Free DANB CDA Practice Test: 120 Questions With Answers

Correct answer: C. Record the reading and tell the dentist before treatment begins.

A normal adult resting pulse is about 60 to 100 beats per minute, so 112 is above normal. Your job is to document exactly what you measured and alert the dentist, who decides whether treatment goes ahead. Calling it normal, leaving it off the chart, or charting only a later reading all hide information the dentist needs before care starts.

Sources: MedlinePlus — Pulse — Normal results (resting adult pulse); DANB GC Exam Outline and References (effective 07/01/2022) — Domain I.A.2 Vital signs

Correct answer: A. It raises the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw after an extraction.

Bisphosphonates, especially potent IV forms such as zoledronic acid, are linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw, and tooth extraction is a recognized trigger. Intrinsic staining of developing teeth is the classic tetracycline effect, not a bisphosphonate effect. Bisphosphonates do not rule out local anesthetic, and gingival overgrowth is associated with other drug groups.

Source: StatPearls — Bisphosphonate-Related Jaw Osteonecrosis (NCBI Bookshelf) — Risk factors (invasive procedures; IV nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates)

Correct answer: D. K

Primary teeth are lettered A through T. Lettering starts at the maxillary right second molar (A), runs across to the maxillary left second molar (J), drops to the mandibular left second molar (K), and ends at the mandibular right second molar (T). L is the mandibular left first molar.

Source: MSD Manual — Identifying the primary (baby) teeth — Universal lettering A–T

Correct answer: B. Angle Class I

Angle's classes are based on the first-molar relationship. When the maxillary mesiobuccal cusp sits in the mandibular buccal groove, the molars are Class I even if other teeth are crowded. In Class II that cusp sits mesial to the groove (the divisions describe incisor inclination); in Class III it sits distal to the groove.

Source: J. Am. Orthodontic Society — Molar relationships (Angle) — Molar relationships of the permanent dentition

Correct answer: B. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3)

The inferior alveolar nerve arises from the posterior division of the mandibular nerve (V3), enters the mandibular foramen and supplies the mandibular teeth. V2 serves maxillary structures. The facial nerve is mainly motor to the muscles of facial expression, and the glossopharyngeal nerve serves the posterior tongue and pharynx.

Source: StatPearls — Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block — Branches of the mandibular nerve

Correct answer: D. Class V

Class V lesions are in the cervical third of the facial or lingual surface of any tooth. Class III is a proximal surface of an anterior tooth without the incisal angle, Class IV includes the incisal angle, and Class VI is an incisal edge or cusp tip.

Source: StatPearls — Dental Caries Classification Systems — Black classification of dental caries

Correct answer: A. The proposed treatment, its risks and benefits, and the alternatives.

Informed consent means the patient understands what is proposed, its risks and benefits, and the reasonable alternatives, including no treatment or deferred care. Fees and scheduling matter but do not let a patient weigh the treatment itself, and credentials or brand names are not the core of consent.

Source: AAPD — Behavior Guidance for the Pediatric Dental Patient — Informed consent (risks, benefits, alternatives, including no treatment)

Correct answer: D. Give about 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate, such as juice, and recheck in 15 minutes.

A skipped meal plus sweating, shakiness and confusion points to low blood glucose. For a conscious person, the 15–15 rule applies: 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate, then recheck in 15 minutes and repeat if needed. Insulin would lower glucose further, nitroglycerin is for angina, and withholding sugar from a conscious patient delays the treatment they need.

Source: American Diabetes Association — Hypoglycemia in Diabetes (15–15 rule) — 15–15 rule (only if person is conscious)

Correct answer: B. Explain the handpiece simply, let the child feel it on a fingernail, then use it.

Tell-show-do is a basic behavior guidance technique: tell the child what will happen in age-appropriate words, show it, then do it. Surprising the child or making promises you cannot keep damages trust, and sending a parent out is a different decision that does not explain anything to the child.

Source: AAPD — Behavior Guidance for the Pediatric Dental Patient — Basic behavior guidance techniques (tell-show-do)

Correct answer: D. Book the first appointment of the day.

CDC suggests scheduling patients with latex allergy for the first appointment of the day to reduce exposure to latex proteins that become airborne from glove powder and dust. Later appointments allow more of those particles to build up, and a mask in the waiting room does not create a latex-safe treatment area.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Contact Dermatitis and Latex Hypersensitivity, p. 20

Correct answer: C. Do not drink through a straw, spit or rinse vigorously.

The first goal is to protect the blood clot in the socket. Suction from a straw, spitting and vigorous rinsing can dislodge it. Gentle warm salt-water rinses usually start the next day, and the site should not be brushed directly on the first day.

Source: Mass General Dental Group — Instructions Following Extractions — Instructions 2–3

Correct answer: B. Draw a single line through the entry so it stays readable, then initial and date the correction.

A correction must leave the original entry readable: strike it with a single line, mark it as an error, then initial and date the correction. Correction fluid, erasing, blacking out or replacing pages makes the record look altered, which is a serious problem if it is ever reviewed.

Source: MLMIC — FAQs About Dental Records — How do I appropriately document the paper dental record?

Correct answer: B. Decline to share any information, because the patient objected to disclosure to him.

HIPAA lets a provider share relevant information with a family member when the patient agrees or does not object. Here she objected, so nothing about her care should be shared with him. Appointment details are still information about her care, and knowing her date of birth does not change her objection.

Source: HHS HIPAA FAQ 530 — Discussing information with family — FAQ 530 examples

Correct answer: D. That state's dental practice act and dental board rules.

Each state's dental board sets which duties a dental assistant may legally perform. DANB states that passing its exams or earning certification only conveys authority where a state recognizes it. OSHA regulates worker safety and CDC issues infection-control guidance; neither defines assistant duties.

Source: DANB GC Exam Outline and References (effective 07/01/2022) — State Regulations, p. 9

Correct answer: D. The employer, at no cost to the employee.

When there is occupational exposure, OSHA requires the employer to provide appropriate personal protective equipment at no cost to the employee. The employer must also clean, repair, replace and dispose of it at no cost.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(iv)–(v)

Correct answer: D. Oxygen is green; nitrous oxide is blue.

Under 21 CFR 201.328, oxygen is identified by green and nitrous oxide by blue on U.S. high-pressure medical-gas cylinders. Color is a safety aid, not a substitute for reading the cylinder label before use.

Source: 21 CFR 201.328 — Labeling of medical gas containers — paragraphs (b)–(c)

Correct answer: B. 2 to 4 o'clock

For a right-handed operator, the operator's zone is 7 to 12 o'clock, the assistant's zone is 2 to 4, the transfer zone is 4 to 7, and the static zone is 12 to 2.

Source: Dentalcare CE 643 — Four-Handed Dentistry: zones of activity and instrument transfer — Zones of activity

Correct answer: C. With your left hand, in the transfer zone (4 to 7 o'clock).

For a right-handed operator, the assistant transfers with the left hand and keeps the oral evacuator in the right hand, exchanging instruments in the transfer zone. Putting the HVE down stops suction, passing over the face risks injury, and the static zone is for equipment, not exchanges.

Source: Dentalcare CE 643 — Four-Handed Dentistry: zones of activity and instrument transfer — Instrument transfer; zones of activity

Correct answer: D. The high-volume evacuator (HVE)

High-velocity evacuation, along with a dental dam, is what CDC names for minimizing droplets, spatter and aerosols. A saliva ejector is a low-volume device, the air-water syringe moves fluid rather than removing it, and cotton rolls cannot keep up with handpiece spray.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Personal Protective Equipment, p. 16; Saliva Ejectors, p. 31

Correct answer: B. So the clamp can be retrieved if it breaks or slips off.

A floss ligature on the clamp is a safety line: if the clamp fractures or pops off, it can be pulled out before it is swallowed or aspirated. Floss is also used to pass the dam through contacts, but that is a separate step, and the ligature does nothing to protect enamel or tighten the dam.

Source: DMI — Dental Dam product and technique information — Clamp positioned with bow distal; tie floss around the clamp for safe retrieval

Correct answer: A. Cut the interseptal dam before removal, then check the removed dam for missing pieces.

Cutting the septa lets the dam come off without being dragged through the contacts. Checking the removed dam for integrity matters because a missing fragment may still be lodged between the teeth and should be located, usually with floss.

Source: NSCC Dental Skills Manual (CC BY 4.0), 2.7 Placement and Removal of Dental Dam — Procedure protocol (septum cut prior to removal; dam checked for integrity; flossed contacts)

Correct answer: D. Diagonal slot toward the gingiva, with the smaller band circumference at the gingival edge.

The retainer is placed parallel to the buccal surface with its diagonal slot facing the gingiva, so it can be slid off toward the occlusal later. The band's smaller circumference goes toward the gingiva because the tooth is narrower at the cervical than at the contact.

Sources: NSCC Dental Skills Manual (CC BY 4.0), 2.15 Placement and Removal of Matrixes and Wedges — Retainer parallel to buccal surface, diagonal slot toward gingiva; Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Matrix Band Placement — Smaller circumference of band always toward gingiva

Correct answer: B. Holds the band tight against the gingival margin and slightly separates the teeth.

The wedge presses the band firmly against the tooth at the gingival margin, which helps prevent an overhang of restorative material, and it slightly separates the teeth to make up for the band's thickness so a tight contact can be formed.

Source: CUNY City Tech DEN 2318 — Matrix band, wedge (lab session notes) — Wedge: presses band against tooth; slight separation

Correct answer: A. To displace the gingiva and control fluid so the impression records the margin.

Retraction temporarily moves the gingival margin away from the tooth and controls sulcular fluid and bleeding, exposing the finish line so the impression records it accurately. It is not an anesthetic, it plays no part in seating a provisional, and the point is to let material reach the margin, not keep it out.

Source: Gingival retraction methods — critical literature review (Av Odontoestomatol) — Abstract (purpose of gingival retraction)

Correct answer: C. It is applied to the injection site for about a minute or longer before the injection.

Topical anesthetic numbs the surface at the injection site, so it is placed before the injection and left for at least about a minute (follow the product instructions). Applying it afterward, wiping it briefly over a large area or adding it to the cartridge defeats its purpose.

Source: Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Tooth Extraction protocol — Step 4 (topical placed for a minimum of 1 minute, then local anesthesia)

Correct answer: B. To check that the needle tip is not inside a blood vessel.

The pterygomandibular space is highly vascular, and positive aspiration happens in a meaningful share of IANB injections. Aspirating shows whether the needle tip is in a vessel; injecting anesthetic with a vasoconstrictor into a vessel can cause cardiovascular and nervous system effects.

Sources: PMC — Incidence of intravascular needle entrance during IANB injection — Abstract; StatPearls — Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block — Technique overview

Correct answer: A. To act as a throat screen if the tooth slips from the forceps.

A gauze throat screen catches the tooth or fragments if they slip from the forceps, protecting the airway. It has no anesthetic effect and no role in marking a site for imaging.

Source: Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Tooth Extraction protocol — Procedure (4x4 gauze as a throat screen)

Correct answer: B. To luxate the tooth and expand the socket so the forceps can deliver it.

The elevator loosens (luxates) the tooth and expands the bone so the tooth can be delivered easily with forceps. Sectioning is done with a bur, retraction with a retractor or mirror, and socket debridement with a curette.

Source: Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Tooth Extraction protocol — Procedure (straight elevator luxation, then forceps)

Correct answer: C. Have the patient bite firmly on folded gauze over the socket, often for 20 to 30 minutes.

Firm, steady pressure on folded gauze lets a clot form. Frequent rinsing or repeatedly checking the gauze disturbs the clot, and cotton rolls left in a socket overnight are not standard care.

Sources: Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Tooth Extraction protocol — Patient bites on folded gauze for 30 minutes; Mass General Dental Group — Instructions Following Extractions — Instruction 1 (at least 20 minutes)

Correct answer: A. Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)

Dry socket is loss of the blood clot, leaving exposed bone; its hallmark is pain that increases a few days after extraction, and it is most common after lower third molar removal. Normal healing pain decreases. Pericoronitis is inflammation around a partly erupted tooth, and paresthesia is altered sensation, not throbbing pain with exposed bone.

Source: StatPearls — Alveolar Osteitis — Introduction; history and physical

Correct answer: A. 100% oxygen for at least 5 minutes.

Nitrous oxide leaves the body quickly after the flow is stopped. Current AAPD occupational-safety guidance recommends 100% oxygen for at least five minutes after terminating nitrous oxide to replace the gas in the delivery system; the patient should also return to pretreatment responsiveness before discharge. Switching straight to room air skips the recommended post-treatment oxygen step.

Source: AAPD — Policy on Minimizing Occupational Health Hazards Associated with Nitrous Oxide — policy statement (100% oxygen for at least five minutes after terminating N2O flow)

Correct answer: C. Using a scavenging system with a well-fitting nasal hood.

Scavenging removes exhaled and leaked nitrous oxide at the source, and a good-fitting hood limits leaks. A surgical mask does not filter a gas, running gas before the patient is connected adds waste, and ending without oxygen is unsafe for the patient.

Source: AAPD — Policy on Minimizing Occupational Health Hazards Associated with Nitrous Oxide — Recommendations (use scavenging systems)

Correct answer: D. Sensitivity is common and usually temporary; call so the dentist can adjust the regimen.

Tooth sensitivity is the most commonly reported whitening side effect, and it is usually short-lived once bleaching is reduced or stopped. The dentist can change wear time or frequency. Wearing trays longer increases exposure and tends to make sensitivity worse.

Source: Dentalcare CE 491 — Whitening side effects — Side effects (tooth sensitivity)

Correct answer: A. An ill-fitting tray or too much gel reaching the gingiva.

Peroxide that contacts the gingiva irritates it, and that usually happens when trays fit poorly, too much gel is loaded or trays are worn longer than directed. Wearing them for less time would reduce, not cause, irritation.

Source: Dentalcare CE 491 — Whitening side effects — Side effects (gingival irritation)

Correct answer: B. Rinse, dry and re-etch the contaminated area before placing sealant.

Saliva contamination of etched enamel undermines the bond, and it is the main cause of sealant failure. The fix is to re-etch briefly, rinse and dry. Extra air-drying does not remove the salivary film, and fluoride varnish under a sealant would interfere with bonding.

Sources: Columbia University College of Dental Medicine — Sealant technique update outline — Salivary contamination (must re-etch, wash and dry); J Appl Oral Sci — Saliva contamination and re-etching time on sealant bond strength — Introduction (saliva contamination as main cause of failure)

Correct answer: D. Light, intermittent pressure at a slow handpiece speed.

Speed and pressure both increase abrasion and frictional heat, so light, intermittent contact at a slow speed is the safe technique. Running the cup without paste or holding it in one place adds friction without polishing.

Source: Inside Dental Assisting — Factors in Coronal Polishing — Coronal polishing decisions (light pressure and slower speed)

Correct answer: A. Composite is relatively soft, so coarse paste can roughen or scratch it.

Composite has a low hardness compared with many prophy paste abrasives, so a coarse paste can damage its surface. The choice is a finer or restoration-safe polishing agent, not a ban on polishing restorations.

Source: Inside Dental Assisting — Factors in Coronal Polishing — Fundamentals of coronal polishing (composites susceptible to damage)

Correct answer: C. The abutment

An implant restoration has three main parts: the fixture in the bone, the abutment that connects to it, and the crown on top. A pontic is the replacement tooth in a fixed bridge, and a healing cap is a temporary cover during healing.

Source: Dandy learning center — Dental implant parts — Three dental implant parts

Correct answer: C. Loosen the retainer, remove the wedge, then ease the band out toward the occlusal.

Loosening the retainer and removing the wedge first relieves pressure, then the retainer is slid occlusally and the band removed gently so the fresh restoration's marginal ridge does not fracture. The used band is discarded in the sharps container.

Source: NSCC Dental Skills Manual (CC BY 4.0), 2.15 Placement and Removal of Matrixes and Wedges — Procedure protocol (loosen retainer, remove wedge, slide toward occlusal, remove matrix)

Correct answer: A. A saliva ejector (low-volume evacuator)

The dam isolates the tooth but saliva still collects underneath it, so a low-volume saliva ejector is placed in the mouth under the dam. The HVE works on the operative side, and the air-water syringe and a cotton roll do not remove pooled saliva.

Source: NSCC Dental Skills Manual (CC BY 4.0), 2.7 Placement and Removal of Dental Dam — Procedure protocol (LVE suction placed in oral cavity)

Correct answer: D. Use cooler water.

Water temperature controls alginate set: warmer water speeds it up and cooler water slows it down. More powder makes it set faster, and over-mixing cuts into working time rather than adding to it.

Source: StatPearls — Dental Alginate (CE activity) — Setting mechanism

Correct answer: C. It loses or absorbs water (syneresis and imbibition), which distorts it.

Alginate gives off water (syneresis) or takes it up (imbibition) depending on how it is stored, changing its dimensions. Pouring as soon as practical limits that distortion. Alginate is an irreversible hydrocolloid, so it does not melt back.

Source: StatPearls — Dental Alginate (CE activity) — Dimensional stability

Correct answer: D. Latex can interfere with the setting of vinyl polysiloxane.

CDC notes that latex gloves can interfere with the setting of vinyl polysiloxane impression materials, while synthetic vinyl gloves apparently do not. PVS is a two-paste material with no water, it can be mixed on a pad or auto-mixed, and it is not light-cured.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Glove Integrity, p. 18

Correct answer: A. Residual eugenol can inhibit polymerization of resin materials.

Eugenol is a phenolic compound that can react with free radicals and inhibit polymerization of resin monomers, which may weaken a later composite bond. That is why many clinicians choose eugenol-free temporaries before resin work.

Source: J Dent Mater Tech — Effect of ZOE temporary restorations on composite bond strength — Introduction (eugenol and resin polymerization)

Correct answer: D. It is weaker and more porous.

A higher water-to-powder ratio leaves fewer crystals per volume and more voids, so the cast is weaker; it also lengthens setting time. Measure water and powder as the manufacturer directs.

Source: Braz J Oral Sci — Water/powder ratio and compressive strength of Type IV gypsum — Introduction (water/powder ratio effects)

Correct answer: C. Store it in a sealed, labeled container for recycling according to regulations.

Amalgam contains mercury, so it should not go into regular trash or infectious-waste (red bag) containers, which may be incinerated, and it should never be rinsed down the drain. It is collected in a sealed container and recycled.

Source: U.S. Army Public Health Center — Management of Waste Dental Amalgam (FS 37-004-0221) — Disposal guidance

Correct answer: A. Dental stone (Type III) or a higher-strength stone

Stone needs less water than plaster, so it sets denser and stronger; die stones are stronger still. Plaster is weaker and more porous and suits study models where strength matters less.

Source: Gypsum products lecture (Univ. of Thi-Qar) — Types of gypsum; factors affecting strength

Correct answer: B. Phosphoric acid gel (about 35% to 37%)

Enamel is etched with phosphoric acid gel, typically around 35% to 37%, then rinsed and dried before sealant is applied. Hydrogen peroxide is a whitening agent, sodium hypochlorite an irrigant and disinfectant, and calcium hydroxide a liner.

Source: J Appl Oral Sci — Saliva contamination and re-etching time on sealant bond strength — Methods (37% phosphoric acid)

Correct answer: C. Bitewings

Bitewings show the crowns of the upper and lower teeth in one area and the crest of the supporting bone, which is why they are used to detect decay between teeth and bone changes from periodontal disease. Periapicals show entire teeth, an occlusal image shows a large area of one arch, and a panoramic image is not the image of choice for interproximal decay.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Full mouth series (bitewing and periapical purposes), p. 1

Correct answer: A. The whole tooth plus about 2 to 3 mm of bone beyond the apex.

A periapical image shows the entire tooth plus 2 to 3 mm past the apex so the root and surrounding bone can be evaluated. Crowns in occlusion describe a bitewing, and condyle to condyle describes a panoramic image.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Periapical radiographs, p. 1

Correct answer: A. The receptor is parallel to the long axis of the tooth, and the central ray is perpendicular to both.

Paralleling places the receptor parallel to the tooth's long axis, and a positioning device aligns the central ray perpendicular to both, which gives the least distortion. Directing the beam at an imaginary bisector describes the bisecting technique.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Paralleling technique; XCP film positioning devices, pp. 2, 9–10

Correct answer: D. When a low palatal vault or a small mouth will not accept a paralleling holder.

Paralleling is preferred because it gives less distortion and less radiation. The bisecting technique may be needed for patients who cannot accommodate the paralleling holder, such as adults with low palatal vaults and children.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Bisecting and paralleling, p. 2

Correct answer: B. Too much vertical angulation

Foreshortening comes from excessive vertical angulation; elongation comes from insufficient vertical angulation. Incorrect horizontal angulation overlaps contacts, and movement blurs the image.

Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 20.2 — angulation — Vertical angulation; rules for bisecting technique

Correct answer: D. Insufficient vertical angulation

Elongated images come from insufficient vertical angulation, when the central ray is aimed more toward the tooth's long axis than the bisector. Excessive angulation foreshortens, and incomplete PID coverage produces a cone cut.

Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 20.2 — angulation — Vertical angulation

Correct answer: A. Horizontal angulation, so the central ray passes through the contact areas.

Overlapped contacts come from incorrect horizontal angulation. The central ray must be directed through the interproximal contacts, perpendicular to the curve of the arch. Vertical angulation affects image length, and exposure time affects density.

Sources: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — How does overlapping happen?, pp. 26–27; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 20.2 — angulation — Horizontal angulation

Correct answer: B. The x-ray beam did not cover the whole receptor (cone cut).

A cone cut is an unexposed area that occurs when the PID is not aligned to cover the receptor; a round PID leaves a curved edge and a rectangular PID leaves a straight one. A positioning device helps prevent it. Movement blurs the image and overexposure darkens it.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — What is a cone cut?, pp. 34–35

Correct answer: B. Through the contacts between the maxillary first and second molars.

For a molar bitewing, the central ray is directed through the contact areas between the maxillary first and second molars to open the contacts. For a premolar bitewing, it is directed between the maxillary first and second premolars.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Bitewing quiz answers, p. 30

Correct answer: D. About +8 to +10 degrees

With bitewing tabs, the PID is angled about +8 to +10 degrees vertically, with the patient's chin parallel to the floor. Much steeper angles belong to occlusal or some maxillary periapical projections, and negative angles point upward.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Bitewing images using tabs, pp. 22–24

Correct answer: A. Removing the patient's partial denture or other removable appliance.

Removable appliances left in the mouth superimpose over the teeth and must be removed before exposure. Chin position affects angulation, holding still prevents blur, and exposure time affects density, not a superimposed object.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Superimposed image, p. 32

Correct answer: C. Movement of the patient, receptor or tubehead.

Blur comes from movement during exposure. Stabilize the receptor with a positioning device, ask the patient to hold still, and do not expose while the tubehead is drifting. Angulation and alignment errors cause distortion and cone cuts, not blur.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Blurred image, p. 31

Correct answer: D. Start with anterior images, work quickly and have the patient breathe through the nose.

Starting with anterior images lets the patient get used to the procedure before posterior placements that tend to trigger gagging. Working quickly and having the patient breathe deeply through the nose or wiggle the toes also helps. Leaving the receptor in longer makes gagging more likely.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Gagging; exposure routine, p. 39

Correct answer: A. The tongue was not placed against the roof of the mouth.

When the tongue is not against the palate, the air space between the tongue and the palate shows as a radiolucent band over the maxillary root apices. It is the most common panoramic error. A low chin causes an exaggerated smile line, and open lips cause a dark shadow around the anterior teeth.

Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Panoramic errors in technique — Patient positioning errors (tongue against palate)

Correct answer: B. The patient's chin was tipped too low.

With the chin too low, the occlusal plane curves up sharply into an exaggerated smile and the mandibular incisors may fall out of the focal trough. A chin tipped too high flattens or reverses the smile line.

Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Panoramic errors in technique — Table 5, patient positioning errors

Correct answer: C. Lingual (palatal) to the adjacent teeth

The buccal object rule (SLOB) says that an object that moves in the same direction as the PID shift is lingual, and an object that moves opposite to the shift is buccal.

Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 23.2 Localization techniques — Buccal object rule

Correct answer: D. The pulp chamber and root canals

Dense structures such as enamel and metal restorations block x-rays and appear radiopaque (light). Less dense structures such as the pulp let more x-rays reach the receptor and appear radiolucent (dark). Dentin and cortical bone are lighter than the pulp, so neither belongs in a radiolucent pair here.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Density and contrast; how this happens, pp. 3–4

Correct answer: C. Light exposure before scanning degrades the stored latent image.

A PSP plate stores the image as trapped energy until it is scanned, and ambient light before scanning reduces image quality. Bright light is in fact how plates are erased for reuse, so keep exposed plates shielded and scan them promptly.

Source: PMC — Ambient light and PSP plate image quality (2024) — Abstract and introduction

Correct answer: C. Kilovoltage (kV/kVp)

Kilovoltage sets the energy of the x-ray photons, which determines penetrating power, and it strongly affects contrast. Milliamperage and exposure time control how many photons are produced (quantity). Collimation controls beam size.

Source: NIMDTA training note — Exposure settings (kV, mA, time) — Kilovoltage; milliamperage; time

Correct answer: C. Milliamperage and exposure time

Milliamperage sets the tube current, and with exposure time (mAs) it determines how many photons are produced and the overall darkening of the image. Kilovoltage affects energy, filtration removes low-energy photons, and collimation limits beam size.

Source: NIMDTA training note — Exposure settings (kV, mA, time) — Milliamperage; time

Correct answer: D. Increase the exposure time and keep the PID close to the face.

Images that are too light have too little exposure: settings are low or the source is too far from the patient. Increasing exposure time (or mA/kV as the unit allows) and keeping the PID close to the aiming ring and face correct it. The other options reduce exposure further.

Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 3: Radiographic Techniques — Image too light: cause and correction, p. 5

Correct answer: D. At least 6 feet from the tubehead, at a 90- to 135-degree angle to the primary beam.

Without a barrier, stand at least 6 feet from the tubehead and out of the primary beam, at a 90- to 135-degree angle to it. Standing in line with the beam or holding the tubehead puts you in the primary beam, and scatter radiation does occur.

Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.3 Operator Protection — Operator protection; Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Protection of the operator

Correct answer: B. Hold the receptor in the patient's mouth during the exposure.

The operator must never hold a receptor for a patient or hold the tubehead during exposure, because that puts the operator in the primary beam. Positioning devices, a smaller receptor, clear explanation and asking the dentist are all appropriate.

Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.3 Operator Protection — Operator protection; Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Never hold a receptor for a patient

Correct answer: B. Rectangular collimation, restricting the beam to the area being imaged.

The 2024 recommendations call for restricting the beam to the area being imaged (rectangular collimation), using digital rather than film, positioning patients properly, using CBCT only when lower-exposure options will not provide the needed information, and ordering images only when justified.

Source: ADA — Updated Recommendations to Enhance Radiography Safety in Dentistry (Feb 1, 2024) — Recommendations list

Correct answer: A. Only when lower-exposure imaging will not provide the necessary diagnostic information.

The ADA recommends incorporating CBCT only when lower-exposure options will not provide the needed diagnostic information. Routine or baseline CBCT conflicts with the principle of justifying every exposure.

Source: ADA — Updated Recommendations to Enhance Radiography Safety in Dentistry (Feb 1, 2024) — Recommendations list

Correct answer: C. 0.05 Sv (50 mSv), equal to 5 rem

10 CFR 20.1201 sets the adult occupational TEDE limit at 5 rem (0.05 Sv), or 50 mSv. The 0.5 Sv figure is a different limit for an individual organ or tissue, skin, or an extremity. Dental x-ray equipment is regulated primarily under applicable state rules, so the rule that governs an actual dental workplace must also be checked; ALARA still means keeping exposures as low as reasonably achievable.

Source: 10 CFR 20.1201 — Occupational dose limits for adults — paragraph (a)

Correct answer: D. Rapidly dividing, less-differentiated cells, such as blood-forming cells.

Radiosensitivity rises with reproductive activity and falls with differentiation. Rapidly dividing, immature cells such as blood-forming cells are most sensitive; highly differentiated nerve and muscle cells are among the least sensitive.

Source: AEC training — Variables in dose effects (Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau) — Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau

Correct answer: D. Use a barrier, then clean and disinfect it with an intermediate-level disinfectant the maker approves.

Digital sensors are semicritical. Ideally they would be heat-sterilized or high-level disinfected, but most cannot tolerate that, so CDC calls for an FDA-cleared barrier plus cleaning and disinfection with an intermediate-level disinfectant the sensor manufacturer approves. Barriers can fail, so a water wipe is not enough.

Source: CDC — Summary slide series, Module 7: Sterilization and Disinfection (script) — Special considerations — digital sensors

Correct answer: C. Semicritical, because it contacts mucous membranes.

Items that touch mucous membranes but do not penetrate tissue are semicritical. A barrier does not change the category. Critical items penetrate soft tissue or bone.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Table 4, p. 20; CDC — Summary slide series, Module 7: Sterilization and Disinfection (script) — Digital sensors are semicritical

Correct answer: D. Cleaned, packaged and heat-sterilized.

Positioning devices go into the mouth, so they are semicritical, and semicritical items that tolerate heat should be heat-sterilized. Most positioning devices are heat-tolerant.

Sources: Wisconsin DOC Dental Radiation Policy, Attachment C — Infection Control for Digital Radiography — Infection control for sensors (positioning devices heat tolerant; heat sterilize); CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization and disinfection of patient-care items, p. 20

Correct answer: A. As noncritical: barrier it, or clean and disinfect it, between patients.

CDC lists the radiograph head and cone as noncritical items: they contact only intact skin. Barrier protection or cleaning and disinfection is appropriate, and contaminated gloves touch the tubehead during every exposure.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Table 4 (radiograph head/cone noncritical), p. 20

Correct answer: B. Gloves, plus a mask, eyewear and gown if spatter of saliva or blood is likely.

Placing receptors involves contact with saliva, so gloves are worn, and additional PPE is used if spatter is likely, for example with a gagging or coughing patient. Sterile surgical gloves are not needed for radiography.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Dental Radiology, p. 31; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(ix) gloves; (d)(3)(x) masks and eye protection

Correct answer: C. An alcohol-based hand rub, rubbed in until dry.

For routine, nonsurgical procedures, CDC says an alcohol-based hand rub is adequate when hands are not visibly soiled; use soap and water when they are. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene, and gloves should never be washed and reused.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Hand Hygiene, p. 15; Table 2

Correct answer: D. Barrier-protect them and change the barriers between patients, or use disinfectable equipment.

Computer equipment in the operatory is a clinical contact surface that is hard to disinfect, so barrier protection (or disinfectable covers) changed between patients is recommended. Removing and reusing gloves contaminates the gloves and is not acceptable.

Source: Wisconsin DOC Dental Radiation Policy, Attachment C — Infection Control for Digital Radiography — Infection control for computer equipment in the dental operatory

Correct answer: A. Treat the pouch as contaminated and remove the plate without touching it with soiled gloves.

The barrier covering is contaminated with saliva, so it must be disinfected or handled with gloves and opened so the plate drops out clean; otherwise contamination is carried into the scanner. PSP plates cannot be heat-sterilized.

Source: Dimensions of Dental Hygiene — The Radiology Chain of Asepsis — Receptor barrier covering disinfected before processing; PSP plates cannot be sterilized by heat

Correct answer: B. An EPA-registered hospital disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim.

When a noncritical item or surface is visibly contaminated with blood, CDC recommends an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim. High-level disinfectants and sterilants are not for environmental surfaces, and soap and water alone is not enough.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization and disinfection of patient-care items, p. 20; chemical sterilants misapplication, p. 22

Correct answer: B. The susceptible host

Infection requires a pathogen, a reservoir, a mode of transmission, a portal of entry and a susceptible host. Vaccination makes the person immune, so they are no longer a susceptible host. Barriers and work practices target the mode of transmission instead.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Background (chain of infection), p. 2

Correct answer: A. Blood, all body fluids except sweat, nonintact skin and mucous membranes.

Standard precautions cover blood; all body fluids, secretions and excretions except sweat, whether or not blood is visible; nonintact skin; and mucous membranes. They apply to every patient, because infected patients may have no symptoms.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Background (standard precautions), p. 2

Correct answer: A. Wash with soap and water, dry thoroughly, then put on new gloves.

An alcohol-based hand rub is adequate only when hands are not visibly soiled, and it should not be used on visible soil or organic material. Visibly soiled hands need washing with soap and water, and hands should be dried thoroughly before gloving.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Hand Hygiene, p. 15; Table 2

Correct answer: C. 1 to 2 months after the final dose

CDC recommends testing dental personnel for anti-HBs 1 to 2 months after completing the series. Prevaccination testing is not routinely indicated, and booster doses and periodic testing are not needed for people who respond to the vaccine.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Hepatitis B Virus, p. 11

Correct answer: C. Change the mask, between patients or during the procedure when possible.

A wet mask resists airflow, so more air passes around its edges instead of through it. CDC advises changing a wet mask between patients or even during treatment when possible. Disinfectant spray and wearing it under the chin defeat its purpose.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Masks, protective eyewear, face shields, p. 17

Correct answer: B. Mask the patient, separate them from others, defer elective care and refer them.

Standard precautions are not enough for TB. The patient should wear a mask, be separated from others and be referred promptly; elective treatment is deferred until a physician says the patient is not infectious. Urgent care requires airborne isolation and respiratory protection such as a fitted N95.

Source: ADA — Oral Health Topics: Tuberculosis — Tuberculosis in the dental setting

Correct answer: A. Gloves

Gloves are usually the most contaminated item, so they come off first (or together with the gown in CDC's alternative method), followed by eyewear, gown and mask. Perform hand hygiene immediately after removing all PPE.

Source: CDC — Sequence for Putting On and Removing PPE — How to safely remove PPE

Correct answer: A. Semicritical; heat-sterilize it between patients.

Semicritical items touch mucous membranes or nonintact skin without penetrating tissue. Because most semicritical dental items tolerate heat, they should be heat-sterilized; high-level disinfection is the minimum only for heat-sensitive items.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Table 4 and text, p. 20

Correct answer: C. No more than 500 CFU/mL of heterotrophic water bacteria.

CDC recommends dental treatment water that meets EPA drinking-water standards, 500 CFU/mL or less of heterotrophic bacteria. Untreated dental units cannot reliably meet this, so waterlines need treatment and monitoring. Sterile water is reserved for surgical procedures.

Source: CDC — Dental Unit Water Quality (Summary of Infection Prevention Practices) — Dental unit water quality

Correct answer: C. Discharge water and air for at least 20 to 30 seconds.

CDC recommends discharging water and air for a minimum of 20 to 30 seconds after each patient from any device connected to the dental water system that enters the mouth, to physically flush out patient material that may have entered the lines.

Source: CDC — Summary slide series, Module 9: Dental Unit Water Quality (script) — CDC recommendations for dental unit water quality

Correct answer: C. Sterile saline or sterile water delivered through a sterile device.

For surgical procedures, CDC calls for sterile solutions such as sterile saline or sterile water delivered with a sterile delivery device. Dental unit water, even when it meets the drinking-water benchmark, is not sterile.

Source: CDC — Dental Unit Water Quality (Summary of Infection Prevention Practices) — Surgical procedures (sterile irrigating solutions)

Correct answer: D. It can create a partial vacuum that lets fluid in the suction line flow back into the mouth.

When a patient seals their lips around the tip, previously suctioned fluid can flow back into the mouth. Backflow is also more likely when the tubing is above the patient's mouth or when the saliva ejector is used at the same time as other suction.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Saliva Ejectors, p. 31

Correct answer: A. Rinse it, disinfect it with a material-compatible intermediate-level disinfectant, then rinse again.

Impressions, prostheses and appliances should be cleaned, disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim, and rinsed before they are handled in the office lab or sent out. Use a method that matches the impression material's instructions so accuracy is not affected; heat or overnight soaks would distort it.

Sources: Dentistry Today — Disinfecting impressions and prostheses — Steps for disinfecting impressions; CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Dental Laboratory, p. 33

Correct answer: B. Keep it out of incinerated medical waste; send it to an amalgam recycler.

Because of mercury, CDC says teeth with amalgam should not go in medical waste containers that use incineration, such as red bags or sharps containers, and they should not be heat-sterilized. Many metal recycling companies accept them.

Source: CDC — Handling Extracted Teeth — Teeth containing amalgam

Correct answer: C. Return it on request; once returned, it is no longer considered a risk to staff.

Extracted teeth are regulated medical waste when discarded, but CDC states they can be returned to patients on request, and once returned they are no longer considered a potential risk to dental personnel.

Source: CDC — Handling Extracted Teeth — Handling extracted teeth

Correct answer: A. Replace them between patients, and disinfect any surface that gets contaminated under one.

Barriers are single-use covers that are changed between patients. If a barrier tears or contamination gets underneath it, the surface needs to be cleaned and disinfected before a new barrier goes on.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Environmental Infection Control, pp. 25–26; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(4)(ii)(B) protective coverings

Correct answer: C. Discard it after one patient; single-use devices are not reprocessed.

Single-use devices are made to be used on one patient and then discarded. A device without reprocessing instructions should be treated as single-use.

Sources: Dentsply Sirona — Operatory infection prevention (citing CDC single-use devices) — Single-use devices (citing CDC); CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Single-Use or Disposable Devices, p. 32

Correct answer: D. Washing gloves can create micropunctures that let liquids seep through (wicking).

Washing latex gloves with soap, chlorhexidine or alcohol can form micropunctures and lead to hand contamination, so washing gloves is not recommended. OSHA also prohibits washing or decontaminating disposable gloves for reuse.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Glove Integrity, p. 18; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(ix)(B)

Correct answer: B. Remove the gloves, perform hand hygiene and put on new gloves as soon as feasible.

Disposable gloves must be replaced as soon as feasible when torn or punctured. Hand hygiene is performed before regloving because hands may have been contaminated through the tear.

Sources: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(ix)(A); CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Table 2 (before regloving after torn gloves), p. 15

Correct answer: A. Debris left on instruments can interfere with sterilization.

Cleaning must come before all disinfection and sterilization. Visible debris, organic or inorganic, interferes with killing microorganisms and can compromise the process.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Receiving, Cleaning, and Decontamination, p. 21

Correct answer: D. Wear puncture-resistant utility gloves and scrub with a long-handled brush.

CDC recommends heavy-duty, puncture-resistant utility gloves and work-practice controls such as a long-handled brush. Never reach into a container of sharp instruments you cannot see, and wear a mask, eye protection and gown because splashing is likely.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Receiving, Cleaning, and Decontamination, p. 21

Correct answer: C. A puncture-resistant container with detergent or an enzymatic cleaner.

Holding instruments in a detergent, disinfectant/detergent or enzymatic cleaner keeps patient material from drying on them. CDC specifically says not to use a liquid chemical sterilant such as glutaraldehyde as a holding solution, and dried debris makes cleaning harder.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Receiving, Cleaning, and Decontamination, p. 21

Correct answer: B. Open and unlocked

Hinged instruments are processed open and unlocked so the sterilizing agent reaches all surfaces, including the hinge.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Preparation and Packaging, p. 21

Correct answer: D. Inside every package, plus an external indicator if the internal one cannot be seen from outside.

An internal chemical indicator goes in every package to show the sterilizing agent reached the instruments. An external indicator, such as indicator tape, is added when the internal one is not visible. Chemical indicators do not prove sterility; biological indicators test that.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Preparation and Packaging, p. 21; Sterilization Monitoring, p. 23

Correct answer: B. Let them dry inside the sterilizer and cool before handling.

Packs should dry inside the chamber and should not be touched until they are cool and dry, because hot, damp packs act as wicks that absorb moisture and bacteria from hands.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization Procedures, p. 22

Correct answer: A. At least weekly, with a control indicator from the same lot that is not run through the sterilizer.

CDC recommends spore testing each sterilizer at least weekly, and every load that contains an implantable device. A control from the same lot, not processed, is incubated with the test and should show growth. Some state rules set different frequencies, so follow the stricter requirement that applies.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization Monitoring, pp. 23–24; CDC — Best Practices for Sterilization Monitoring in Dental Settings — Best practices

Correct answer: C. Take the sterilizer out of service, review procedures and repeat the spore test with the same cycle.

CDC says to remove the sterilizer from service, review operating procedures, and repeat the spore test immediately with the same cycle. If the repeat test is negative and procedures were correct, the sterilizer can return to service. If it is positive again, it stays out of service until inspected or repaired and passes three consecutive spore tests.

Source: CDC — Best Practices for Sterilization Monitoring in Dental Settings — What should I do if there's a positive spore test?

Correct answer: C. Consider the contents nonsterile; reclean, repackage and resterilize them.

Sterility during storage is event-related: a package remains sterile unless something compromises it, such as becoming wet, torn or punctured. A compromised package must be reprocessed regardless of how long it has been stored.

Sources: Maryland DHMH/CDC webinar — Sterilization monitoring and event-related storage — Instrument storage: event-related policy; CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Storage of sterile and clean items, p. 24

Correct answer: B. Cleaned and heat-sterilized according to the manufacturer's instructions.

Handpieces are semicritical, but CDC says they should always be heat-sterilized between uses and not high-level disinfected. Surface disinfection cannot reach internal parts that may be contaminated.

Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Table 4 footnote, p. 20

Correct answer: C. After required training and within 10 working days of initial assignment, at no cost.

OSHA requires the vaccine series to be made available after the required training and within 10 working days of initial assignment, at no cost to the employee. Prescreening cannot be required as a condition of vaccination, and an employee who declines must sign the declination statement but can accept later.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (f)(1)(ii)(A), (f)(2)(i)–(iv)

Correct answer: B. A one-handed scoop technique or a mechanical recapping device.

OSHA allows recapping only by a mechanical device or a one-handed technique when a procedure requires it. Two-handed recapping and bending or breaking contaminated needles are prohibited because they direct the point toward a hand.

Sources: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(2)(vii)(A)–(B); CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Exposure Prevention Methods, p. 13

Correct answer: A. At initial assignment and at least annually, within one year of the previous training.

OSHA requires training at the time of initial assignment and at least annually, within one year of the previous training, plus additional training when new tasks or procedures change an employee's exposure. It must be free and during working hours.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (g)(2)(i)–(v)

Correct answer: B. For the duration of employment plus 30 years

Medical records, including hepatitis B vaccination status and post-exposure evaluation results, must be kept confidential and kept for at least the duration of employment plus 30 years. Training records are the ones kept for 3 years from the training date.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (h)(1)(iii)–(iv), (h)(2)(ii)

Correct answer: D. Section 4

OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard requires SDSs to follow a fixed 16-section order. Section 4 is first-aid measures, Section 2 is hazard identification, Section 8 is exposure controls and personal protection, and Section 11 is toxicological information. SDSs must be readily accessible during each work shift.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (g)(2), (g)(8)

Correct answer: B. Label the spray bottle with the product identifier and hazard information.

Workplace containers of hazardous chemicals must be labeled with the product identifier and hazard information. The only exception is a portable container for the immediate use of the person who filled it, within that work shift; a bottle shared all week does not qualify.

Source: 29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (f)(6), (f)(8); definition of immediate use

Correct answer: A. Wash the wound with soap and water, then report the exposure immediately so evaluation can begin.

First aid is washing puncture wounds with soap and water (flush mucous membranes with water). Squeezing has no proven benefit and caustic agents such as bleach are not recommended. Report immediately: if HIV post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated, it should start as soon as possible, within hours.

Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Postexposure Management and Prophylaxis, p. 14; CDC — HIV PEP for Healthcare Personnel (infographic) — PEP should be initiated as soon as possible, within hours