAIS-IV, instrument description..

Question 39

A student earns top grades in math but avoids engineering because she doesn't believe she could succeed in it. In social cognitive career theory, the main barrier is her:

Question 39: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 39

Correct answer: C. Self-efficacy beliefs. Self-efficacy is belief in one's ability to perform. The stem describes doubt about succeeding in engineering.

  • Why not A: Outcome expectations are beliefs about what will happen if she does it, such as pay or satisfaction.
  • Why not B: Personal goals concern activities or outcomes she intends to pursue. The stem describes doubt about ability.

Concept: SCCT: self-efficacy · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-09
Source: Lent, Brown & Hackett (1994), Social Cognitive Career Theory (PDF), “Self-Efficacy,” “Outcome Expectations,” and “Goals.”.

Question 40

In the theory of work adjustment, the employer's view of how well a worker performs is called:

Question 40: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 40

Correct answer: B. Satisfactoriness. Satisfactoriness is the work environment's evaluation of the worker. Satisfaction is the worker's evaluation of the environment.

  • Why not A: Satisfaction is the worker's side of the relationship.
  • Why not C: Congruence is Holland's person–environment match concept.

Concept: Theory of work adjustment · Area: Career Development · ID: CPCE-CD-10
Source: University of Minnesota, Theory of Work Adjustment, satisfaction and satisfactoriness definitions..

Counseling and Helping Relationships · Questions 41–50

Question 41

In Rogers' person-centered approach, the condition in which the counselor's inner experience matches what they express is:

Question 41: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 41

Correct answer: C. Congruence. Congruence, or genuineness, means the counselor is authentic rather than presenting a façade.

  • Why not A: Unconditional positive regard is nonjudgmental acceptance of the client.
  • Why not B: Accurate empathy is understanding the client's internal frame of reference.

Concept: Rogers' core conditions · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-01
Source: Rogers (1957), The Necessary and Sufficient Conditions of Therapeutic Personality Change (PDF), “The Therapist’s Genuineness in the Relationship,” “Unconditional Positive Regard,” and “Empathy” (PDF pp. 3–4)..

Question 42

In Ellis's ABC model, what does "B" stand for?

Question 42: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 42

Correct answer: B. The client's beliefs about the activating event. REBT holds that beliefs about an activating event (A) help shape emotional and behavioral consequences (C). Irrational beliefs are then disputed (D).

  • Why not A: Behavior isn't the B. Behavior and emotion are the consequences.
  • Why not C: B denotes beliefs in this model; environmental barriers may be part of the activating situation.

Concept: REBT's ABC model · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-02
Source: Ellis, Emotional Disturbance and Its Treatment in a Nutshell (PDF), p. 1..

Question 43

After one person declines a date, a client says, "No one will ever want to be with me." This cognitive distortion is:

Question 43: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 43

Correct answer: A. Overgeneralization. Drawing a sweeping, permanent conclusion from a single event is overgeneralization.

  • Why not B: Personalization is taking responsibility for events outside one's control.
  • Why not C: Mind reading is assuming you know what someone is thinking without evidence.

Concept: Cognitive distortions · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-03
Source: Western Australian Department of Health, Unhelpful thinking styles, “Overgeneralisation,” “Personalisation,” and “Jumping to conclusions.”.

Question 44

"Suppose tonight, while you sleep, a miracle happens and the problem is solved. What would be different tomorrow?" This question comes from:

Question 44: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 44

Correct answer: C. Solution-focused brief therapy. The miracle question, from de Shazer and Berg, helps clients describe their preferred future and goals in concrete detail.

  • Why not A: Narrative therapy uses externalizing and re-authoring stories.
  • Why not B: Person-centered counseling emphasizes the therapeutic relationship and Rogers' core conditions. The miracle question is a solution-focused technique.

Concept: Miracle question (SFBT) · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-04
Source: SFBTA treatment manual, 3rd ed. (2025) (PDF), “Co-Constructing the Miracle or Preferred Future,” pp. 18–19; “Co-Constructing Exceptions,” p. 21. SAMHSA TIP 34, Chapter 6, narrative and person-centered approaches..

Question 45

A client says, "I know my drinking is hurting my marriage, and I'll probably cut back in the next few months, but I'm not ready to set a date." In the transtheoretical model, he is in:

Question 45: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 45

Correct answer: A. Contemplation. Contemplation means acknowledging the problem and intending to change within about six months, without a firm commitment yet.

  • Why not B: Preparation involves intending to act very soon and taking initial steps.
  • Why not C: Precontemplation means not recognizing a problem or not intending to change.

Concept: Stages of change · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-05
Source: University of Rhode Island Cancer Prevention Research Center, Detailed Overview, “Stages of Change: The Temporal Dimension.”.

Question 46

Adler's term for a person's sense of belonging and concern for others' welfare is:

Question 46: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 46

Correct answer: B. Social interest. Social interest (Gemeinschaftsgefühl) is central to the Adlerian view of mental health.

  • Why not A: Inferiority feelings are universal motivators. A complex is an exaggerated form of them.
  • Why not C: Style of life is the person's characteristic pattern for pursuing goals.

Concept: Adler: social interest · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-06
Source: Adler Graduate School, Alfred Adler: Theory and Application, “Unity of the Individual,” “Goal Orientation,” “The Feeling of Community,” and “Mental Health.” North American Society for Adlerian Psychology, Alfred Adler, “What Is an Adlerian?”.

Question 47

A counselor asks a client what he wants, what he is doing, whether it's working, and what his plan is. This WDEP system comes from:

Question 47: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 47

Correct answer: B. Reality therapy. Wubbolding's WDEP (Wants, Doing, Evaluation, Planning) puts Glasser's reality therapy into practice.

  • Why not A: Gestalt focuses on here-and-now awareness and unfinished business.
  • Why not C: Existential therapy focuses on meaning, freedom, and responsibility. WDEP is the named system used in reality therapy.

Concept: Reality therapy (WDEP) · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-07
Source: Wubbolding, Casstevens & Fulkerson (2017), Using the WDEP System of Reality Therapy, abstract; SAMHSA TIP 34, Chapter 6, Gestalt and existential approaches..

Question 48

A family counselor maps subsystems and notes diffuse boundaries between a mother and her teenage son. Which approach is the counselor using?

Question 48: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 48

Correct answer: C. Structural family therapy. Minuchin's structural therapy uses family mapping, subsystems, and interpersonal boundaries.

  • Why not A: Bowen focuses on differentiation of self and multigenerational patterns.
  • Why not B: Strategic therapy uses directives and paradoxical interventions aimed at the presenting problem.

Concept: Structural family therapy · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-08
Source: Minuchin Center, Introduction to Structural Family Therapy, central concepts and assessment syllabus; SAMHSA TIP 39, Chapter 3 (2020), family counseling approaches. SAMHSA TIP 34, Chapter 8, family treatment models; The Bowen Center, Eight Concepts..

Question 49

A client discloses suicidal thoughts. After assessing risk and determining that continued outpatient care is appropriate, the counselor wants an evidence-informed, collaborative tool the client can use between sessions. Which is most appropriate?

Question 49: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 49

Correct answer: A. A written safety plan listing warning signs, coping strategies, people to contact, crisis lines, and steps to make the environment safer. Stanley and Brown's Safety Planning Intervention is a collaborative, step-by-step plan built with the client, and it has research support.

  • Why not B: No-suicide contracts lack evidence that they prevent suicide.
  • Why not C: Postponing the topic leaves the client without the requested between-session plan.

Concept: Safety planning vs. no-suicide contracts · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-09
Source: Stanley-Brown Safety Planning Intervention, intervention steps; SPRC consensus guide (PDF), §3.2, pp. 10–11; Stanley et al. (2018), intervention and results; Rudd, Mandrusiak & Joiner (2006), abstract..

Question 50

A teacher asks a counselor for help with a student, but it becomes clear the teacher's difficulty stems from a lack of objectivity about that student. In Caplan's model, the consultation should be:

Question 50: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 50

Correct answer: C. Consultee-centered case consultation. Consultee-centered case consultation addresses the consultee's gaps in knowledge, skill, confidence, or objectivity.

  • Why not A: Client-centered consultation focuses on assessing the student and recommending what to do.
  • Why not B: Administrative consultation focuses on programs or organizations, not one case.

Concept: Caplan's consultation types · Area: Counseling and Helping Relationships · ID: CPCE-CH-10
Source: Collaborative Consultation in the Schools, publisher sample chapter (PDF), Chapter 2, “Types of Mental Health Consultation” and “The Four Lacks of Consultees,” pp. 26–28..

Group Counseling and Group Work · Questions 51–60

Question 51

A group member realizes, "I'm not the only one who feels this way." Yalom calls this therapeutic factor:

Question 51: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 51

Correct answer: A. Universality. Universality is the relief of discovering that others share your struggles.

  • Why not B: Altruism is benefiting from helping others.
  • Why not C: Catharsis is the release of strong emotion.

Concept: Yalom: universality · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-01
Source: SAMHSA TIP 41, Chapter 5, “Therapeutic Strategies in Early Treatment,” therapeutic-factor definitions..

Question 52

Members begin challenging the leader and competing over roles and control. In Tuckman's model, the group is in:

Question 52: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 52

Correct answer: B. Storming. Storming is marked by conflict and resistance.

  • Why not A: Forming is orientation and dependence on the leader.
  • Why not C: Norming comes next, as cohesion and shared norms develop.

Concept: Tuckman's stages · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-02
Source: Tuckman (1965), Developmental Sequence in Small Groups (PDF), summary of the four stages, pp. 396–397..

Question 53

What is the main purpose of pre-group screening?

Question 53: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 53

Correct answer: C. To select members whose needs and goals fit the group and who won't impede the process or be harmed by it. The 2014 ACA Code (A.9.a) describes screening to select, to the extent possible, members whose goals are compatible with the group, who won't impede the group process, and whose well-being won't be jeopardized.

  • Why not A: Screening exists precisely because not every applicant fits.
  • Why not B: A diagnosis may inform screening, but the purpose here is to assess suitability for this group.

Concept: Pre-group screening · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-03
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), A.9.a (p. 6)..

Question 54

How should a group leader handle confidentiality with members?

Question 54: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 54

Correct answer: B. Explain its importance and limits, including that the leader cannot guarantee members will keep it. Section B.4.a calls for explaining the importance and limits of confidentiality for the specific group.

  • Why not A: Leaders can't control what members disclose outside the group.
  • Why not C: Leaving it out undermines informed consent.

Concept: Confidentiality in groups · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-04
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), B.4.a (p. 7)..

Question 55

A middle school counselor runs a structured six-week group that teaches anger-management skills. In ASGW's typology, this is a:

Question 55: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 55

Correct answer: A. Psychoeducational group. Psychoeducational groups teach skills and information, often for prevention.

  • Why not B: Psychotherapy groups treat more serious, long-standing problems.
  • Why not C: Task groups accomplish a work goal, like a committee.

Concept: Group types (ASGW) · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-05
Source: ASGW Guiding Principles for Group Work (2021) (PDF), Part II, A.1–A.4 (PDF pp. 3–4); SAMHSA TIP 41, Chapter 2, psychoeducational groups..

Question 56

A leader says, "Maria, what you just said sounds similar to what James shared last week." This skill is:

Question 56: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 56

Correct answer: C. Linking. Linking connects members' themes to build interaction and cohesion.

  • Why not A: Blocking stops harmful or counterproductive behavior.
  • Why not B: Drawing out invites quiet members to participate.

Concept: Leader skills: linking · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-06
Source: Gladding (1994), Effective Group Counseling (PDF), “Linking” and “Blocking,” pp. 39–40; Effective Group Counseling, ERIC/CASS Digest (PDF), “Group Counseling Skills.”.

Question 57

Several members begin repeatedly blaming one member for the group's problems. The leader intervenes to stop it. This skill is:

Question 57: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 57

Correct answer: A. Blocking. Blocking protects members from harmful behavior such as scapegoating.

  • Why not B: Reflecting mirrors content or feelings. The defining action here is stopping harmful behavior.
  • Why not C: Summarizing pulls themes together, often at the end of a session.

Concept: Leader skills: blocking · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-07
Source: Gladding (1994), Effective Group Counseling (PDF), “Reflecting” and “Blocking,” pp. 39–40; 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), A.9.b (p. 6)..

Question 58

A grief support group allows new members to join at any time as others leave. In terms of membership policy, this is a(n):

Question 58: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 58

Correct answer: C. Open group. Open groups have changing membership. New members may join after the group has begun.

  • Why not A: Closed groups do not admit new members after the group is established; existing members may still leave.
  • Why not B: Homogeneity is about members sharing characteristics, not about membership changes.

Concept: Open vs. closed groups · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-08
Source: Gladding (1994), Effective Group Counseling (PDF), “Open vs. Closed,” p. 69 (PDF p. 83)..

Question 59

A member who has felt worthless reports feeling valued after helping another member. Yalom calls this factor:

Question 59: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 59

Correct answer: B. Altruism. Altruism is the boost in self-worth that comes from helping others.

  • Why not A: Universality is learning that others share your problems.
  • Why not C: Imitative behavior is modeling the leader or other members.

Concept: Yalom: altruism · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-09
Source: SAMHSA TIP 41, Chapter 5, “Therapeutic Strategies in Early Treatment,” therapeutic-factor definitions..

Question 60

Who developed psychodrama, an early form of group therapy that uses enactment?

Question 60: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 60

Correct answer: A. J. L. Moreno. Moreno developed psychodrama and sociometry.

  • Why not B: Perls developed Gestalt therapy, which also uses enactment techniques like the empty chair.
  • Why not C: Yalom is known for therapeutic factors and interpersonal group therapy.

Concept: Psychodrama (Moreno) · Area: Group Counseling and Group Work · ID: CPCE-GW-10
Source: Jacob & Zerka Moreno Foundation, mission and psychodrama action-technique explanation; SAMHSA TIP 34, Chapter 6, “Gestalt Therapy.”.

Assessment and Testing · Questions 61–70

Question 61

A test is given to the same group twice, two weeks apart, and the two sets of scores are correlated. This estimates:

Question 61: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 61

Correct answer: B. Test-retest reliability. Test-retest reliability measures how stable scores are over time.

  • Why not A: Internal consistency (for example, Cronbach's alpha) comes from a single administration.
  • Why not C: Content validity concerns whether items represent the domain. It isn't a correlation over time.

Concept: Test-retest reliability · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-01
Source: Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (PDF) (AERA, APA, & NCME, 2014), pp. 14 and 37–38.

Question 62

Scores on an aptitude test correlate with students' grades one year later. This is evidence of:

Question 62: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 62

Correct answer: C. Predictive validity. Predictive evidence compares test scores with criterion data gathered later.

  • Why not A: Content validity is about item coverage, not a criterion.
  • Why not B: Concurrent evidence collects test scores and criterion information at about the same time.

Concept: Predictive vs. concurrent validity · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-02
Source: Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (PDF) (2014), pp. 14 and 17.

Question 63

In a normal distribution, about what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean?

Question 63: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 63

Correct answer: A. About 68%. About 68% of scores fall between −1 and +1 standard deviation.

  • Why not B: About 95% fall within two standard deviations.
  • Why not C: 50% fall on each side of the mean, which is a different idea.

Concept: Normal curve percentages · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-03
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §6.5.1, What do we mean by “Normal” data?, “Interpretation of σ”.

Question 64

On a test with a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 8, a client scores 92. What is the client's linear T score (mean 50, standard deviation 10)?

Question 64: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 64

Correct answer: C. 65. First find z: (92 − 80) ÷ 8 = 1.5. Then T = 50 + 10z = 50 + 15 = 65.

  • Why not A: 1.5 is the z score, not the T score.
  • Why not B: 12 is the raw distance from the mean, not a standard score.

Concept: z and T scores · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-04
Source: Rodriguez, Norming and Norm-Referenced Test Scores (PDF) (1997), pp. 12–14, especially “Transformed Z Scores” (p. 14); calculation: z = (X − M) ÷ SD; T = 50 + 10z.

Question 65

A test has a standard deviation of 15 and a reliability coefficient of .91. What is the standard error of measurement?

Question 65: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 65

Correct answer: B. 4.5. SEM = SD × √(1 − r) = 15 × √0.09 = 15 × 0.30 = 4.5.

  • Why not A: 1.35 is 15 × 0.09. It skips the square root.
  • Why not C: 13.65 is 15 × .91, which isn't the formula.

Concept: Standard error of measurement · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-05
Source: Livingston, Test Reliability—Basic Concepts (PDF) (ETS Research Memorandum RM-18-01, 2018), p. 22, “How Are the Reliability Coefficient and the Standard Error of Measurement Related?”; rearranging its formula gives SEM = SD × √(1 − r).

Question 66

Race results reported as 1st, 2nd, and 3rd place use which scale of measurement?

Question 66: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 66

Correct answer: A. Ordinal. Ordinal scales rank order without assuming equal distances between ranks.

  • Why not B: Interval scales have equal units but no true zero.
  • Why not C: Ratio scales have equal units and a true zero, like elapsed race times in seconds.

Concept: Scales of measurement · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-06
Source: Stevens, On the Theory of Scales of Measurement (PDF) (1946), Science, 103(2684), pp. 678–679, Table 1 and “Ordinal Scale,” “Interval Scale,” and “Ratio Scale”.

Question 67

A hypothetical certification test requires answering 80% of items correctly, regardless of how other test-takers perform. This test is:

Question 67: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 67

Correct answer: C. Criterion-referenced. Criterion-referenced tests compare performance to a fixed standard.

  • Why not A: Norm-referenced tests compare performance with other test-takers.
  • Why not B: Ipsative measures compare a person's scores with their own other scores.

Concept: Norm- vs. criterion-referenced · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-07
Source: Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (PDF) (2014), p. 96, “Interpretations of Scores”; Seery et al., Integrating learners into the assessment process (2019), “Ipsative development”.

Question 68

A sample of household incomes includes a few extremely high values. Which measure of central tendency usually gives the best sense of a typical income?

Question 68: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 68

Correct answer: B. Median. The median resists extreme scores. NIST notes that for data with extreme values in the tails, the median gives a better estimate of location than the mean.

  • Why not A: The mean is pulled toward the extreme high values.
  • Why not C: The mode shows the most frequent value, but with continuous data like income it can be unstable or unrepresentative.

Concept: Median vs. mean with outliers · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-08
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §1.3.5.1 Measures of Location.

Question 69

A counselor wants to use an instrument whose norm group did not include people from the client's cultural background. What should the counselor do?

Question 69: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 69

Correct answer: A. Use it cautiously, consider a better-normed alternative, and note the limitation when interpreting. The 2014 ACA Code (E.8) calls for caution with instruments normed on populations other than the client's and for considering culture and language in interpretation.

  • Why not B: Norms don't transfer automatically. "Objective" scores can still be biased for unrepresented groups.
  • Why not C: An informal translation changes the instrument; the original norms cannot be assumed appropriate without supporting evidence.

Concept: Norm groups and culture · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-09
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), E.8 and E.9.a (p. 12); Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (PDF) (2014), Standard 3.12 (pp. 68–69).

Question 70

Which Pearson correlation coefficient shows the strongest linear relationship between two variables?

Question 70: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 70

Correct answer: B. −.80. Strength is the absolute value. |−.80| is greater than .50 or .10. The sign only shows direction.

  • Why not A: +.50 has a smaller absolute value than −.80.
  • Why not C: +.10 has the smallest absolute value of the three coefficients.

Concept: Correlation strength vs. direction · Area: Assessment and Testing · ID: CPCE-AT-10
Source: NIST Dataplot Reference Manual, Correlation, “Description” and “Syntax 2”.

Research and Program Evaluation · Questions 71–80

Question 71

A Type I error occurs when a researcher:

Question 71: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 71

Correct answer: C. Rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true. A Type I error is a false positive. Its probability is set by alpha.

  • Why not A: That's a Type II error, a false negative.
  • Why not B: Nonrandom sampling threatens generalizability. It isn't a Type I error.

Concept: Type I vs. Type II error · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-01
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §1.3.5, Quantitative Techniques, “Hypothesis Tests,” especially “Significance Level”; Statistics Canada, Non-probability sampling, introduction.

Question 72

A researcher recruits 60 volunteers from one university clinic, then uses a random number generator to place each person in either a treatment group or a waitlist group. This procedure is:

Question 72: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 72

Correct answer: B. Random assignment. Random assignment places participants who are already in the study into conditions by chance. It supports causal conclusions by helping balance other influences across groups.

  • Why not A: Random sampling selects participants from a population by chance. These were volunteers from one clinic, so the sample isn't random, which limits generalizability.
  • Why not C: Stratified sampling draws from subgroups of a population. Nothing here involves selecting from strata.

Concept: Random assignment vs. random sampling · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-02
Source: NICHD, Using Research and Reason in Education, “The logic of the experimental method”; Statistics Canada, Probability sampling, “Simple random sampling” and “Stratified sampling,” and Non-probability sampling, “Volunteer sampling”.

Question 73

A study randomly assigns participants to a treatment or control group and manipulates the treatment. This design is:

Question 73: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 73

Correct answer: B. True experimental. Random assignment plus manipulation of an independent variable defines a true experiment.

  • Why not A: Quasi-experiments lack random assignment.
  • Why not C: Correlational designs measure relationships without manipulation.

Concept: True vs. quasi-experimental designs · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-03
Source: NICHD, Using Research and Reason in Education, “The logic of the experimental method” and “The need for both correlational methods and true experiments”; CDC Program Evaluation Framework, 2024, “Step3: Focus the Evaluation Questions and Design,” discussion of design options.

Question 74

A researcher wants to describe the essence of the lived experience of first-generation graduate students. Which qualitative approach fits best?

Question 74: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 74

Correct answer: A. Phenomenology. Phenomenology describes the shared essence of a lived experience.

  • Why not B: Grounded theory generates a theory of a process.
  • Why not C: Ethnography studies the culture of a group, usually through extended fieldwork.

Concept: Qualitative traditions · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-04
Source: Creswell, Five Qualitative Approaches to Inquiry (PDF) (2007), in Qualitative Inquiry and Research Design (2nd ed.), pp. 58, 63–64, and 68–69.

Question 75

A counseling center is planning a new substance-use prevention program and has not assessed the community's needs. What should come first?

Question 75: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 75

Correct answer: C. Needs assessment. A needs assessment identifies the gap the program should address.

  • Why not A: Summative evaluation judges a program after it runs.
  • Why not B: Outcome measurement assesses program results; the center first needs to identify the needs its program should address.

Concept: Needs assessment first · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-05
Source: SAMHSA, Strategic Prevention Framework, “Steps and Guiding Principles” and “Defining Characteristics”; OECD, Glossary of Key Terms in Evaluation (PDF) (2023), “Summative evaluation” (p. 58).

Question 76

Evaluation conducted while a program is running, to improve it, is called:

Question 76: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 76

Correct answer: B. Formative evaluation. Formative evaluation guides improvement while the program is underway.

  • Why not A: Summative evaluation judges overall effectiveness at the end.
  • Why not C: Meta-analysis combines results across many studies.

Concept: Formative vs. summative · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-06
Source: OECD, Glossary of Key Terms in Evaluation and Results-Based Management for Sustainable Development (PDF) (2nd ed., 2023), “Formative evaluation” (p. 34) and “Summative evaluation” (p. 58); NICHD, Using Research and Reason in Education, discussion of meta-analysis.

Question 77

Students are selected because they had unusually high scores on an imperfectly reliable stress inventory. On the same inventory one week later, with no intervention, their average score is closer to the overall mean. Which phenomenon is specifically associated with selecting the initial extreme scores?

Question 77: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 77

Correct answer: A. Statistical regression toward the mean. Extreme scorers tend to score closer to the mean when retested.

  • Why not B: Maturation refers to naturally occurring changes over time. It is not the specific effect of selecting initially extreme scores.
  • Why not C: Nothing in the scenario suggests the instrument changed.

Concept: Regression toward the mean · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-07
Source: WWC Single-Case Design Technical Documentation (PDF) (Kratochwill et al., 2010), “Maturation” and “Statistical Regression” (pp. 9–10) and “Instrumentation” (p. 11).

Question 78

A researcher compares the mean depression scores of three independent treatment groups. Scores are continuous, observations are independent, and the within-group distributions are approximately normal with similar variances. Which test fits?

Question 78: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 78

Correct answer: C. One-way ANOVA. One-way ANOVA tests whether population means are equal across the levels of one factor. Here, the factor is treatment group.

  • Why not A: A t test compares two means. Running several unadjusted t tests inflates the overall Type I error risk.
  • Why not B: Chi-square analyzes categorical frequencies, not means.

Concept: Choosing a statistical test · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-08
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook: §3.2.3.1 One-Way ANOVA, “Testing” and “Assumptions”; §7.4.3 Are the means equal?; §7.4.7 Multiple comparisons; §7.4.5 Contingency tables.

Question 79

A counselor records baseline behavior, introduces an intervention, withdraws it, and reintroduces it. This single-case design is:

Question 79: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 79

Correct answer: B. ABAB (reversal/withdrawal). ABAB alternates baseline (A) and intervention (B) phases to show the intervention's effect.

  • Why not A: Multiple-baseline staggers the intervention across behaviors, people, or settings without withdrawing it.
  • Why not C: Changing-criterion shifts the performance target step by step.

Concept: Single-case designs · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-09
Source: WWC Single-Case Design Technical Documentation (PDF) (Kratochwill et al., 2010), pp. 2–3 and 5–6, including Table 1.

Question 80

A program evaluation finds a new intervention was no more effective than usual care. The agency director asks the counselor to leave that finding out of the report. What should the counselor do?

Question 80: choose A, B, or C

Show answer and explanation for question 80

Correct answer: C. Report the results accurately, including the unfavorable finding. The 2014 ACA Code (G.4.b) obligates counselors to report results of professional value even when they reflect unfavorably on institutions or programs.

  • Why not A: The obligation doesn't depend on publication.
  • Why not B: Selective reporting misrepresents the findings.

Concept: Reporting unfavorable results · Area: Research and Program Evaluation · ID: CPCE-RP-10
Source: 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), G.4.a–b (p. 16).

Review your answers

These results describe your answers to this practice set. They don't predict a CPCE score or a passing result. Your university sets its own passing requirement.

Count only your first answer to each question. If you read an explanation before choosing, mark that question as studied, not correct.

Manual tally: correct first answers by content area
Content area Questions Correct
Professional Counseling Orientation and Ethical Practice 1–10 __ / 10
Social and Cultural Diversity 11–20 __ / 10
Human Growth and Development 21–30 __ / 10
Career Development 31–40 __ / 10
Counseling and Helping Relationships 41–50 __ / 10
Group Counseling and Group Work 51–60 __ / 10
Assessment and Testing 61–70 __ / 10
Research and Program Evaluation 71–80 __ / 10
Total 1–80 __ / 80

Ten questions per area is a small sample. A low area tells you where to look next, not how you'll score on the real exam. The CPCE weights all eight areas equally, so no area is safe to skip.

Answer key

Answer key for all 80 questions (show or hide)

Use the concept column as your study list for anything you missed or guessed.

Answer key for all 80 questions
Question Answer Concept tested
1 B Values-based referral vs. value imposition
2 C Six ethical principles (fidelity)
3 A Accreditation vs. licensure vs. certification
4 A Boundaries of competence
5 C Limits of confidentiality are ongoing
6 B Assent when a client can't consent
7 A Counselor impairment
8 C Distance-counseling informed consent
9 B Professional vs. client advocacy
10 A History of the profession
11 C Berry's acculturation strategies
12 A Cross's Nigrescence stages
13 B MSJCC domains
14 C Microaggression types
15 B Emic vs. etic
16 A Cultural encapsulation
17 C Privilege
18 A Spirituality as part of worldview
19 B R/CID stages
20 C Advocacy Competencies levels
21 A Erikson's midlife stage
22 C Piaget: conservation
23 B Kohlberg's levels
24 B Marcia's identity statuses
25 A Attachment patterns
26 C Bronfenbrenner's systems
27 C Zone of proximal development
28 A Reinforcement vs. punishment
29 B Models of addiction
30 A Schlossberg's 4 S's
31 B Holland: congruence
32 A Super's life-career rainbow
33 C Gottfredson: circumscription
34 A Planned happenstance
35 C Career adaptability (4 Cs)
36 B Roe's personality theory
37 B National vs. state projections
38 B Career assessment instruments
39 C SCCT: self-efficacy
40 B Theory of work adjustment
41 C Rogers' core conditions
42 B REBT's ABC model
43 A Cognitive distortions
44 C Miracle question (SFBT)
45 A Stages of change
46 B Adler: social interest
47 B Reality therapy (WDEP)
48 C Structural family therapy
49 A Safety planning vs. no-suicide contracts
50 C Caplan's consultation types
51 A Yalom: universality
52 B Tuckman's stages
53 C Pre-group screening
54 B Confidentiality in groups
55 A Group types (ASGW)
56 C Leader skills: linking
57 A Leader skills: blocking
58 C Open vs. closed groups
59 B Yalom: altruism
60 A Psychodrama (Moreno)
61 B Test-retest reliability
62 C Predictive vs. concurrent validity
63 A Normal curve percentages
64 C z and T scores
65 B Standard error of measurement
66 A Scales of measurement
67 C Norm- vs. criterion-referenced
68 B Median vs. mean with outliers
69 A Norm groups and culture
70 B Correlation strength vs. direction
71 C Type I vs. Type II error
72 B Random assignment vs. random sampling
73 B True vs. quasi-experimental designs
74 A Qualitative traditions
75 C Needs assessment first
76 B Formative vs. summative
77 A Regression toward the mean
78 C Choosing a statistical test
79 B Single-case designs
80 C Reporting unfavorable results

Choose what to review next

  1. Pick one missed or guessed question. Guesses count. A lucky right answer hides a gap.
  2. Explain the difference in one sentence. Say why the correct answer fits and why your choice didn't. If you can't, you've found the concept to study.
  3. Go back to the source, then retry later. Use the linked source or your course notes, and come back to the question in a day or two instead of rereading the answer right away.

Also check why you missed it. Forgetting a term (like Gottfredson's circumscription), misreading the stem, and mixing up two similar theories (like Super and Holland) each need a different fix.

Review worksheet: one example row and four blank rows
Question Missed or guessed? Concept My one-sentence rule Where to review Retry date
Example: 33 Guessed Gottfredson: circumscription Circumscription is ruling out jobs early; compromise is giving up preferred jobs later. Gottfredson (1981); career course notes In two days
Blank row for your next missed or guessed question
Blank row for your next missed or guessed question
Blank row for your next missed or guessed question
Blank row for your next missed or guessed question

What's the passing score on the CPCE?

There isn't a single one. Your university sets the CPCE cut score and decides pass or fail. Your own raw score report counts correct answers on the 136 scored questions and doesn't say whether you passed (CPCE Candidate Handbook (PDF), pp. 8, 15–16).

Programs set the bar differently. Two published examples:

  • UNC Charlotte sets passing at one standard deviation below the mean of students taking the exam. Its own example: a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 10 means a passing score of 90 (UNC Charlotte Counseling Program Testing).
  • Texas State uses the national mean for each exam version, rounded down to a whole number. It reports past cut scores from 87 to 98 (Texas State CPCE page).

Those two rules can produce quite different targets, so confirm your program's passing requirement with its CPCE coordinator or program handbook. Percent-correct "passing scores" posted on prep sites aren't official.

How this set compares with the CPCE

How this practice set compares with the CPCE
Feature Official CPCE This practice set
Questions 160: 136 scored plus 24 unscored pretest items you can't identify 80, all used for learning
Answer choices Three (A, B, or C) Three (A–C)
Content 8 areas, 20 questions each (17 scored), equal weight 8 areas, 10 questions each
Timing 3 hours 45 minutes to answer questions Untimed by default
Result Raw score; your university decides pass or fail Count of correct first answers on these items

Sources: CPCE Content Outline (PDF) (August 2024), Table 1; CPCE Candidate Handbook (PDF) (revised March 25, 2025), pp. 8, 13.

Some prep materials still use four answer choices. The current handbook's test-day instructions use A, B, or C, so these questions do too.

Pacing: The standard CPCE gives 3 hours 45 minutes for answering questions. Its 4-hour-15-minute total session also includes the agreement, tutorial, and a scheduled 15-minute break after question 80 (handbook (PDF), p. 13). That works out to about 84 seconds per question. If you want a proportional pacing run for these 80 questions, give yourself 1 hour 52 minutes 30 seconds. It's a practice target, not an official session.

Ethics questions follow the 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF). ACA says the 2014 Code remains current until its Board formally adopts the revised Code (ACA ethics page; revision status).

These questions are original and educational. They aren't calibrated to the CPCE's difficulty, and a score here isn't a prediction of your CPCE result.

Common questions

Is the CPCE a licensure exam?

No. The CPCE is a comprehensive exam that graduate counseling programs use near the end of the degree (CCE's CPCE overview). Passing it doesn't give you a license or a credential. State counseling licensure typically uses separate exams, such as NBCC's NCE or NCMHCE, depending on the state (NBCC state licensure).

Does CCE publish an official CPCE practice test?

CCE publishes eight sample items in Appendix B (pp. 44–45) of the candidate handbook (PDF). It says it doesn't offer an official study guide, but it does publish the CPCE Content Outline (PDF) and a textbook list of books often used in CACREP programs (CCE CPCE page).

What happens if I don't pass?

Your CPCE authorization allows two attempts within a six-month window, and each attempt has its own fee. Waiting periods depend on how you test and are listed in the candidate handbook (PDF). A new window needs your program coordinator's approval (CCE CPCE page). Ask your program coordinator about any additional steps before you schedule another attempt.

Sources and verification

  • Center for Credentialing & Education, CPCE Candidate Handbook (PDF), revised March 25, 2025: question counts, three-option format, timing, who sets the passing score, score reports, attempts.
  • Center for Credentialing & Education, CPCE Content Outline (PDF), August 2024: the eight content areas and their topics.
  • Center for Credentialing & Education, CPCE page: study materials and attempt windows.
  • American Counseling Association, 2014 ACA Code of Ethics (PDF), with current-code status: ethics questions.
  • UNC Charlotte and Texas State University: program cut-score examples.
  • Each question lists the source for its underlying principle, including the 2014 Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, SAMHSA treatment manuals, the CDC Program Evaluation Framework, and the original theory papers and texts.

Last verified: CPCE format, timing, scoring, and attempt rules; the two university cut-score examples; ACA Code sections and current-code status; and the cited principles behind these questions were checked against the linked sources on November 4, 2026 (UTC).

How we check exam facts and practice questions

Source-link maintenance: the Creswell chapter links to the secure 4CITIES copy of the same scanned pages. The author, edition and page references are unchanged.

AI assistance was used to implement and source-check this resource. Source checking is not professional clinical or psychometric review; no professional reviewer is credited for this set.

By the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Center for Credentialing & Education (CCE) or the National Board for Certified Counselors (NBCC). Exam and credential names are used only to identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and unofficial.

Free CPCE Practice Test: 80 Questions With Explanations