Free FE Civil Practice Test
This free FE Civil practice test has 55 original, unofficial questions with worked solutions across all 14 NCEES knowledge areas. It is a sample, not a full-length exam; no signup is required.
Question 1 — Mathematics and Statistics. A pump's flow rate is Q(t) = (0.012 + 0.003t) m³/s, where t is in minutes after startup. What volume does it deliver during the first 4 minutes?
- A. 0.072 m³
- B. 2.88 m³
- C. 4.32 m³
- D. 5.76 m³
Show answer and explanation — Question 1
Correct answer: C — 4.32 m³
Q is in m³/s but t is in minutes, so each minute is 60 s: V = 60∫₀⁴(0.012 + 0.003t) dt = 60[0.012t + 0.0015t²]₀⁴ = 60(0.048 + 0.024) = 4.32 m³. Check: the rate rises linearly from 0.012 to 0.024 m³/s, so the average is 0.018 m³/s over 240 s = 4.32 m³.
Why the other answers miss: A forgets the factor of 60. B uses only the starting rate for all 240 s; D uses only the final rate. A changing rate has to be accumulated, not read at one instant.
Source: OpenStax, Calculus Volume 1 (Sec. 5.3, Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Part 2)
Question 2. Three test cylinders give compressive strengths of 6, 8 and 10 MPa. What is their sample standard deviation, in MPa, to the nearest 0.01?
Your answer: ________ MPa (round to the nearest 0.01 MPa)
Show answer and explanation — Question 2
Correct answer: 2.00 MPa
Mean = 8 MPa. Squared deviations: 4 + 0 + 4 = 8 MPa². Sample variance = 8/(n − 1) = 8/2 = 4 MPa². Sample standard deviation = √4 = 2.00 MPa.
Why the other answers miss: 1.63 uses n instead of n − 1 (that's the population formula). 4.00 is the variance, not the standard deviation.
Source: OpenStax, Introductory Statistics 2e (Sec. 2.7, sample standard deviation)
Question 3. Vector A = 3i + 4j and vector B = 4i + 3k. What is the angle between them?
- A. 28.7°
- B. 61.3°
- C. 90.0°
- D. 118.7°
Show answer and explanation — Question 3
Correct answer: B — 61.3°
A·B = (3)(4) + (4)(0) + (0)(3) = 12. |A| = √(9 + 16) = 5 and |B| = √(16 + 9) = 5. cos θ = 12/(5 × 5) = 0.48, so θ = 61.3°.
Why the other answers miss: A is the complement (90° − 61.3°). C assumes the vectors are perpendicular because they share only the i direction, but the i components still give a nonzero dot product. D comes from a sign error (cos θ = −0.48).
Source: OpenStax, Calculus Volume 3 (Sec. 2.3, Theorem 2.4)
Question 4. What is the area enclosed between the curve y = 6x − x² and the x-axis?
- A. 18
- B. 36
- C. 72
- D. 108
Show answer and explanation — Question 4
Correct answer: B — 36
The curve crosses the x-axis at x = 0 and x = 6. Area = ∫₀⁶(6x − x²) dx = [3x² − x³/3]₀⁶ = 108 − 72 = 36 square units.
Why the other answers miss: D evaluates only the 3x² term. A halves the correct result for no reason. C doubles it. Find the limits from the roots first, then integrate.
Source: OpenStax, Calculus Volume 1 (Sec. 5.3, Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Part 2)
Ethics and Professional Practice
Question 5. Under the NSPE Code of Ethics, what is the best response when an engineer is asked to lead a project that includes a specialty outside that engineer's competence?
- A. Accept every technical responsibility because the client approved the assignment.
- B. Arrange for a qualified engineer to take responsibility for the specialty work, and personally undertake only work within the lead engineer's competence.
- C. Seal the specialty calculations after reading a short online summary of the subject.
- D. Have an unqualified colleague check the work so that responsibility is shared.
Show answer and explanation — Question 5
Correct answer: B
The NSPE Code says engineers undertake assignments only when qualified by education or experience in the specific technical fields involved (II.2.a). A lead engineer may coordinate a whole project if each technical segment is signed and sealed by the qualified engineer who prepared it (II.2.c). Bringing in a qualified specialist fixes the competence gap.
Why the other answers miss: A treats client approval as a substitute for competence. C and D seal or share work without the needed qualification, which II.2.b prohibits. This item tests the NSPE Code, not any one state's licensing law.
Source: NSPE Code of Ethics for Engineers (July 2019) (Sec. II.2.a–c, II.3.a, II.4.a)
Question 6. Which two actions align with the NSPE Code of Ethics? Select exactly two.
Select two.
- A. Prepare an objective, truthful technical report that includes all relevant and pertinent information.
- B. Leave out a relevant financial interest whenever the engineer believes no harm will result.
- C. Disclose known or potential conflicts of interest that could influence, or appear to influence, professional judgment.
- D. Seal calculations outside the engineer's competence because the client asks for it.
Show answer and explanation — Question 6
Correct answer: A and C
II.3.a requires objective, truthful reports that include all relevant and pertinent information (A). II.4.a requires disclosing all known or potential conflicts of interest (C).
Why the other answers miss: B replaces disclosure with the engineer's private judgment that no harm will occur. D conflicts with II.2.b: engineers don't sign documents in subjects where they lack competence. Scoring here is all-or-nothing: both correct choices and nothing else.
Source: NSPE Code of Ethics for Engineers (July 2019) (Sec. II.2.a–c, II.3.a, II.4.a)
Engineering Economics
Question 7. A project will receive $12,100 exactly two years from now. At an effective annual interest rate of 10%, compounded annually, what is the equivalent present value? Ignore taxes and other cash flows.
- A. $10,000
- B. $10,083
- C. $11,000
- D. $14,641
Show answer and explanation — Question 7
Correct answer: A — $10,000
PV = FV/(1 + i)ⁿ = 12,100/(1.10)² = 12,100/1.21 = $10,000.
Why the other answers miss: B uses simple interest (12,100/1.20). C discounts only one year. D compounds forward (12,100 × 1.21) instead of discounting back.
Source: OpenStax, Principles of Finance (Sec. 7.2, compounding and discounting)
Question 8. For one contract, total cost is $35,000 + $21q and revenue is $35q, where q is the number of completed units. At what quantity does revenue equal total cost?
- A. 1,000 units
- B. 1,667 units
- C. 2,500 units
- D. 3,500 units
Show answer and explanation — Question 8
Correct answer: C — 2,500 units
Set 35q = 35,000 + 21q. Then 14q = 35,000, so q = 2,500 units. Each unit contributes $35 − $21 = $14 toward the fixed cost. Check: both sides equal $87,500 at q = 2,500.
Why the other answers miss: A divides the fixed cost by the price, ignoring variable cost. B divides by the variable cost. D doesn't satisfy the equation.
Source: C. Hendrickson, Project Management for Construction (CMU) (Ch. 6, Sec. 6.2, benefits, costs and net cash flow)
Question 9. A contractor compares two ways to handle a dewatering risk. Option 1 costs $100,000 for certain. Option 2 costs $80,000 with probability 0.70 and $150,000 with probability 0.30. What is the expected cost of Option 2?
- A. $80,000
- B. $101,000
- C. $115,000
- D. $150,000
Show answer and explanation — Question 9
Correct answer: B — $101,000
Expected value = Σ x·P(x) = 0.70($80,000) + 0.30($150,000) = $56,000 + $45,000 = $101,000. On expected cost alone, Option 1 ($100,000) is slightly cheaper.
Why the other answers miss: A is just the most likely outcome. C averages the two costs without weighting by probability. D is the worst case.
Source: OpenStax, Introductory Statistics 2e (Sec. 4.2, expected value)
Statics
Question 10. A horizontal beam has a pin at x = 0 and a roller at x = 8 m. A downward uniform load of 3 kN/m acts from x = 0 to x = 4 m, and a downward 20 kN point load acts at x = 6 m. Ignore beam weight. What is the upward reaction at the roller?
- A. 14 kN
- B. 16 kN
- C. 18 kN
- D. 24 kN
Show answer and explanation — Question 10
Correct answer: C — 18 kN
Replace the distributed load by its resultant: 3 × 4 = 12 kN acting at x = 2 m. Moments about the pin: 8R = 12(2) + 20(6) = 144, so R = 18 kN. Vertical equilibrium then gives 32 − 18 = 14 kN at the pin.
Why the other answers miss: A is the pin reaction. B splits the 32 kN total equally, ignoring where the loads sit. D doesn't satisfy moment equilibrium. Put a uniform load's resultant at the center of its loaded length, not at midspan.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 12.2, equilibrium of forces and torques)
Question 11. An 800 lbf crate rests on a level floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.35. A horizontal 250 lbf push acts to the right, and the crate does not move. What friction force acts on the crate?
- A. 0 lbf
- B. 250 lbf to the left
- C. 280 lbf to the left
- D. 800 lbf to the left
Show answer and explanation — Question 11
Correct answer: B — 250 lbf to the left
The maximum available static friction is μN = 0.35(800) = 280 lbf. The crate is in equilibrium, so friction only needs to balance the push: 250 lbf to the left. Static friction supplies what equilibrium requires, up to its limit.
Why the other answers miss: A would leave an unbalanced 250 lbf. C is the limit, not the force actually developed. D confuses the normal force with friction.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 6.2, static friction)
Question 12. Two forces act at a point: 300 N along the +x axis and 400 N directed 60° above the +x axis. What is the magnitude of their resultant?
- A. 346 N
- B. 500 N
- C. 608 N
- D. 700 N
Show answer and explanation — Question 12
Correct answer: C — 608 N
Add components. Rx = 300 + 400 cos 60° = 300 + 200 = 500 N. Ry = 400 sin 60° = 346.4 N. R = √(500² + 346.4²) = 608 N.
Why the other answers miss: A is only the y-component. B treats the forces as perpendicular (√(300² + 400²)). D adds the magnitudes as if both forces pointed the same way.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 2.3, Eq. 2.25, adding components)
Question 13. A T-section is made of a 200 mm wide × 20 mm thick flange sitting on top of a 20 mm wide × 180 mm tall web. The total height is 200 mm. How far is the centroid above the bottom of the web, in mm, to the nearest 0.1 mm?
Your answer: ________ mm (round to the nearest 0.1 mm)
Show answer and explanation — Question 13
Correct answer: 142.6 mm
Flange: A = 200 × 20 = 4,000 mm², centroid at 180 + 10 = 190 mm. Web: A = 20 × 180 = 3,600 mm², centroid at 90 mm. ȳ = (4,000 × 190 + 3,600 × 90)/(4,000 + 3,600) = 1,084,000/7,600 = 142.6 mm.
Why the other answers miss: 100 mm is the mid-height, but this T-section has more area near the top. Measuring the flange centroid from its own base (10 mm) instead of from the bottom of the web gives a much smaller answer. Use one datum for every part.
Source: Baker & Haynes, Engineering Statics: Open and Interactive (Sec. 7.5, Eq. 7.5.1, centroids of composite areas)
Dynamics
Question 14. A hoist accelerates a 1,200 kg load upward at 0.40 m/s². Use g = 9.81 m/s² and neglect cable mass. What cable tension is required?
- A. 0.48 kN
- B. 11.29 kN
- C. 11.77 kN
- D. 12.25 kN
Show answer and explanation — Question 14
Correct answer: D — 12.25 kN
Taking up as positive: T − mg = ma, so T = m(g + a) = 1,200(9.81 + 0.40) = 12,252 N = 12.25 kN.
Why the other answers miss: A is only the net accelerating force (ma). B uses g − a, which fits downward acceleration. C is the weight alone. Accelerating upward needs more tension than the weight.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 5.3, Newton's second law)
Question 15. A 500 kg cart moves at +3 m/s and later at −1 m/s along the same line (positive is to the right). What net impulse acted on the cart?
- A. −2,000 N·s
- B. −1,000 N·s
- C. +1,000 N·s
- D. +2,000 N·s
Show answer and explanation — Question 15
Correct answer: A — −2,000 N·s
Impulse = change in momentum: J = m(v₂ − v₁) = 500(−1 − 3) = −2,000 N·s, directed to the left.
Why the other answers miss: B subtracts the speeds as if both were in the same direction. C and D have the wrong sign. Momentum is a signed quantity along the chosen axis.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 9.2, impulse–momentum theorem)
Mechanics of Materials
Question 16. A uniform bar carries an axial tensile force of 60 kN. It is 2.0 m long, has a cross-sectional area of 600 mm², and E = 200 GPa. Assuming linear-elastic behavior, what is its elongation?
- A. 0.001 mm
- B. 0.10 mm
- C. 1.00 mm
- D. 1,000 mm
Show answer and explanation — Question 16
Correct answer: C — 1.00 mm
Work in N and mm: P = 60,000 N, L = 2,000 mm, E = 200,000 N/mm². δ = PL/(AE) = (60,000)(2,000)/[(600)(200,000)] = 1.00 mm.
Why the other answers miss: A and D are thousandfold unit errors, and B is a tenfold error. GPa can't go straight into an equation alongside mm² and N; convert to N/mm² (MPa) first.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 12.3, stress, strain and Young's modulus)
Question 17. A rectangular beam section is 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep. A bending moment of 8 kN·m acts about its horizontal centroidal axis. Using elastic flexure theory, what is the maximum bending stress?
- A. 6 MPa
- B. 12 MPa
- C. 24 MPa
- D. 48 MPa
Show answer and explanation — Question 17
Correct answer: B — 12 MPa
I = bh³/12 = 100(200)³/12 = 66.67 × 10⁶ mm⁴. c = 200/2 = 100 mm. M = 8 × 10⁶ N·mm. σ = Mc/I = (8 × 10⁶)(100)/(66.67 × 10⁶) = 12 MPa.
Why the other answers miss: C uses the full depth as c. D swaps width and depth when computing I. A halves the answer without a reason.
Source: D. Roylance, MIT 3.11, Stresses in Beams (p. 4, Eqs. 5 and 7)
Question 18. At a point, σx = 80 MPa, σy = −20 MPa and τxy = 40 MPa. What is the maximum in-plane principal stress?
- A. 30.0 MPa
- B. 64.0 MPa
- C. 94.0 MPa
- D. 120.0 MPa
Show answer and explanation — Question 18
Correct answer: C — 94.0 MPa
Center of Mohr's circle: (80 + (−20))/2 = 30 MPa. Radius: √[((80 − (−20))/2)² + 40²] = √(50² + 40²) = 64.0 MPa. σ₁ = 30 + 64.0 = 94.0 MPa (and σ₂ = 30 − 64.0 = −34.0 MPa).
Why the other answers miss: A is the center only. B is the radius, which equals the maximum in-plane shear stress, not a principal stress. D adds σx and τxy directly.
Source: D. Roylance, MIT 3.11, Tensor Transformations (p. 6, Eq. 11, principal stresses from Mohr's circle)
Question 19. A simply supported beam spans 8 m (supports at x = 0 and x = 8 m). It carries a 30 kN downward load at x = 2 m and a 10 kN downward load at x = 6 m. Ignore self-weight. Where is the bending moment largest?
- A. At x = 0 (left support)
- B. At x = 2 m (under the 30 kN load)
- C. At x = 4 m (midspan)
- D. At x = 6 m (under the 10 kN load)
Show answer and explanation — Question 19
Correct answer: B — At x = 2 m (under the 30 kN load)
Reactions: R_left = (30 × 6 + 10 × 2)/8 = 25 kN; R_right = 40 − 25 = 15 kN. Shear is +25 kN from 0 to 2 m, then 25 − 30 = −5 kN until 6 m. It changes sign at x = 2 m, so the moment peaks there: M = 25 × 2 = 50 kN·m. For comparison, M(4 m) = 40 kN·m and M(6 m) = 30 kN·m, and the moment at both ends of this beam is zero.
Why the other answers miss: A: moment is zero at the left end of this beam. C: the midspan moment is 40 kN·m, below the 50 kN·m peak. D: the moment under the smaller load is 30 kN·m.
Source: Udoeyo, Structural Analysis (LibreTexts) (Ch. 4, shear–moment relationship dM/dx = V; equilibrium and the piecewise calculation locate the point-load maximum); OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 12.2, equilibrium of forces and torques)
Materials
Question 20. A concrete batch contains 168 kg of mixing water, 280 kg of cement and 56 kg of fly ash. Treat cement plus fly ash as the total cementitious material. What is the water–cementitious materials ratio by mass?
- A. 0.40
- B. 0.50
- C. 0.60
- D. 2.00
Show answer and explanation — Question 20
Correct answer: B — 0.50
Cementitious mass = 280 + 56 = 336 kg. w/cm = 168/336 = 0.50.
Why the other answers miss: C leaves the fly ash out of the denominator (168/280). D inverts the ratio. A doesn't follow from the given masses. This calculation alone doesn't show whether the mix meets a strength or durability specification.
Source: FHWA, Petrographic Methods of Examining Hardened Concrete (FHWA-HRT-04-150) (Ch. 9, Sec. 9.1, water–cementitious materials ratio)
Question 21. A 20.0 m member is free to expand. Its linear thermal expansion coefficient is 12 × 10⁻⁶ per °C, and its temperature rises 35 °C. How much longer does it get?
- A. 0.0084 mm
- B. 0.42 mm
- C. 8.4 mm
- D. 25.2 mm
Show answer and explanation — Question 21
Correct answer: C — 8.4 mm
ΔL = αLΔT = (12 × 10⁻⁶)(20.0 m)(35) = 0.0084 m = 8.4 mm.
Why the other answers miss: A labels a result in meters as millimeters. B treats the dimensionless thermal strain αΔT = 0.00042 as a length in meters, then converts it to 0.42 mm. D multiplies by 3, which belongs to volume expansion, not length. Free expansion produces no thermal stress; restraint would.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 2 (Sec. 1.3, linear thermal expansion)
Question 22. Holding cementitious material content and aggregate proportions constant, which change is most likely to increase the compressive strength of hardened concrete at the same test age? Assume adequate workability, full consolidation and proper curing; added water is a net increase in mixing water.
- A. Add water at the batch plant to raise the slump
- B. Use a water-reducing admixture to cut the mixing water, lowering the water–cementitious ratio
- C. Add water at the jobsite to restore slump after a delay
- D. Raise the water–cementitious ratio from 0.45 to 0.55 to improve workability
Show answer and explanation — Question 22
Correct answer: B
Under these conditions, lowering the water–cementitious materials ratio leaves a denser paste. FHWA notes that a water reducer that lowers w/cm increases concrete strength. B is the only choice that lowers w/cm.
Why the other answers miss: A, C and D all add water relative to the cementitious material, raising w/cm rather than lowering it. Under the stated conditions, that works against the strength increase sought here.
Source: FHWA, Mobile Concrete Technology Center: Water Reduction (FHWA-HIF-22-008) (Single-page FHWA-HIF-22-008 brief, water reduction, workability and strength); FHWA, Petrographic Methods of Examining Hardened Concrete (FHWA-HRT-04-150) (Ch. 9, Sec. 9.1, water–cementitious materials ratio)
Fluid Mechanics
Question 23. Water flows steadily through a full pipe. The inside diameter changes from 180 mm (velocity 1.6 m/s) to 120 mm. Treat water as incompressible. What is the velocity in the 120 mm section?
- A. 0.71 m/s
- B. 1.07 m/s
- C. 2.40 m/s
- D. 3.60 m/s
Show answer and explanation — Question 23
Correct answer: D — 3.60 m/s
Continuity: A₁V₁ = A₂V₂, and area scales with diameter squared. V₂ = 1.6 × (180/120)² = 1.6 × 2.25 = 3.60 m/s.
Why the other answers miss: A inverts the area ratio. B inverts the diameter ratio and doesn't square it. C uses the diameter ratio without squaring.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 14.5, flow rate and continuity)
Question 24. An open tank holds 0.80 m of oil (density 850 kg/m³) floating on 1.20 m of water (density 1,000 kg/m³). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What is the gauge pressure at the bottom?
- A. 6.67 kPa
- B. 11.77 kPa
- C. 18.44 kPa
- D. 19.62 kPa
Show answer and explanation — Question 24
Correct answer: C — 18.44 kPa
Add each layer's contribution: p = (850)(9.81)(0.80) + (1,000)(9.81)(1.20) = 6,671 + 11,772 = 18,443 Pa = 18.44 kPa.
Why the other answers miss: A counts only the oil and B only the water. D treats the whole 2.0 m as water. Absolute pressure would add atmospheric pressure, which this question doesn't ask for.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 14.1, hydrostatic pressure)
Question 25. A pitot tube in an open channel shows a velocity head (stagnation head minus static head) of 0.20 m of water. Assume a pitot coefficient of 1.0 and g = 9.81 m/s². What is the point velocity, in m/s, to the nearest 0.01?
Your answer: ________ m/s (round to the nearest 0.01 m/s)
Show answer and explanation — Question 25
Correct answer: 1.98 m/s
Velocity head h = V²/2g, so V = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 0.20) = √3.924 = 1.98 m/s.
Why the other answers miss: 3.92 m/s forgets the square root. 1.40 m/s leaves out the 2 under the root (√(gh)). Velocity head is the difference between total and static head, not either reading on its own.
Source: USBR, Water Measurement Manual (Ch. 14, Sec. 10, Pitot Tubes: velocity head and ideal unit coefficient)
Surveying
Question 26. A benchmark has an elevation of 102.48 m. From one instrument setup, the backsight on the benchmark reads 1.36 m and the foresight on point P reads 0.84 m. What is the elevation of P, in meters, to the nearest 0.01 m?
Your answer: ________ m (round to the nearest 0.01 m)
Show answer and explanation — Question 26
Correct answer: 103.00 m
Height of instrument: HI = 102.48 + 1.36 = 103.84 m. Elevation of P = HI − FS = 103.84 − 0.84 = 103.00 m.
Why the other answers miss: 104.68 m adds both readings. 101.96 m reverses their roles. Backsight is added to find the instrument height; foresight is subtracted from it.
Source: University of Washington, CIVE 316, Differential Leveling (Lecture 4, slide 13: height of instrument and elevation calculations)
Question 27. In a local plane grid, point A is at (E 1,000 m, N 2,000 m) and point B is at (E 1,030 m, N 2,040 m). What is the direction from A to B, measured clockwise from north (azimuth)?
- A. 36.87°
- B. 53.13°
- C. 126.87°
- D. 216.87°
Show answer and explanation — Question 27
Correct answer: A — 36.87°
ΔE = +30 m and ΔN = +40 m, so the line heads northeast. Azimuth = arctan(ΔE/ΔN) = arctan(30/40) = 36.87°.
Why the other answers miss: B measures the angle from east instead of north. C lands in the wrong quadrant. D is the back azimuth, from B to A.
Source: OpenStax, Precalculus 2e (Sec. 5.4, right-triangle trigonometry)
Question 28. Two cross sections 20 m apart have end areas of 24 m² and 36 m². Using the average end area method, what is the earthwork volume between them?
- A. 480 m³
- B. 600 m³
- C. 720 m³
- D. 1,200 m³
Show answer and explanation — Question 28
Correct answer: B — 600 m³
V = L(A₁ + A₂)/2 = 20 × (24 + 36)/2 = 20 × 30 = 600 m³.
Why the other answers miss: A and C use only one end area. D forgets to divide the sum by 2.
Source: FHWA Federal Lands, Project Development and Design Manual: Earthwork Design (Eq. 9.5.1A(1), average end area)
Water Resources and Environmental Engineering
Question 29. Use the rational method for a 20 ha catchment with runoff coefficient C = 0.60 and design rainfall intensity 45 mm/h. Assume uniform rainfall lasting at least the time of concentration. What peak flow does the method give?
- A. 0.15 m³/s
- B. 1.50 m³/s
- C. 2.50 m³/s
- D. 15.0 m³/s
Show answer and explanation — Question 29
Correct answer: B — 1.50 m³/s
Convert to consistent units: A = 200,000 m², i = 0.045 m / 3,600 s. Q = CiA = 0.60 × (0.045/3,600) × 200,000 = 1.50 m³/s. (Equivalently, Q = CiA/360 with i in mm/h and A in ha.)
Why the other answers miss: C leaves out the runoff coefficient. A and D are tenfold unit-conversion errors. The rational method only applies under its assumptions, typically for small drainage areas.
Source: Texas DOT, Hydraulic Design Manual (Ch. 4, Sec. 12, rational method (Z = 360 for metric))
Question 30. A rectangular open channel carries steady uniform flow. The bottom width is 2.0 m, the flow depth is 1.0 m, Manning's n = 0.015 and the slope is 0.0016. Using the SI form of Manning's equation, what is the discharge, in m³/s, to the nearest 0.01?
Your answer: ________ m³/s (round to the nearest 0.01 m³/s)
Show answer and explanation — Question 30
Correct answer: 3.36 m³/s
A = 2.0 × 1.0 = 2.0 m². Wetted perimeter P = 2.0 + 2(1.0) = 4.0 m (bottom plus two sides; the free surface doesn't count). R = A/P = 0.50 m. Q = (1/n)AR^(2/3)S^(1/2) = (1/0.015)(2.0)(0.50)^(2/3)(0.0016)^(1/2) = 3.36 m³/s.
Why the other answers miss: 5.33 m³/s uses the depth as the hydraulic radius. Counting the water surface in the wetted perimeter gives a different (wrong) R. Don't add the 1.49 U.S. customary factor to the SI form.
Source: USACE, HEC-RAS technical reference (1D Saint-Venant equations, clearwater Manning equation (SI)); USBR, Water Measurement Manual (Ch. 2, Sec. 16, hydraulic radius)
Question 31. Two streams mix completely at steady state. Stream 1 carries 1 L/s at 20 mg/L of a conservative substance. Stream 2 carries 3 L/s at 4 mg/L. There's no reaction or accumulation. What is the concentration after mixing?
- A. 4 mg/L
- B. 8 mg/L
- C. 12 mg/L
- D. 20 mg/L
Show answer and explanation — Question 31
Correct answer: B — 8 mg/L
Mass balance: incoming mass rate = (1)(20) + (3)(4) = 32 mg/s. Outflow = 4 L/s. C = 32/4 = 8 mg/L.
Why the other answers miss: C averages the concentrations without weighting by flow. A and D use one stream only. The result must sit between the inputs, closer to the bigger flow.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 14.5, flow rate and continuity); OpenStax, Chemistry 2e (Sec. 3.3, dilution and conservation of solute)
Question 32. A confined aquifer has hydraulic conductivity K = 2 × 10⁻⁴ m/s and a hydraulic-gradient magnitude of 0.005. The flow cross-section is 500 m². Using Darcy's law, what is the flow-rate magnitude, in liters per second, to the nearest 0.01?
Your answer: ________ L/s (round to the nearest 0.01 L/s)
Show answer and explanation — Question 32
Correct answer: 0.50 L/s
Darcy's law: Q = KiA = (2 × 10⁻⁴)(0.005)(500) = 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m³/s. Convert: 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m³/s × 1,000 L/m³ = 0.50 L/s.
Why the other answers miss: 0.0005 is the answer in m³/s, entered without converting. Multiplying by 1,000 twice gives 500. Check that the units match the requested unit.
Source: E. R. Perrier and A. B. Salkini, Darcy Equation (1991) (Public chapter abstract: Q = −KiA and definitions of K, i and A; Q32 uses gradient and discharge magnitudes)
Question 33. An unseeded five-day biochemical oxygen demand (BOD₅) test uses 6 mL of wastewater diluted to 300 mL. Dissolved oxygen is 8.5 mg/L at the start and 4.3 mg/L after 5 days at 20 °C. What is the BOD₅ of the wastewater?
- A. 4.2 mg/L
- B. 84 mg/L
- C. 210 mg/L
- D. 700 mg/L
Show answer and explanation — Question 33
Correct answer: C — 210 mg/L
P = sample fraction = 6/300 = 0.02. BOD₅ = (D₁ − D₂)/P = (8.5 − 4.3)/0.02 = 4.2/0.02 = 210 mg/L.
Why the other answers miss: A forgets to divide by the dilution fraction. B uses P = 0.05. D uses P = 0.006. P is the sample volume divided by the bottle volume, as a decimal.
Source: North Carolina DEQ/DWR, BOD₅/CBOD₅ Laboratory Checklist (August 9, 2023) (PDF p. 6, questions 65–66: incubation time and temperature; PDF p. 12, Sample Calculations and Reporting: dilution/seed correction equation)
Question 34. A sedimentation basin has a volume of 1,200 m³ and receives a flow of 12,000 m³/day. What is the hydraulic detention time?
- A. 0.1 h
- B. 2.4 h
- C. 10 h
- D. 24 h
Show answer and explanation — Question 34
Correct answer: B — 2.4 h
t = V/Q = 1,200/12,000 = 0.1 day × 24 h/day = 2.4 h.
Why the other answers miss: A reports the time in days but labels it hours. C inverts the ratio (Q/V = 10 per day). D reports one day.
Source: Tennessee TDEC Fleming Training Center, Wastewater Formula Manual (rev. 1/2026) (Printed p. 10 (PDF p. 12), detention time = volume / flow)
Structural Engineering
Question 35. A prismatic cantilever is fixed at one end and carries a 300 lbf downward load at its free end, 8 ft away. E = 29 × 10⁶ psi and I = 96 in⁴. Using small-deflection beam theory and ignoring self-weight and shear deformation, what is the tip deflection?
- A. 0.0000184 in
- B. 0.0106 in
- C. 0.0318 in
- D. 0.0953 in
Show answer and explanation — Question 35
Correct answer: C — 0.0318 in
Integrating the moment–curvature relation with zero slope and zero deflection at the fixed end gives a tip deflection of δ = PL³/(3EI). With L = 96 in: δ = 300(96)³/[3(29 × 10⁶)(96)] = 0.0318 in.
Why the other answers miss: A leaves L in feet while E and I are in inches. B divides by an extra 3. D leaves out the 3. Keep length, modulus and inertia in one unit system.
Source: D. Roylance, MIT 3.11, Beam Displacements (Printed pp. 1–2, moment–curvature relation and successive integration; the cantilever result is derived in the solution); OpenStax, Calculus Volume 1 (Sec. 5.3, Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Part 2)
Question 36. Under ideal elastic Euler buckling, a straight pin-ended column has a critical load of 80 kip. A second column has the same E, I and end conditions but twice the length. What is its critical load?
- A. 20 kip
- B. 40 kip
- C. 80 kip
- D. 160 kip
Show answer and explanation — Question 36
Correct answer: A — 20 kip
P_cr = π²EI/L². Doubling L divides P_cr by 2² = 4: 80/4 = 20 kip.
Why the other answers miss: B assumes P_cr varies with 1/L. C ignores length. D reverses the effect. Real member design adds strength checks beyond this ideal comparison.
Source: MIT 16.01 Unified Engineering, buckling notes (PDF p. 5, pinned-column Euler buckling equation P = π²EI/L²)
Question 37. A pin-jointed triangular truss has joints A (0, 0), B (6, 0) and C (3, 4), in meters, with members AB, AC and BC. A is pinned and B is a roller. A 20 kN downward load acts at C. Neglect member weights. What is the force in member AC?
- A. 10 kN tension
- B. 10 kN compression
- C. 12.5 kN tension
- D. 12.5 kN compression
Show answer and explanation — Question 37
Correct answer: D — 12.5 kN compression
AC and BC are each 5 m long with a vertical component factor of 4/5. By symmetry they carry equal forces F. At joint C: 2F(4/5) = 20 kN, so F = 12.5 kN. The members must push up on joint C to hold the load, so they're in compression.
Why the other answers miss: A and B give only the 10 kN vertical component. C has the right magnitude but the wrong sense.
Source: D. Roylance, MIT 3.11, Trusses (p. 3, method of joints)
Question 38. A simply supported beam spans 6 m and carries a uniform load of 20 kN/m over its full length. What is the maximum bending moment?
- A. 60 kN·m
- B. 90 kN·m
- C. 180 kN·m
- D. 360 kN·m
Show answer and explanation — Question 38
Correct answer: B — 90 kN·m
For a simply supported beam with uniform load, M(x) = (w/2)(Lx − x²), which peaks at midspan (x = L/2), where shear is zero: M_max = wL²/8 = 20(6)²/8 = 90 kN·m.
Why the other answers miss: A is wL²/12, the fixed-end moment of a fixed–fixed beam. C is wL²/4. D is wL²/2, the moment at the support of a cantilever.
Source: Baker & Haynes, Engineering Statics: Open and Interactive (Sec. 8.8, Example 8.8.2, M(x) = (w/2)(Lx − x²))
Question 39. A plane truss has 9 members, 6 joints and 3 independent reaction components, and its members are arranged in a stable geometry. How is it classified?
- A. Unstable
- B. Statically determinate
- C. Statically indeterminate to the first degree
- D. Statically indeterminate to the third degree
Show answer and explanation — Question 39
Correct answer: B — Statically determinate
Compare m + r with 2j: 9 + 3 = 12 and 2 × 6 = 12. They're equal, so with a stable arrangement the truss is statically determinate: equilibrium alone gives every member force and reaction.
Why the other answers miss: A is ruled out by the stated stable arrangement, not by member counting alone. C and D would need m + r to exceed 2j by 1 or 3 for a stable truss. The count is necessary but not sufficient; geometry must also be stable.
Source: Baker & Haynes, Engineering Statics: Open and Interactive (Sec. 6.3.2, simple trusses, stability and 2j = m + r)
Question 40. Floor beams spaced 3.0 m apart support a one-way floor with a uniform load of 5.0 kPa (use this load as given; no factors). Each beam is simply supported over a 6.0 m span. Assume each interior beam carries the 3.0 m tributary strip halfway to its neighbors, and ignore additional beam self-weight. What is the end reaction of one interior beam?
- A. 22.5 kN
- B. 45 kN
- C. 90 kN
- D. 180 kN
Show answer and explanation — Question 40
Correct answer: B — 45 kN
An interior beam carries a strip of floor half-way to each neighbor: a tributary width of 3.0 m. Line load w = 5.0 kPa × 3.0 m = 15 kN/m. Total load = 15 × 6.0 = 90 kN, split equally between two supports: 45 kN.
Why the other answers miss: A uses half the spacing as the tributary width. C is the beam's total load, not one reaction. D doubles the tributary width.
Source: OpenStax, University Physics Volume 1 (Sec. 12.2, equilibrium of forces and torques)
Geotechnical Engineering
Question 41. A soil has a void ratio e = 0.60 (void volume divided by solids volume). What is its porosity, as a percentage of total volume, to the nearest 0.1%? (Enter 25.0 to mean 25.0%.)
Your answer: ________ % (round to the nearest 0.1%)
Show answer and explanation — Question 41
Correct answer: 37.5%
Take solids volume = 1. Voids = 0.60, total = 1.60. Porosity n = 0.60/1.60 = 0.375 = 37.5%. In general, n = e/(1 + e).
Why the other answers miss: 60% divides by the solids volume instead of the total. Entering 0.375 gives 0.375%, not 37.5%.
Source: N. Sivakugan, Phase Relations (Ch. 2: p. 2 definitions; p. 4 relationships (n = e/(1+e); Se = wGs))
Question 42. The water table is 2 m below level ground. Soil above it has a unit weight of 18 kN/m³; soil below has a saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m³. Use γw = 9.81 kN/m³ and hydrostatic conditions. What is the vertical effective stress 5 m below the ground surface?
- A. 29.43 kPa
- B. 46.95 kPa
- C. 66.57 kPa
- D. 96.00 kPa
Show answer and explanation — Question 42
Correct answer: C — 66.57 kPa
Total stress: σ = 2(18) + 3(20) = 96 kPa. The point is 3 m below the water table, so u = 3(9.81) = 29.43 kPa. Effective stress: σ′ = 96 − 29.43 = 66.57 kPa.
Why the other answers miss: A is the pore pressure alone. B measures pore pressure from the ground surface (5 m) instead of the water table. D forgets to subtract pore pressure.
Source: N. Sivakugan, Effective Stresses and Capillary (Ch. 6, Eqs. 6.1 and 6.3)
Question 43. A fully saturated clay has a water content of 20% and a specific gravity of solids of 2.70. What is its void ratio?
- A. 0.20
- B. 0.35
- C. 0.54
- D. 1.54
Show answer and explanation — Question 43
Correct answer: C — 0.54
Use Se = wGs with S = 1 (saturated): e = wGs = 0.20 × 2.70 = 0.54.
Why the other answers miss: A is the water content itself. B is the porosity, e/(1 + e) = 0.54/1.54. D is 1 + e.
Source: N. Sivakugan, Phase Relations (Ch. 2: p. 2 definitions; p. 4 relationships (n = e/(1+e); Se = wGs))
Question 44. An inorganic fine-grained soil (more than half passes the No. 200 sieve) has a liquid limit of 45 and a plasticity index of 25. What is its USCS group symbol?
- A. ML
- B. CL
- C. MH
- D. CH
Show answer and explanation — Question 44
Correct answer: B — CL
On the plasticity chart, the A-line is PI = 0.73(LL − 20) = 0.73(25) = 18.25. PI = 25 plots above the A-line, so the soil is a clay (C). LL = 45 is below 50, so it's low plasticity (L): CL.
Why the other answers miss: A and C are silts, which plot below the A-line. C and D (MH, CH) need LL ≥ 50.
Source: Caltrans, Unified Soil Classification System chart (Single-page USCS chart: inorganic fine soils; A-line PI = 0.73(LL − 20), LL = 50 boundary)
Question 45. A 5 m smooth vertical wall retains level, dry, homogeneous cohesionless sand with φ = 30° and γ = 18 kN/m³. There is no surcharge, and the wall moves enough to mobilize active conditions. Using Rankine theory, what is the active earth-pressure resultant per meter of wall?
- A. 30 kN/m
- B. 75 kN/m
- C. 150 kN/m
- D. 675 kN/m
Show answer and explanation — Question 45
Correct answer: B — 75 kN/m
Ka = (1 − sin 30°)/(1 + sin 30°) = 0.5/1.5 = 1/3. Pa = ½KaγH² = 0.5(1/3)(18)(5)² = 75 kN/m, acting at H/3 above the base. The lateral pressure increases linearly from zero to KaγH, so the resultant and its location follow from the area and centroid of that triangular pressure diagram.
Why the other answers miss: A takes the base-pressure value (KaγH = 30 kPa) and incorrectly labels it as a force per meter. C forgets the ½. D uses the passive coefficient Kp = 3.
Source: California Trenching and Shoring Manual, Earth Pressure Theory and Application (Purdue-hosted extract) (Printed pp. 4-1 to 4-3 (PDF pp. 2–4): active state, lateral pressure Kγz and level-backfill Rankine coefficient; triangular resultant derived in Q45)
Question 46. A normally consolidated clay layer is 4 m thick, with Cc = 0.30 and e₀ = 0.90. At mid-depth, the initial effective stress is 100 kPa and a new building adds 50 kPa. Using these mid-depth stresses as representative of the layer, what is the estimated one-dimensional primary consolidation settlement?
- A. 111 mm
- B. 211 mm
- C. 256 mm
- D. 632 mm
Show answer and explanation — Question 46
Correct answer: A — 111 mm
S = [CcH/(1 + e₀)] log₁₀[(σ′₀ + Δσ)/σ′₀] = [0.30(4,000 mm)/1.90] log₁₀(150/100) = 631.6 × 0.1761 = 111 mm.
Why the other answers miss: B leaves out the (1 + e₀) term. C uses the natural log instead of log₁₀. D leaves out the log term entirely.
Source: USACE, Settlement Analysis, EM 1110-1-1904 (30 September 1990; printed pp. 3-29 to 3-30 (PDF pp. 54–55), Eqs. 3-20 and 3-21)
Transportation Engineering
Question 47. On a single lane, traffic density is 32 vehicles per mile and space-mean speed is 45 mph. What is the flow rate?
- A. 0.71 veh/h
- B. 720 veh/h
- C. 1,440 veh/h
- D. 2,880 veh/h
Show answer and explanation — Question 47
Correct answer: C — 1,440 veh/h
Flow = density × speed: q = ku = 32 × 45 = 1,440 veh/h per lane. The miles cancel.
Why the other answers miss: A divides instead of multiplying. B halves for no reason. D doubles the lane basis.
Source: University of Washington, CEE 320, Traffic Concepts (PDF p. 11, k = q/u; PDF p. 15, linear speed–density relation; capacity is derived in Q51)
Question 48. A simple circular horizontal curve has a radius of 800 ft and a central angle of 60°. What is the tangent length from the point of intersection (PI) of the tangents to the point of curvature (PC)?
- A. 400 ft
- B. 462 ft
- C. 800 ft
- D. 838 ft
Show answer and explanation — Question 48
Correct answer: B — 462 ft
T = R tan(Δ/2) = 800 tan 30° = 462 ft. The radius to the PC is perpendicular to the tangent, and the line from the circle center to the PI bisects the angle between the two radii, giving tan(Δ/2) = T/R.
Why the other answers miss: A is R sin 30° (half the long chord). C is the full long chord, 2R sin 30°. D is the arc length, RΔ with Δ in radians. Tangent length, chord and arc are different measurements.
Source: OpenStax, Precalculus 2e (Sec. 5.4, right-triangle trigonometry)
Question 49. In Table 2A-1 of the December 2023 MUTCD 11th Edition, which sign shape is reserved exclusively for the STOP sign?
- A. Octagon
- B. Equilateral triangle, point down
- C. Pentagon
- D. Diamond
Show answer and explanation — Question 49
Correct answer: A — Octagon
The December 2023 MUTCD 11th Edition, Section 2A.05 and Table 2A-1, limit the octagon exclusively to the STOP sign (R1-1), so drivers can recognize it from its shape alone.
Why the other answers miss: The point-down triangle is reserved for YIELD. The pentagon is used for school advance warning and county route signs. The diamond is used for warning signs.
Source: FHWA, MUTCD 11th Edition (December 2023), Chapter 2A (Printed p. 42 (PDF p. 4), Sec. 2A.05 and Table 2A-1; source version explicitly named in Q49)
Question 50. Using V = 60 mph, a perception–reaction time of 2.5 s and a deceleration rate of 11.2 ft/s² on a level road, what is the stopping sight distance? Use SSD = 1.47Vt + 1.075V²/a.
- A. 221 ft
- B. 346 ft
- C. 566 ft
- D. 964 ft
Show answer and explanation — Question 50
Correct answer: C — 566 ft
Reaction distance: 1.47(60)(2.5) = 220.5 ft. Braking distance: 1.075(60)²/11.2 = 345.5 ft. SSD = 220.5 + 345.5 = 566 ft.
Why the other answers miss: A is the reaction distance alone and B the braking distance alone. D converts V to ft/s inside the braking term, but the 1.075 constant already expects V in mph.
Source: MnDOT/FHWA design flexibility workshop, Sight Distance (citing AASHTO Green Book Ch. 3) (p. 8-2, SSD = 1.47Vt + 1.075V²/a)
Question 51. A freeway lane follows the Greenshields model with a free-flow speed of 60 mph and a jam density of 200 veh/mi. What is its capacity?
- A. 1,500 veh/h
- B. 3,000 veh/h
- C. 6,000 veh/h
- D. 12,000 veh/h
Show answer and explanation — Question 51
Correct answer: B — 3,000 veh/h
Using q = ku and u = vf(1 − k/kj), q(k) = vf k − (vf/kj)k². Setting dq/dk = vf − 2vf k/kj = 0 gives k = kj/2. In the Greenshields model, flow peaks at half the jam density and half the free-flow speed: q_max = (kj/2)(vf/2) = vf·kj/4 = (60)(200)/4 = 3,000 veh/h per lane.
Why the other answers miss: D multiplies vf by kj without dividing. C divides by 2 instead of 4. A divides by 8. This is a property of the idealized model, not a design capacity from a highway manual.
Source: University of Washington, CEE 320, Traffic Concepts (PDF p. 11, k = q/u; PDF p. 15, linear speed–density relation; capacity is derived in Q51)
Construction Engineering
Question 52. Activity A takes 3 workdays. B (5 workdays) and C (8 workdays) can both start when A finishes and run in parallel. D (4 workdays) starts only after both B and C finish. With no resource limits or lags, what is the earliest project duration, and what is the critical path?
- A. 12 workdays; A–B–D
- B. 15 workdays; A–C–D
- C. 17 workdays; B–C–D
- D. 20 workdays; A–B–C–D
Show answer and explanation — Question 52
Correct answer: B — 15 workdays; A–C–D
Path A–B–D = 3 + 5 + 4 = 12. Path A–C–D = 3 + 8 + 4 = 15. D waits for the longer branch, so the project takes 15 workdays and the critical path is A–C–D.
Why the other answers miss: A ignores the longer branch. C drops A and runs B and C in series. D adds every activity as if nothing ran in parallel.
Source: C. Hendrickson, Project Management for Construction (CMU) (Ch. 10, Secs. 10.2–10.4, critical path and float (Eq. 10.11))
Question 53. At a reporting date, a project has earned value EV = $80,000, actual cost AC = $100,000 and planned value PV = $60,000. Which two statements are correct? Select exactly two.
Select two.
- A. Cost variance is −$20,000: the work performed cost more than it earned.
- B. Cost variance is +$20,000: the work is under budget.
- C. Schedule variance proves the project will finish 20 workdays early.
- D. Schedule variance is +$20,000: more work has been earned than was planned by this date.
Show answer and explanation — Question 53
Correct answer: A and D
CV = EV − AC = 80,000 − 100,000 = −$20,000 (over budget). SV = EV − PV = 80,000 − 60,000 = +$20,000 (ahead of plan in value terms). So A and D.
Why the other answers miss: B reverses the cost variance. C turns a dollar variance into a day forecast, which needs a schedule model. Scoring here is all-or-nothing.
Source: NASA, Earned Value Management Tutorial (Cost variance and schedule variance definitions)
Question 54. A network has these activities: A (3 days); B (5 days) after A; C (2 days) after A; D (4 days) after C; E (3 days) after both B and D. Assume finish-to-start relationships, no lags and no resource constraints. What is the total float of activity B, in days?
Your answer: ________ days (whole number)
Show answer and explanation — Question 54
Correct answer: 1 day
Path A–B–E = 3 + 5 + 3 = 11 days. Path A–C–D–E = 3 + 2 + 4 + 3 = 12 days, so the project takes 12 days and A–C–D–E is critical. B can slip by 12 − 11 = 1 day without delaying E. (Early start of B = 3, late start = 4; total float = LS − ES = 1.)
Why the other answers miss: 0 would make B critical, but B isn't on the longest path. Comparing B with one activity on the other branch (for example, B vs. D) instead of comparing whole paths gives the wrong float. Total float compares complete paths through the network.
Source: C. Hendrickson, Project Management for Construction (CMU) (Ch. 10, Secs. 10.2–10.4, critical path and float (Eq. 10.11))
Question 55. A highway agency wants a single contracting entity to be responsible for both the design and the construction of a new interchange under one contract. Which project delivery method fits?
- A. Design-bid-build
- B. Design-build
- C. Construction manager at risk
- D. Multiple-prime contracting
Show answer and explanation — Question 55
Correct answer: B — Design-build
Design-build combines design and construction services in a single contract, so one entity is accountable for both.
Why the other answers miss: A uses separate design and construction contracts. C keeps a separate designer and brings the construction manager in during design, typically with a guaranteed maximum price. D splits construction among several contractors under separate contracts.
Source: FHWA, Design-Build (Definition: design and construction in a single contract); AIA, Primer on project delivery terms (Design-bid-build, design-build and CM at risk definitions)
Score your attempt
Give yourself 1 point for each question you got right on your first try. There's no partial credit: the two select-two questions (6 and 53) count only if you picked exactly the two correct choices. For number-entry questions, round your answer to the precision the question asks for, using decimal half-up rounding (an exact halfway value rounds away from zero), then compare it with the key.
For an attempted-question percentage, divide your first-try correct answers by the number you answered before viewing the solution, then multiply by 100. Keep unanswered questions and questions whose solutions you viewed first separate; neither belongs in that denominator. With no scored attempts, there is no percentage. For example, 8 correct out of 10 scored attempts is 80%, not 8 out of 55; this describes those ten attempts only.
Then sort your misses by topic and look for the specific setup, unit or calculation errors. Each area has only two to six questions, so the pattern is a review prompt, not a precise readiness measurement.
| Q | Topic | Answer |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Mathematics and Statistics | C — 4.32 m³ |
| 2 | Mathematics and Statistics | 2.00 MPa |
| 3 | Mathematics and Statistics | B — 61.3° |
| 4 | Mathematics and Statistics | B — 36 |
| 5 | Ethics and Professional Practice | B |
| 6 | Ethics and Professional Practice | A and C |
| 7 | Engineering Economics | A — $10,000 |
| 8 | Engineering Economics | C — 2,500 units |
| 9 | Engineering Economics | B — $101,000 |
| 10 | Statics | C — 18 kN |
| 11 | Statics | B — 250 lbf to the left |
| 12 | Statics | C — 608 N |
| 13 | Statics | 142.6 mm |
| 14 | Dynamics | D — 12.25 kN |
| 15 | Dynamics | A — −2,000 N·s |
| 16 | Mechanics of Materials | C — 1.00 mm |
| 17 | Mechanics of Materials | B — 12 MPa |
| 18 | Mechanics of Materials | C — 94.0 MPa |
| 19 | Mechanics of Materials | B — At x = 2 m (under the 30 kN load) |
| 20 | Materials | B — 0.50 |
| 21 | Materials | C — 8.4 mm |
| 22 | Materials | B |
| 23 | Fluid Mechanics | D — 3.60 m/s |
| 24 | Fluid Mechanics | C — 18.44 kPa |
| 25 | Fluid Mechanics | 1.98 m/s |
| 26 | Surveying | 103.00 m |
| 27 | Surveying | A — 36.87° |
| 28 | Surveying | B — 600 m³ |
| 29 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | B — 1.50 m³/s |
| 30 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | 3.36 m³/s |
| 31 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | B — 8 mg/L |
| 32 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | 0.50 L/s |
| 33 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | C — 210 mg/L |
| 34 | Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | B — 2.4 h |
| 35 | Structural Engineering | C — 0.0318 in |
| 36 | Structural Engineering | A — 20 kip |
| 37 | Structural Engineering | D — 12.5 kN compression |
| 38 | Structural Engineering | B — 90 kN·m |
| 39 | Structural Engineering | B — Statically determinate |
| 40 | Structural Engineering | B — 45 kN |
| 41 | Geotechnical Engineering | 37.5% |
| 42 | Geotechnical Engineering | C — 66.57 kPa |
| 43 | Geotechnical Engineering | C — 0.54 |
| 44 | Geotechnical Engineering | B — CL |
| 45 | Geotechnical Engineering | B — 75 kN/m |
| 46 | Geotechnical Engineering | A — 111 mm |
| 47 | Transportation Engineering | C — 1,440 veh/h |
| 48 | Transportation Engineering | B — 462 ft |
| 49 | Transportation Engineering | A — Octagon |
| 50 | Transportation Engineering | C — 566 ft |
| 51 | Transportation Engineering | B — 3,000 veh/h |
| 52 | Construction Engineering | B — 15 workdays; A–C–D |
| 53 | Construction Engineering | A and D |
| 54 | Construction Engineering | 1 day |
| 55 | Construction Engineering | B — Design-build |
What your score means: it describes your performance on these 55 questions. It's not an NCEES scaled score, and it doesn't predict whether you'll pass. NCEES doesn't publish a passing score. It scores the exam on the number of correct answers, with no deduction for wrong ones, then converts that to a scaled score to adjust for small differences between exam forms (NCEES, Exam scoring). That's also why a guess beats a blank on the real exam.
How to review a missed question
- Name the mistake: wrong model or equation, a unit slip, an algebra error, or misreading what was asked.
- Write the corrected setup before you recalculate anything.
- Close the explanation and rework the question from scratch.
- For a calculation question, find the relevant equation in your copy of the FE Reference Handbook, so you can locate it fast on exam day. For a concept or ethics question, revisit the linked principle instead.
What this practice test covers
The questions follow the current NCEES FE Civil exam specifications, effective with exams beginning July 2020 (NCEES FE Civil specifications, pp. 1–3). The set samples each top-level area, with the larger Civil-specific areas receiving more questions. Its 55-question allocation is editorial, not an official exam section or a validated weighting model.
| Knowledge area | Questions on the real exam (NCEES range) | Questions in this test |
|---|---|---|
| Mathematics and Statistics | 8–12 | 4 |
| Ethics and Professional Practice | 4–6 | 2 |
| Engineering Economics | 5–8 | 3 |
| Statics | 8–12 | 4 |
| Dynamics | 4–6 | 2 |
| Mechanics of Materials | 7–11 | 4 |
| Materials | 5–8 | 3 |
| Fluid Mechanics | 6–9 | 3 |
| Surveying | 6–9 | 3 |
| Water Resources and Environmental Engineering | 10–15 | 6 |
| Structural Engineering | 10–15 | 6 |
| Geotechnical Engineering | 10–15 | 6 |
| Transportation Engineering | 9–14 | 5 |
| Construction Engineering | 8–12 | 4 |
| Total | 110 | 55 |
Each area has several subtopics, and two to six questions can't cover all of them. A strong result here shows you handled these items, not every skill in the area. The spec is also the quickest answer to a common worry: it does not list Chemistry, Thermodynamics or Electricity as separate Civil knowledge areas, but it explicitly includes basic water chemistry under Water Resources and Environmental Engineering, item 10I. Use the Civil subtopic list rather than excluding a subject from its name alone.
How close is this to the real FE Civil exam?
This set samples the same top-level topic map and uses three formats that NCEES supports. It does not reproduce an official exam form, its difficulty or its format proportions, and our score isn't NCEES scoring.
| Row label | Real FE Civil exam | This practice test |
|---|---|---|
| Questions | 110 | 55 |
| Exam time | 5 hours 20 minutes | Untimed, or an optional 160-minute allocation |
| Rest of the appointment | 2-minute nondisclosure agreement, 8-minute tutorial, 25-minute scheduled break | — |
| Structure | Two sections; you review and submit roughly the first half before the optional break | One 55-question sample; not an official section |
| Question formats | Mostly multiple choice, plus multiple correct, point-and-click, drag-and-drop and fill-in-the-blank | 45 multiple choice, 8 numeric entry, 2 select-two |
| Reference | FE Reference Handbook shown on screen as a searchable PDF | Use your downloaded copy |
| Units | SI and U.S. customary | SI and U.S. customary |
| Scoring | Scaled score, pass/fail; passing score not published | 1 point per question; no official meaning |
Sources: NCEES, FE exam; NCEES Examinee Guide, May 2026 (printed pp. 10–11, Reference Materials and Exam Format; printed p. 16, FE format table); NCEES, Computer-based testing.
The exam also includes a limited number of unscored pretest questions mixed in with the rest. You can't tell which ones they are, so treat every question as if it counts (Examinee Guide, printed p. 11).
Pace yourself and use the handbook
Pace. The real exam gives 320 minutes for 110 questions, a little under 3 minutes each. For 55 questions that works out to 160 minutes: 55 × 320 ÷ 110. That is an optional arithmetic allocation, not an official short-form time limit or evidence that these questions match exam difficulty. Working untimed first is a perfectly good way to learn the material; add the clock once the methods feel familiar.
Handbook. The exam is closed book, but NCEES supplies the current FE Reference Handbook on screen as a searchable PDF. You search it with the built-in search box (Ctrl + F doesn't work), and you can't bring your own copy. Download the current version free from your MyNCEES account dashboard and practice finding equations in it while you work these questions (Examinee Guide, printed p. 10).
Calculator. You can bring one NCEES-approved calculator, and a TI-30XS is also available on screen during the exam. See the NCEES Examinee Guide, printed p. 8 for these calculator rules.
Official FE Civil resources
- NCEES FE exam page: format, the $225 exam fee, results timing and links to your licensing board's requirements.
- FE Civil exam specifications (PDF): the full subtopic list for all 14 areas.
- FE Reference Handbook: free from your MyNCEES dashboard.
- NCEES Examinee Guide: ID, calculator, scoring, scheduling and retake rules. You can attempt the exam once per quarterly testing window and no more than three times in any 12-month period; some boards are stricter.
- Booking the exam? Our NCEES exam registration guide walks through MyNCEES registration, board approval and scheduling.
Who can sit for the exam is set by each state licensing board, not by NCEES. Check your board through the NCEES Member Licensing Board Directory.
Sources and verification
Last verified: October 6, 2026. On that date we checked the NCEES FE Civil specifications, FE exam format, fee, scoring, reference-handbook rules and attempt limits against the NCEES sources linked above. Each question's explanation links a technical source with accessible support for its method, and we recalculated every numerical answer. The questions haven't been statistically tested on candidates. Our source checking isn't the same as review by a licensed professional engineer.
By Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. We use AI-assisted tools in research and drafting, as described in our methodology; Castleport is responsible for what we publish. Read our editorial standards.
Independence: Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We aren't affiliated with, endorsed by or approved by NCEES. These are original practice questions, not actual NCEES exam questions. Exam and credential names are used only to identify the exam; trademarks belong to their respective owners. Using this resource doesn't guarantee a passing result or licensure. See our independence policy.