Free FE Electrical and Computer Practice Test
These 55 original FE Electrical and Computer practice questions sample all 17 NCEES knowledge areas, with an answer and worked explanation under every question, and no sign-up. It's unofficial practice at half the question count of the real exam, built from the specifications effective beginning July 2020, and your result here isn't a predicted exam score.
Practice questions
Question 1 of 55: Thévenin equivalent
FEEC-01 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Choose one answer
An ideal 24 V DC source is in series with R1 = 6 kΩ. From the far end of R1, R2 = 3 kΩ connects to ground (the source's negative terminal). The output terminals a–b are across R2, with a at the R1–R2 junction and b at ground. What is the Thévenin equivalent seen at a–b?
- A. V_Th = 8 V, R_Th = 9 kΩ
- B. V_Th = 8 V, R_Th = 2 kΩ
- C. V_Th = 16 V, R_Th = 2 kΩ
- D. V_Th = 24 V, R_Th = 2 kΩ
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 1
Correct answer: B. V_Th = 8 V, R_Th = 2 kΩ
V_Th is the open-circuit voltage at a–b. With nothing connected, R1 and R2 form a divider: V_Th = 24 × 3/(6 + 3) = 8 V. For R_Th, turn the voltage source off (replace it with a short). Looking back from a–b, R1 and R2 are now in parallel: (6 × 3)/(6 + 3) = 2 kΩ.
A adds R1 and R2 in series, which forgets that the shorted source puts them in parallel. C uses the divider backwards (R1 on top instead of R2), giving the voltage across R1. D skips the divider and reports the source voltage.
Source: MIT OCW 6.002 Lecture 3, Thévenin equivalent, PDF p. 16; OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §10.2, Resistors in Series and Parallel
Question 2 of 55: Complex number in polar form
FEEC-02 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
Express z = −3 + j4 in polar form (angle measured from the positive real axis).
- A. 5∠−53.1°
- B. 5∠53.1°
- C. 7∠126.9°
- D. 5∠126.9°
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 2
Correct answer: D. 5∠126.9°
Magnitude: |z| = √((−3)² + 4²) = 5. The point (−3, 4) sits in the second quadrant, so the angle must be between 90° and 180°. Your calculator's arctan(4/−3) returns −53.1°, which points into the fourth quadrant. Add 180° to land in the right quadrant: −53.1° + 180° = 126.9°.
A is the raw calculator answer with the quadrant ignored. B drops the sign of the real part. C adds the components (3 + 4) instead of using the Pythagorean magnitude.
Source: OpenStax Precalculus 2e §8.5, Polar Form of Complex Numbers
Question 3 of 55: Two linear equations
FEEC-03 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
Solve the system: 2x + y = 7 and x − 3y = −7.
- A. x = 2, y = 3
- B. x = 3, y = 1
- C. x = 1, y = 5
- D. x = −2, y = 11
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 3
Correct answer: A. x = 2, y = 3
From the first equation, y = 7 − 2x. Substitute into the second: x − 3(7 − 2x) = −7, so 7x − 21 = −7 and x = 2. Then y = 7 − 2(2) = 3. Check both: 2(2) + 3 = 7 and 2 − 9 = −7.
B, C and D each satisfy the first equation but fail the second (3 − 3 = 0, 1 − 15 = −14, −2 − 33 = −35). Plugging an answer back into both equations is the fastest check on exam day.
Source: OpenStax College Algebra 2e §7.1, Systems of Linear Equations: Two Variables
Question 4 of 55: Definite integral
FEEC-04 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
Evaluate ∫ from t = 0 to t = 2 of (3t² + 2) dt.
- A. 14
- B. 8
- C. 12
- D. 28
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 4
Correct answer: C. 12
An antiderivative is t³ + 2t. Evaluate at the limits: (2³ + 2·2) − (0 + 0) = 8 + 4 = 12.
A evaluates the integrand at t = 2 (3·4 + 2) instead of integrating. B keeps only the t³ term and drops the 2t contribution. D forgets to divide by 3 when integrating 3t², using 3t³ + 2t. Integrate every term, then subtract the lower-limit value.
Source: OpenStax Calculus Vol. 1 §5.3, Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Part 2
Question 5 of 55: Angle between vectors
FEEC-05 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
What is the angle between A = 2i − j + 2k and B = i + 2j + 2k?
- A. 26.4°
- B. 90.0°
- C. 63.6°
- D. 116.4°
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 5
Correct answer: C. 63.6°
A · B = (2)(1) + (−1)(2) + (2)(2) = 4. Both vectors have magnitude 3 (√(4 + 1 + 4) and √(1 + 4 + 4)). So cos θ = 4/(3 × 3) = 0.444 and θ = 63.6°.
A is 90° − 63.6°, a complement mix-up. B would require a zero dot product. D is 180° − 63.6°, which would need a negative dot product.
Source: OpenStax Calculus Vol. 3 §2.3, The Dot Product (Eq. 2.4)
Question 6 of 55: Counting bit patterns
FEEC-06 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
How many different 8-bit binary strings contain exactly three 1s?
- A. 56
- B. 336
- C. 24
- D. 256
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 6
Correct answer: A. 56
Order of the chosen positions doesn't matter (a string with 1s in bits 2, 5 and 7 is one string), so this is a combination: C(8, 3) = 8!/(3! · 5!) = 56.
B is the permutation count P(8, 3) = 8 × 7 × 6, which counts the same set of positions six times. D is every possible 8-bit string (2⁸). C is 8 × 3, which isn't a counting rule.
Source: OpenStax College Algebra 2e §9.5, Counting Principles (combinations formula)
Question 7 of 55: Second-order ODE
FEEC-07 · Mathematics · Choose one answer
What is the general solution of y″ + 5y′ + 6y = 0?
- A. y = C₁e^(2t) + C₂e^(3t)
- B. y = (C₁ + C₂t)e^(−2t)
- C. y = e^(−2.5t)(C₁ cos t + C₂ sin t)
- D. y = C₁e^(−2t) + C₂e^(−3t)
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 7
Correct answer: D. y = C₁e^(−2t) + C₂e^(−3t)
Write the characteristic equation r² + 5r + 6 = 0, which factors as (r + 2)(r + 3) = 0. The roots are r = −2 and r = −3: real and distinct. That gives y = C₁e^(−2t) + C₂e^(−3t), an overdamped response that decays without oscillating.
A flips the signs of the roots. B is the form for a repeated root, which happens only when the discriminant is zero (here 25 − 24 = 1). C is the form for complex roots, which would need a negative discriminant.
Source: OpenStax Calculus Vol. 3 §7.1, Second-Order Linear Equations (characteristic equation)
Question 8 of 55: Binomial probability
FEEC-08 · Probability and Statistics · Choose one answer
Each part from a supplier is defective with probability 0.05, independently of the others. In a random sample of 10 parts, what is the probability that exactly one is defective?
- A. 0.050
- B. 0.315
- C. 0.599
- D. 0.401
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 8
Correct answer: B. 0.315
This is binomial with n = 10 and p = 0.05. P(X = 1) = C(10, 1)(0.05)¹(0.95)⁹ = 10 × 0.05 × 0.6302 = 0.315.
C is P(X = 0) = 0.95¹⁰, the chance of no defects. D is 1 − 0.599, the chance of at least one defect, which is a different question from exactly one. A is just p for a single part.
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook §1.3.6.6.18, Binomial Distribution
Question 9 of 55: Sample standard deviation
FEEC-09 · Probability and Statistics · Choose one answer
Five resistors from a batch measure 98, 100, 101, 99 and 102 Ω. What is the sample standard deviation?
- A. 1.41 Ω
- B. 2.50 Ω
- C. 100 Ω
- D. 1.58 Ω
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 9
Correct answer: D. 1.58 Ω
Mean = 500/5 = 100 Ω. Squared deviations: 4, 0, 1, 1, 4, summing to 10. The sample standard deviation divides by n − 1 = 4: s = √(10/4) = 1.58 Ω.
A divides by n = 5, which is the population formula. B is the sample variance (10/4) before taking the square root, and its units would be Ω². C is the mean.
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook §1.3.5.6, Measures of Scale (standard deviation)
Question 10 of 55: Overruled on a safety issue
FEEC-10 · Ethics and Professional Practice · Choose one answer
A licensed engineer tells a manager that a design change creates a fire hazard for the public. The manager overrules the engineer and orders the change built anyway. Under the NCEES Model Rules of Professional Conduct, what must the engineer do?
- A. Build the change, because the manager now carries the responsibility
- B. Notify the employer or client and any other appropriate authority
- C. Resign quietly without telling anyone about the concern
- D. Make a public accusation without adequate knowledge of the facts
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 10
Correct answer: B. Notify the employer or client and any other appropriate authority
Model Rules §240.15 A.3 says licensees shall notify their employer or client, and such other authority as may be appropriate, when their professional judgment is overruled and public health, safety or welfare is endangered. Protecting the public comes first (§240.15 A.1).
A treats the duty as transferable to a manager; it isn't. C removes the engineer but leaves the hazard unreported. D conflicts with A.5, which says public opinions must rest on adequate knowledge of the facts. Your state board's adopted rules control your actual license.
Source: NCEES Model Rules (2026), §240.15 A.1, A.3 and A.5, printed p. 11 (PDF p. 15)
Question 11 of 55: Intellectual property
FEEC-11 · Ethics and Professional Practice · Select all that apply
Select every statement that is correct under U.S. law.
- A. Copyright can protect the original expression in a program's source code.
- B. Copyright protects the underlying algorithm or method of operation itself.
- C. A trade secret must be registered with a federal agency before it is protected.
- D. A calibration procedure can qualify as a trade secret when the company takes reasonable measures to keep it secret and it has independent economic value from not being generally known or readily ascertainable through proper means by others who could benefit from it.
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 11
Correct answers: A, D
A is correct. Copyright covers original works of authorship, including literary works, and computer programs are protected as written expression (17 U.S.C. §102(a)).
B is wrong. Section 102(b) says copyright never extends to an idea, procedure, process, system or method of operation. Algorithms fall in that excluded group.
C is wrong. The federal definition of a trade secret (18 U.S.C. §1839(3)) requires reasonable secrecy measures and independent economic value from not being generally known or readily ascertainable through proper means by others who could benefit from it. It doesn't require registration.
D is correct because it meets both parts of that definition.
Source: U.S. Copyright Office, 17 U.S.C. §102(a)–(b); 18 U.S.C. §1839(3), definition of trade secret; USPTO, Trade secret policy: definition and elements
Question 12 of 55: Present worth
FEEC-12 · Engineering Economics · Choose one answer
You will receive $10,000 five years from now. At 6% per year, compounded annually, what is its present worth?
- A. $7,473
- B. $7,692
- C. $13,382
- D. $9,434
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 12
Correct answer: A. $7,473
P = F/(1 + i)ⁿ = 10,000/1.06⁵ = 10,000/1.3382 = $7,473.
B uses simple interest (10,000/1.30). C is the future worth of $10,000 invested today, not the present worth of a future payment. D discounts for only one year.
Source: OpenStax Contemporary Mathematics §6.4, Compound Interest (present value formula)
Question 13 of 55: Uniform annual savings
FEEC-13 · Engineering Economics · Enter a number
An upgrade costs $20,000 today. It lasts 8 years with no salvage value. At an interest rate of 8% per year, what uniform end-of-year savings would exactly repay the investment? Round to the nearest dollar.
Your answer: ______ $ per year
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 13
Correct answer: 3,480 $ per year
Use the capital recovery relationship, A = P × i(1 + i)ⁿ/[(1 + i)ⁿ − 1]. With i = 0.08 and n = 8, (1.08)⁸ = 1.8509, so the factor is 0.08 × 1.8509/0.8509 = 0.17401. A = 20,000 × 0.17401 = $3,480 per year.
A common slip is dividing 20,000 by 8 ($2,500), which ignores interest. Another is multiplying by the interest rate alone ($1,600), which pays the interest but never repays the principal.
Source: OpenStax Principles of Finance §8.2, Annuities (present value of an annuity)
Question 14 of 55: Break-even quantity
FEEC-14 · Engineering Economics · Choose one answer
A product line has fixed costs of $50,000. Each unit sells for $25 and costs $15 in variable cost. How many units must be sold to break even?
- A. 2,000 units
- B. 3,333 units
- C. 5,000 units
- D. 10,000 units
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 14
Correct answer: C. 5,000 units
Each unit contributes $25 − $15 = $10 toward fixed costs. Break-even units = 50,000/10 = 5,000.
A divides by the full price ($25), ignoring variable cost. B divides by the variable cost ($15). D is the result if the margin were $5.
Source: OpenStax Principles of Managerial Accounting §3.2, Break-Even Point in Units
Question 15 of 55: Conductor resistance
FEEC-15 · Properties of Electrical Materials · Enter a number
A copper conductor is 100 m long with a cross-sectional area of 1.5 mm². Use a resistivity of 1.72 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m. What is its resistance? Round to two decimal places.
Your answer: ______ Ω
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 15
Correct answer: 1.15 Ω
R = ρL/A. Convert the area first: 1.5 mm² = 1.5 × 10⁻⁶ m². Then R = (1.72 × 10⁻⁸)(100)/(1.5 × 10⁻⁶) = 1.15 Ω.
The usual mistake is converting mm² as if it were mm (using 1.5 × 10⁻³ m²), which makes the answer a thousand times too small. Another is inverting the ratio (A/L), which gives nonsense units.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §9.3, Resistivity and Resistance (Eq. 9.9)
Question 16 of 55: Doping silicon
FEEC-16 · Properties of Electrical Materials · Select all that apply
Pure silicon is doped with phosphorus, a donor impurity with five valence electrons. Select every correct statement about the doped material at room temperature.
- A. It is an n-type semiconductor.
- B. Free electrons are the majority carriers.
- C. Phosphorus acts as an acceptor impurity.
- D. Holes are the majority carriers.
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 16
Correct answers: A, B
A donor atom has one more valence electron than silicon needs for bonding. That extra electron is easily freed, so donor doping makes an n-type semiconductor (A), and free electrons become the majority carriers (B).
C is wrong: acceptors have one fewer valence electron (for example, boron) and create holes. D describes p-type material, which acceptor doping produces.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 3 §9.6, Semiconductors and Doping; Royal Society of Chemistry, Phosphorus: Fact box
Question 17 of 55: Node voltage
FEEC-17 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Enter a number
A single node V connects to the +12 V terminal of an ideal, ground-referenced voltage source through a 4 Ω resistor and to ground through a 6 Ω resistor. A 1 A current source also injects current into node V from ground. Find V. Round to one decimal place.
Your answer: ______ V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 17
Correct answer: 9.6 V
Write KCL at the node, with currents leaving as positive: (V − 12)/4 + V/6 − 1 = 0. Multiply by 12: 3(V − 12) + 2V − 12 = 0, so 5V = 48 and V = 9.6 V.
If you get 7.2 V, you dropped the current source and solved only the divider. If you get 4.8 V, you reversed the 1 A source: it pushes current into the node, so it appears with the opposite sign of the currents leaving.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §10.3, Kirchhoff's Rules
Question 18 of 55: RMS of a waveform with a DC offset
FEEC-18 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Choose one answer
What is the RMS value of v(t) = 10 + 20 sin(ωt) volts?
- A. 14.1 V
- B. 17.3 V
- C. 24.1 V
- D. 22.4 V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 18
Correct answer: B. 17.3 V
RMS means the square root of the average of v² over one period. Squaring gives 100 + 400 sin(ωt) + 400 sin²(ωt). Over a full period, the sin(ωt) term averages to zero and sin²(ωt) averages to ½. So the mean of v² is 100 + 200 = 300 V², and V_rms = √300 = 17.3 V. In short, V_rms = √(V_dc² + V_ac,rms²).
A is only the AC part (20/√2). C adds the DC value and the AC RMS value directly, but RMS values don't add linearly. D uses the AC peak instead of its RMS value.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.4, Power in an AC Circuit
Question 19 of 55: Series RL phasor current
FEEC-19 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Choose one answer
A 120∠0° V rms, 60 Hz source drives a 30 Ω resistor in series with a 106.1 mH inductor. What is the current phasor?
- A. 2.4∠+53.1° A
- B. 2.8∠−45° A
- C. 4.0∠0° A
- D. 2.4∠−53.1° A
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 19
Correct answer: D. 2.4∠−53.1° A
X_L = ωL = 2π(60)(0.1061) ≈ 40 Ω. The impedance is Z = 30 + j40 Ω = 50∠53.1° Ω. Current I = V/Z = 120∠0°/50∠53.1° = 2.4∠−53.1° A. Current lags voltage in an inductive circuit, so the angle is negative.
A has the right magnitude but shows current leading, which would mean a capacitive load. B assumes R and X_L are equal. C uses only the resistor and ignores the inductor.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.2, Simple AC Circuits (Eq. 15.8); OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.3, RLC Series Circuits with AC (Eqs. 15.9, 15.11)
Question 20 of 55: Series-parallel resistance
FEEC-20 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Choose one answer
A 10 Ω resistor is in series with a parallel pair of 20 Ω and 30 Ω resistors. What is the equivalent resistance?
- A. 60 Ω
- B. 5.45 Ω
- C. 22 Ω
- D. 30 Ω
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 20
Correct answer: C. 22 Ω
Reduce the parallel pair first: 20 × 30/(20 + 30) = 12 Ω. Then add the series resistor: 10 + 12 = 22 Ω.
A puts all three in series. B puts all three in parallel. D adds 10 and 20 and drops the 30 Ω branch entirely.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §10.2, Resistors in Series and Parallel
Question 21 of 55: Wavelength from frequency
FEEC-21 · Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) · Choose one answer
What is the free-space wavelength of a 2.4 GHz signal? Use c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.
- A. 0.125 m
- B. 1.25 m
- C. 12.5 m
- D. 0.0125 m
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 21
Correct answer: A. 0.125 m
λ = c/f = (3.0 × 10⁸)/(2.4 × 10⁹) = 0.125 m, or 12.5 cm.
The other choices are the same digits off by powers of ten. That usually means a prefix slip (GHz is 10⁹ Hz, not 10⁸ or 10¹⁰). Sanity check: Wi-Fi at 2.4 GHz has a wavelength of a few inches, not meters.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §16.2, Plane Electromagnetic Waves
Question 22 of 55: RC charging
FEEC-22 · Linear Systems · Choose one answer
An uncharged 100 µF capacitor charges through a 10 kΩ resistor from a 10 V DC source switched on at t = 0. What is the capacitor voltage at t = 2 s?
- A. 6.32 V
- B. 1.35 V
- C. 9.82 V
- D. 8.65 V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 22
Correct answer: D. 8.65 V
τ = RC = (10 × 10³)(100 × 10⁻⁶) = 1 s. For charging, v_C(t) = 10(1 − e^(−t/τ)), so v_C(2) = 10(1 − e⁻²) = 8.65 V.
A is the value after one time constant (63.2%). B uses e⁻² alone, which is the discharge form. C is the value after four time constants.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §10.5, RC Circuits (Eqs. 10.8–10.9)
Question 23 of 55: Series resonance
FEEC-23 · Linear Systems · Choose one answer
A series RLC circuit has L = 10 mH, C = 1 µF and R = 10 Ω. What are its resonant frequency and quality factor Q?
- A. 1.59 kHz and Q = 10
- B. 10 kHz and Q = 10
- C. 1.59 kHz and Q = 0.1
- D. 159 Hz and Q = 100
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 23
Correct answer: A. 1.59 kHz and Q = 10
ω₀ = 1/√(LC) = 1/√(0.01 × 10⁻⁶) = 10,000 rad/s, so f₀ = ω₀/2π = 1.59 kHz. For a series RLC, Q = ω₀L/R = (10,000)(0.01)/10 = 10.
B reports ω₀ in rad/s as if it were Hz. C inverts Q (R/ω₀L). D is off by a factor of ten in f₀ and in Q; neither value follows from the formulas.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.5, Resonance in an AC Circuit (Eqs. 15.17–15.19)
Question 24 of 55: Impulse response from a transfer function
FEEC-24 · Linear Systems · Choose one answer
An initially relaxed, causal linear time-invariant system has transfer function H(s) = 6/(s + 3). What is its impulse response h(t), where u(t) is the unit-step function?
- A. 2(1 − e^(−3t))u(t)
- B. 6e^(3t)u(t)
- C. 6e^(−3t)u(t)
- D. 3e^(−6t)u(t)
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 24
Correct answer: C. 6e^(−3t)u(t)
The impulse response is the inverse Laplace transform of H(s). The causal pair e^(−at)u(t) ↔ 1/(s + a), scaled by 6, gives h(t) = 6e^(−3t)u(t).
A is the step response, which is the inverse transform of H(s)/s. B has the wrong exponent sign; that would need a pole at s = +3, and it would grow without bound. D swaps the gain and the pole location.
Source: MIT OCW 6.003 Lecture 6, Laplace Transform, PDF p. 8
Question 25 of 55: Aliasing
FEEC-25 · Signal Processing · Choose one answer
A 7 kHz sine wave is sampled at 10 kHz with no anti-aliasing filter. What is its principal alias frequency in the 0–5 kHz baseband?
- A. 7 kHz
- B. 3 kHz
- C. 17 kHz
- D. 10 kHz
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 25
Correct answer: B. 3 kHz
The sampling rate must exceed twice the signal frequency (14 kHz here) to avoid aliasing. At 10 kHz, anything above the 5 kHz folding frequency wraps back. The alias appears at |f − f_s| = |7 − 10| = 3 kHz.
A is the original tone frequency and C is f + f_s. Both are outside the requested 0–5 kHz baseband, so neither is the principal alias. D is the sampling rate itself.
Question 26 of 55: RC low-pass cutoff
FEEC-26 · Signal Processing · Choose one answer
An unloaded first-order RC low-pass filter has a series resistor R = 1.6 kΩ and a capacitor C = 10 nF to ground, with the output taken across the capacitor. What is its −3 dB cutoff frequency?
- A. 62.5 kHz
- B. 995 Hz
- C. 99.5 kHz
- D. 9.95 kHz
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 26
Correct answer: D. 9.95 kHz
f_c = 1/(2πRC) = 1/(2π × 1.6 × 10³ × 10 × 10⁻⁹) = 1/(1.005 × 10⁻⁴) ≈ 9.95 kHz.
A is 1/(RC) = 62,500, which is the cutoff in rad/s, not Hz. B and C are factor-of-ten slips: using 100 nF instead of 10 nF gives about 995 Hz, while using 1 nF gives about 99.5 kHz.
The capacitor impedance is 1/(jωC), so the divider gives H(jω) = 1/(1 + jωRC). Its magnitude is 1/√(1 + (ωRC)²); the −3 dB point occurs at ωRC = 1.
Source: MIT OCW 6.061, AC Power Flow in Linear Networks, §§4 and 7
Question 27 of 55: First-order digital filter
FEEC-27 · Signal Processing · Select all that apply
A causal digital filter, initially at rest, is defined by y[n] = x[n] + 0.5 y[n − 1]. Select every correct statement.
- A. Its transfer function is H(z) = 1/(1 − 0.5z⁻¹).
- B. It is an infinite impulse response (IIR) filter.
- C. It is unstable because its pole lies outside the unit circle.
- D. It is a finite impulse response (FIR) filter.
- E. Its DC gain, H(z) at z = 1, is 2.
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 27
Correct answers: A, B, E
Take the z-transform: Y(z) = X(z) + 0.5z⁻¹Y(z), so H(z) = 1/(1 − 0.5z⁻¹), confirming A. The output feeds back on itself, so an impulse produces 1, 0.5, 0.25, … forever, which is the definition of IIR (B). DC gain is H(1) = 1/(1 − 0.5) = 2 (E).
C is wrong: the pole is at z = 0.5, inside the unit circle, so the causal filter is stable. D is wrong because the impulse response never ends.
Source: MIT OCW 6.003 Lecture 5, Z Transform, PDF p. 11; MIT OCW RES.6-007, Lecture 23 transcript, pp. 3–5
Question 28 of 55: Inverting op-amp
FEEC-28 · Electronics · Choose one answer
An ideal op-amp inverting amplifier has input resistor 2 kΩ, feedback resistor 10 kΩ, ±15 V supplies and v_in = 0.3 V. The non-inverting input is grounded. What is v_out?
- A. +1.5 V
- B. −1.5 V
- C. +1.8 V
- D. −15 V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 28
Correct answer: B. −1.5 V
Inverting gain is −R_f/R_in = −10/2 = −5. v_out = −5 × 0.3 = −1.5 V. That's well inside the ±15 V rails, so the amplifier stays linear.
A drops the minus sign. C uses the non-inverting gain, 1 + R_f/R_in = 6. D assumes saturation, which happens only if the computed output exceeds the supply.
Source: MIT OCW 6.002 Lecture 20, Operational Amplifier Circuits, p. 3
Question 29 of 55: Full-wave rectifier average
FEEC-29 · Electronics · Choose one answer
An ideal full-wave rectifier (ideal diodes) feeds a resistive load from a sine wave with a 20 V peak, with no smoothing capacitor or other output filter. What is the average (DC) output voltage?
- A. 6.37 V
- B. 14.1 V
- C. 12.7 V
- D. 20.0 V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 29
Correct answer: C. 12.7 V
For a full-wave rectified sine, V_avg = 2V_m/π = 2(20)/π = 12.7 V.
A is the half-wave result, V_m/π, where every other half-cycle is missing. B is the RMS value, V_m/√2, which isn't the average. D is the peak.
Question 30 of 55: BJT collector-emitter voltage
FEEC-30 · Electronics · Choose one answer
An NPN transistor operates in the active region with β = 100 and base current 20 µA. Its emitter is grounded, and a 2 kΩ resistor connects its collector to V_CC = 12 V. What is V_CE?
- A. 8 V
- B. 4 V
- C. 11.96 V
- D. 0.2 V
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 30
Correct answer: A. 8 V
I_C = βI_B = 100 × 20 µA = 2 mA. The collector loop gives V_CE = V_CC − I_C R_C = 12 − (2 mA)(2 kΩ) = 8 V. This is not a saturated collector-emitter voltage and is consistent with the stated active-region model.
B is the drop across R_C, not V_CE. C uses the base current in place of the collector current. D assumes saturation without checking.
Source: MIT OCW 6.071J, Bipolar Junction Transistor Circuits, PDF p. 1
Question 31 of 55: ADC resolution
FEEC-31 · Electronics · Choose one answer
An ideal 12-bit ADC divides its 0 to 4.096 V input span into 4,096 equal-width quantization bins. What is its resolution (the width of one code step), most nearly?
- A. 16 mV
- B. 4 mV
- C. 0.5 mV
- D. 1 mV
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 31
Correct answer: D. 1 mV
Twelve bits give 2¹² = 4,096 levels. For the equal-width bins specified here, step size = span/2ⁿ = 4.096 V/4,096 = 1.000 mV.
A is the 8-bit result (4.096/256). B is the 10-bit result (4.096/1,024). C is the 13-bit result. Counting bits correctly is the whole problem.
Source: MIT OCW 6.003 Lecture 22, Sampling and Quantization, PDF p. 13
Question 32 of 55: Power factor correction
FEEC-32 · Power Systems · Choose one answer
In sinusoidal steady state, a 100 kW load runs at 0.80 power factor lagging. How much capacitive reactive power is needed to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging, with real power unchanged?
- A. 75.0 kvar
- B. 32.9 kvar
- C. 42.1 kvar
- D. 107.9 kvar
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 32
Correct answer: C. 42.1 kvar
Use the power triangle, Q = P tan θ. At 0.80 PF, θ = 36.9° and Q₁ = 100 × 0.75 = 75.0 kvar. At 0.95 PF, θ = 18.2° and Q₂ = 100 × 0.3287 = 32.9 kvar. The capacitor must supply the difference: 75.0 − 32.9 = 42.1 kvar.
A is the full correction to unity power factor. B is the reactive power left after correction, not the amount added. D adds the two values instead of subtracting.
Source: MIT OCW 6.061, AC Power Flow in Linear Networks, §§4 and 7
Question 33 of 55: Balanced wye load power
FEEC-33 · Power Systems · Choose one answer
A balanced three-phase wye load has 10 Ω of resistance per phase and is supplied at 480 V RMS line-to-line. What is the total real power?
- A. 23.0 kW
- B. 69.1 kW
- C. 7.68 kW
- D. 39.9 kW
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 33
Correct answer: A. 23.0 kW
In a wye connection, line voltage is √3 times phase voltage, so each phase sees 480/√3 = 277 V. Each phase draws about 27.7 A and dissipates (480/√3)²/10 = 7.68 kW. Total P = 3 × 7.68 = 23.0 kW.
B applies the full 480 V across each phase resistor, which is the delta answer. C is only one phase. D computes the current as 480/10 = 48 A and then uses √3 × V_L × I_L, mixing line and phase quantities.
Source: MIT OCW 6.061, Polyphase Networks, §4, PDF p. 7; OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.4, Power in an AC Circuit
Question 34 of 55: Reflected impedance
FEEC-34 · Power Systems · Choose one answer
An ideal transformer has a 10:1 turns ratio (primary turns to secondary turns). An 8 Ω resistor is connected to the secondary. What resistance is seen at the primary?
- A. 80 Ω
- B. 800 Ω
- C. 0.08 Ω
- D. 8 Ω
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 34
Correct answer: B. 800 Ω
With a = N₁/N₂ = 10, the primary voltage is 10 times the secondary voltage and the primary current is one-tenth the secondary current. So Z_primary = V₁/I₁ = (10V₂)/(I₂/10) = 100 × (V₂/I₂) = a²Z_L = 100 × 8 = 800 Ω.
A scales by a instead of a². C divides by a², which reflects a primary impedance to the secondary side. D ignores the transformer.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §15.6, Transformers (Eqs. 15.21–15.22)
Question 35 of 55: Induction motor slip
FEEC-35 · Power Systems · Choose one answer
A 4-pole, 60 Hz induction motor runs at 1,746 rpm. What is its slip?
- A. 3.1%
- B. 51.5%
- C. 97.0%
- D. 3.0%
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 35
Correct answer: D. 3.0%
Synchronous speed n_s = 120f/P = 120 × 60/4 = 1,800 rpm. Slip s = (n_s − n)/n_s = (1,800 − 1,746)/1,800 = 0.030, or 3.0%.
A divides by the rotor speed instead of synchronous speed. B uses the 2-pole synchronous speed of 3,600 rpm. C is the ratio n/n_s, which is 1 − s.
Source: University of Utah ECE 3600, Induction Motors notes, PDF p. 1
Question 36 of 55: Feeder efficiency
FEEC-36 · Power Systems · Choose one answer
A two-wire DC feeder carries 60 A. Its total resistance, counting both the outgoing and return conductors, is 0.50 Ω. The load at the far end receives 18 kW. Ignoring other losses, what is the feeder's efficiency?
- A. 90.0%
- B. 90.9%
- C. 95.2%
- D. 99.8%
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 36
Correct answer: B. 90.9%
Feeder loss = I²R = 60² × 0.50 = 1,800 W. Input power = delivered + loss = 18,000 + 1,800 = 19,800 W. Efficiency = 18,000/19,800 = 90.9%.
A computes 1 − loss/output, which uses the wrong denominator. C uses only one conductor's resistance (0.25 Ω), but the problem already gives the round-trip value. D treats the 30 V drop (IR) as if it were the power loss in watts.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §9.5, Electrical Energy and Power (Eq. 9.13)
Question 37 of 55: Parallel-plate capacitance
FEEC-37 · Electromagnetics · Choose one answer
A parallel-plate capacitor has plate area 0.01 m², plate spacing 1.0 mm and a dielectric with relative permittivity 4 completely filling the gap. Ignore fringing and use ε₀ = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m. What is its capacitance?
- A. 354 pF
- B. 88.5 pF
- C. 35.4 pF
- D. 3.54 nF
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 37
Correct answer: A. 354 pF
Capacitance: C = ε_rε₀A/d = 4 × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² × 0.01/(1.0 × 10⁻³) = 3.54 × 10⁻¹⁰ F = 354 pF.
B leaves out the dielectric constant (vacuum value). C and D are factor-of-ten slips, usually from converting 1 mm to 10⁻² or 10⁻⁴ m.
Source: OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §8.1, Capacitors and Capacitance (Eq. 8.3); OpenStax University Physics Vol. 2 §8.4, Capacitor with a Dielectric (Eq. 8.11)
Question 38 of 55: Reflection coefficient and VSWR
FEEC-38 · Electromagnetics · Choose one answer
A lossless 50 Ω transmission line is terminated in a 75 Ω resistive load. What are the load reflection coefficient Γ and the VSWR?
- A. Γ = −0.2, VSWR = 1.5
- B. Γ = 0.2, VSWR = 1.25
- C. Γ = 0.2, VSWR = 1.5
- D. Γ = 0.5, VSWR = 3.0
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 38
Correct answer: C. Γ = 0.2, VSWR = 1.5
Γ = (Z_L − Z₀)/(Z_L + Z₀) = (75 − 50)/(75 + 50) = 0.2. VSWR = (1 + |Γ|)/(1 − |Γ|) = 1.2/0.8 = 1.5. Quick check for this resistive load above Z₀: VSWR = 75/50 = 1.5.
A flips the subtraction; for a resistive load, Γ is negative only when Z_L < Z₀. B computes 1/(1 − |Γ|), dropping the 1 + |Γ| numerator. D uses 25/50 for Γ, dividing by Z₀ instead of the sum.
Source: Steer, Fundamentals of Microwave and RF Design (LibreTexts), Ch. 3 summary, Eqs. 3.3.6 and 3.3.20
Question 39 of 55: Percent overshoot
FEEC-39 · Control Systems · Choose one answer
An initially relaxed unity negative-feedback system has open-loop transfer function G(s) = 16/[s(s + 4)]. What is the percent overshoot of the closed-loop unit-step response?
- A. 4.3%
- B. 50.0%
- C. 25.0%
- D. 16.3%
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 39
Correct answer: D. 16.3%
Closed loop: T(s) = G/(1 + G) = 16/(s² + 4s + 16). Match it to ω_n²/(s² + 2ζω_n s + ω_n²): ω_n = 4 rad/s and 2ζω_n = 4, so ζ = 0.5. Percent overshoot = 100 e^(−ζπ/√(1−ζ²)) = 100 e^(−1.814) = 16.3%.
A is the overshoot for ζ ≈ 0.707. B reports ζ as a percentage. C has no basis in the formula.
Source: University of Illinois ECE 486, Lecture 6: Overshoot and Peak Time; University of Illinois ECE 486, Lecture 7: Routh–Hurwitz criterion
Question 40 of 55: Steady-state error to a ramp
FEEC-40 · Control Systems · Choose one answer
An initially relaxed unity negative-feedback system has G(s) = 20/[s(s + 5)]. What is the steady-state error for a unit ramp input r(t) = t for t ≥ 0, with r(t) = 0 before t = 0?
- A. 0
- B. 0.25
- C. ∞
- D. 0.20
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 40
Correct answer: B. 0.25
The closed-loop characteristic polynomial is s² + 5s + 20, whose roots have negative real parts, so the steady-state error limit is applicable.
G(s) has one pole at the origin, so the system is type 1. For a ramp, e_ss = 1/K_v with K_v = lim s→0 of sG(s) = 20/5 = 4. So e_ss = 1/4 = 0.25.
A is the type-1 error for a step input, not a ramp. C is the type-0 error for a ramp. D substitutes K_v = 4 into 1/(1 + K_v), but the ramp-error relationship here is 1/K_v.
Source: University of Illinois ECE 486, Lecture 9: System Type; University of Illinois ECE 486, Lecture 7: Routh–Hurwitz criterion
Question 41 of 55: Stability check
FEEC-41 · Control Systems · Select all that apply
Select every characteristic equation whose roots all lie in the left half of the s-plane (strictly stable).
- A. s² + 3s + 2 = 0
- B. s² − s + 4 = 0
- C. s³ + 2s² + 3s + 1 = 0
- D. s³ + s² + 2s + 8 = 0
- E. s² + 4 = 0
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 41
Correct answers: A, C
A factors as (s + 1)(s + 2): roots −1 and −2, stable.
C passes the Routh test. The first column is 1, 2, (2·3 − 1·1)/2 = 2.5, 1, with no sign changes, so all three roots are in the left half-plane.
B has a negative coefficient, which guarantees at least one right-half-plane root. D fails Routh: the s¹ entry is (1·2 − 1·8)/1 = −6, giving two sign changes and two unstable roots. E has roots ±j2 on the imaginary axis, so its roots are not strictly in the left half-plane.
Source: University of Illinois ECE 486, Lecture 7: Routh–Hurwitz criterion
Question 42 of 55: AM sidebands
FEEC-42 · Communications · Choose one answer
A conventional AM signal is s(t) = [2 + 0.5 cos(2π·2,000t)] cos(2π·100,000t). What are the two sideband frequencies?
- A. 100 kHz and 102 kHz
- B. 2 kHz and 100 kHz
- C. 98 kHz and 102 kHz
- D. 96 kHz and 104 kHz
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 42
Correct answer: C. 98 kHz and 102 kHz
Expand the product. The term 0.5 cos(2π·2,000t) cos(2π·100,000t) equals 0.25[cos(2π·102,000t) + cos(2π·98,000t)]. Multiplying by the carrier shifts the 2 kHz message up and down around the carrier, so the sidebands sit at 100 ± 2 kHz.
A includes the carrier, which isn't a sideband. B lists the message and carrier frequencies. D doubles the message frequency.
Source: MIT OCW 6.003 Lecture 23, Modulation Part 1, PDF p. 14
Question 43 of 55: FM bandwidth
FEEC-43 · Communications · Choose one answer
An FM signal has a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency of 15 kHz. Using Carson's rule, what is its approximate bandwidth?
- A. 180 kHz
- B. 150 kHz
- C. 90 kHz
- D. 30 kHz
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 43
Correct answer: A. 180 kHz
Carson's rule: B ≈ 2(Δf + f_m) = 2(75 + 15) = 180 kHz.
B counts only the deviation (2Δf). C forgets the factor of 2. D counts only the message (2f_m), which is the AM-style bandwidth.
Question 44 of 55: TDM bit rate
FEEC-44 · Communications · Choose one answer
Twenty-four voice channels, each band-limited to 4 kHz, are sampled at 8,000 samples per second per channel, encoded at 8 bits per sample and time-division multiplexed. Ignoring framing bits, what is the aggregate bit rate?
- A. 768 kb/s
- B. 64 kb/s
- C. 192 kb/s
- D. 1.536 Mb/s
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 44
Correct answer: D. 1.536 Mb/s
The stated sample rate is 8,000 samples/s per channel, twice the 4 kHz band limit. Each channel carries 8,000 × 8 = 64 kb/s. Twenty-four channels give 24 × 64 kb/s = 1.536 Mb/s.
A samples at 4 kHz instead of the stated 8 kHz. B is a single channel. C multiplies 24 × 8 kHz but forgets the 8 bits per sample.
Question 45 of 55: OSI layer order
FEEC-45 · Computer Networks · Put in order
Put the seven OSI reference-model layers in order from Layer 1 (bottom) to Layer 7 (top).
- Transport
- Physical
- Application
- Network
- Session
- Data Link
- Presentation
Your order: ____________________
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 45
Correct order: Physical → Data Link → Network → Transport → Session → Presentation → Application
From the bottom up: Physical (1), Data Link (2), Network (3), Transport (4), Session (5), Presentation (6), Application (7).
A useful anchor for networking questions: Ethernet switches forward frames at Layer 2, routers forward IP packets at Layer 3, and TCP and UDP sit at Layer 4.
Source: ITU-T X.200 (07/1994), §6.1.2, printed p. 28; Cisco, EtherSwitch Network Module: Layer 2 Ethernet Switching; RFC 1122, §3.2.1.3 (special addresses)
Question 46 of 55: Usable hosts in a /26
FEEC-46 · Computer Networks · Enter a number
How many usable host addresses does a single IPv4 /26 subnet provide on an ordinary LAN?
Your answer: ______ addresses
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 46
Correct answer: 62 addresses
A /26 leaves 32 − 26 = 6 host bits, which gives 2⁶ = 64 total addresses. On an ordinary subnet, the all-zeros host address identifies the network and the all-ones host address is the directed broadcast. Neither can be assigned to a host, so 64 − 2 = 62 are usable.
If you entered 64, you counted the total block. Point-to-point /31 links are the special case where both addresses can be used (RFC 3021), but that exception doesn't apply to a /26.
Source: RFC 4632 (CIDR), §3.1; RFC 1122, §3.2.1.3 (special addresses); RFC 3021, 31-bit prefixes on point-to-point links
Question 47 of 55: Two's complement
FEEC-47 · Digital Systems · Choose one answer
The 8-bit pattern 0xB4 (1011 0100) represents a signed two's-complement integer. What is its decimal value?
- A. 180
- B. −76
- C. 76
- D. −52
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 47
Correct answer: B. −76
The leading 1 means the number is negative. Read it as unsigned (180), then subtract 2⁸: 180 − 256 = −76. You can also invert and add 1: 0100 1011 + 1 = 0100 1100 = 76, so the value is −76.
A is the unsigned reading. C is the magnitude without the sign. D is a sign-magnitude style misreading that treats the low seven bits (52) as the magnitude.
Source: Ward, Computation Structures notes §3.2.1.2, Two's Complement
Question 48 of 55: Logic minimization
FEEC-48 · Digital Systems · Choose one answer
Find the minimal sum-of-products form of F(A, B, C) = Σm(0, 1, 2, 3, 7), with A as the most significant minterm bit.
- A. F = A′ + BC
- B. F = A′ + B
- C. F = A′B′ + BC
- D. F = A′ + ABC
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 48
Correct answer: A. F = A′ + BC
Minterms 0–3 are every combination with A = 0, which groups into A′. Minterm 7 (ABC) pairs with minterm 3 (A′BC) to give BC. So F = A′ + BC: two terms, three literals.
B also covers minterm 6 (ABC′), which isn't in the function. C misses minterm 2 (A′BC′). D gives the right function, but ABC can shrink to BC, so it isn't minimal.
Source: Ward, Computation Structures notes §7.6, Sum-of-Products and Simplification
Question 49 of 55: Flip-flops for a counter
FEEC-49 · Digital Systems · Choose one answer
What is the minimum number of flip-flops needed to build a synchronous counter that cycles through 50 distinct states?
- A. 5
- B. 7
- C. 6
- D. 50
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 49
Correct answer: C. 6
n flip-flops hold at most 2ⁿ states, so you need the smallest n with 2ⁿ ≥ 50. 2⁵ = 32 is too few and 2⁶ = 64 is enough, so n = 6.
A can count only 32 states. B works but isn't the minimum. D describes a one-hot design, which is valid but uses far more flip-flops than necessary.
Source: Ward, Computation Structures notes §9.2.4, FSM state count
Question 50 of 55: Maximum clock frequency
FEEC-50 · Digital Systems · Choose one answer
In a register-to-register path, clock-to-Q delay is 3 ns, worst-case combinational logic delay is 10 ns and setup time is 2 ns. Assume zero clock skew and that hold-time requirements are satisfied. What is the maximum clock frequency allowed by this path's setup-time constraint?
- A. 76.9 MHz
- B. 83.3 MHz
- C. 100 MHz
- D. 66.7 MHz
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 50
Correct answer: D. 66.7 MHz
The clock period must cover launch delay, logic delay and setup: T_min = 3 + 10 + 2 = 15 ns. f_max = 1/15 ns = 66.7 MHz.
A ignores setup time (13 ns). B ignores clock-to-Q delay (12 ns). C counts only the logic (10 ns).
Source: Ward, Computation Structures notes §8.3.2, Adding Logic to Clocked Devices
Question 51 of 55: Address lines
FEEC-51 · Computer Systems · Enter a number
A byte-addressable memory holds 64 KiB (1 KiB = 1,024 bytes), and every address is implemented. How many address lines are required?
Your answer: ______ address lines
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 51
Correct answer: 16 address lines
64 KiB = 64 × 1,024 = 65,536 bytes = 2¹⁶ locations, one per byte. N address lines select 2ᴺ locations, so N = 16.
If you got 19, you counted bits (65,536 × 8 = 2¹⁹) instead of byte locations. If you got 6, you used log₂(64) without converting KiB to bytes.
Source: University of Washington CSE 390B, Storing Data: Memory, 'Size Limitations'
Question 52 of 55: Average memory access time
FEEC-52 · Computer Systems · Choose one answer
A cache has a 2 ns hit time and a 5% miss rate. A miss adds a 100 ns penalty on top of the hit time. What is the average memory access time?
- A. 5 ns
- B. 2.1 ns
- C. 7 ns
- D. 102 ns
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 52
Correct answer: C. 7 ns
AMAT = hit time + miss rate × miss penalty = 2 + 0.05 × 100 = 7 ns. The question defines the penalty as added time, so every access pays the 2 ns hit time and 5% of accesses pay 100 ns more.
A drops the hit time. B applies the miss rate to the hit time instead of the penalty. D is the time of a single miss, not the average.
Source: MIT OCW 6.004, Memory Hierarchy & Caches Worksheet, p. 1
Question 53 of 55: UART throughput
FEEC-53 · Computer Systems · Choose one answer
A UART link runs at 9,600 baud using 8N1 framing: one start bit, eight data bits, no parity and one stop bit. What is the maximum number of characters per second?
- A. 960
- B. 1,200
- C. 1,067
- D. 9,600
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 53
Correct answer: A. 960
Each character takes 1 + 8 + 1 = 10 bit times. At 9,600 bits/s, that's 9,600/10 = 960 characters/s.
B counts only the 8 data bits. C counts 9 bits, dropping one framing bit. D confuses bits with characters.
Source: Texas Instruments SLAA083, §2, PDF p. 2 and §2.3/Fig. 3, PDF p. 5
Question 54 of 55: Growth rates
FEEC-54 · Software Engineering · Put in order
Order these tight asymptotic running-time bounds from slowest-growing to fastest-growing as n becomes large.
- Θ(n log n)
- Θ(2ⁿ)
- Θ(1)
- Θ(n²)
- Θ(log n)
- Θ(n)
Your order: ____________________
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 54
Correct order: Θ(1) → Θ(log n) → Θ(n) → Θ(n log n) → Θ(n²) → Θ(2ⁿ)
Constant time doesn't grow at all, then logarithmic (binary search on sorted data), linear (one pass over the data), n log n (efficient comparison sorts), quadratic (nested loops over the data) and exponential (trying every subset).
Θ (big-theta) describes a tight growth bound up to constant factors; Big-O alone gives an upper bound. For small inputs a 'worse' algorithm can still run faster because constant factors matter there.
Source: NIST Dictionary of Algorithms and Data Structures: Θ (big-theta); NIST Dictionary of Algorithms and Data Structures: big-O notation; NIST DADS: binary search
Question 55 of 55: Data structures
FEEC-55 · Software Engineering · Select all that apply
Select every correct statement. Assume a unit-cost model for pointer and array-index operations; a new linked-list node is already allocated.
- A. A stack removes items in last-in, first-out (LIFO) order.
- B. A queue removes items in first-in, first-out (FIFO) order.
- C. Inserting a new node at the head of a singly linked list requires visiting every existing node.
- D. Reading an array element by its index takes O(1) time.
- E. Binary search is guaranteed to work correctly on an unsorted array.
Reveal answer and explanation — Question 55
Correct answers: A, B, D
A and B are the defining behaviors of a stack and a queue. D is correct because an array's index maps directly to a memory location.
C is wrong: inserting at the head only rewires the new node's link and the head pointer, which is O(1). E is wrong: binary search discards half the data at each step, which is valid only if the data are sorted.
Source: NIST DADS: stack; NIST DADS: queue; NIST DADS: linked list; NIST DADS: binary search
Check your results
Give yourself one point per correct answer. For select-all and ordering questions, the whole response must be correct; there is no partial credit. NCEES also gives no partial credit for alternative item types (Examinee Guide, printed p. 11). For numeric questions, compare values after rounding as requested: nearest dollar for Q13, two decimal places for Q15 and one for Q17; use exact whole numbers for Q46 and Q51. At an exact halfway value, round up. Blank answers earn no point but are not treated as the number zero.
| # | Knowledge area | NCEES question range (real exam) | Questions in this set | Your score |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Mathematics | 11–17 | 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 | ___ / 6 |
| 2 | Probability and Statistics | 4–6 | 8, 9 | ___ / 2 |
| 3 | Ethics and Professional Practice | 4–6 | 10, 11 | ___ / 2 |
| 4 | Engineering Economics | 5–8 | 12, 13, 14 | ___ / 3 |
| 5 | Properties of Electrical Materials | 4–6 | 15, 16 | ___ / 2 |
| 6 | Circuit Analysis (DC and AC Steady State) | 11–17 | 1, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21 | ___ / 6 |
| 7 | Linear Systems | 5–8 | 22, 23, 24 | ___ / 3 |
| 8 | Signal Processing | 5–8 | 25, 26, 27 | ___ / 3 |
| 9 | Electronics | 7–11 | 28, 29, 30, 31 | ___ / 4 |
| 10 | Power Systems | 8–12 | 32, 33, 34, 35, 36 | ___ / 5 |
| 11 | Electromagnetics | 4–6 | 37, 38 | ___ / 2 |
| 12 | Control Systems | 6–9 | 39, 40, 41 | ___ / 3 |
| 13 | Communications | 5–8 | 42, 43, 44 | ___ / 3 |
| 14 | Computer Networks | 4–6 | 45, 46 | ___ / 2 |
| 15 | Digital Systems | 8–12 | 47, 48, 49, 50 | ___ / 4 |
| 16 | Computer Systems | 5–8 | 51, 52, 53 | ___ / 3 |
| 17 | Software Engineering | 4–6 | 54, 55 | ___ / 2 |
| Total | 110 on the exam | 55 | ___ / 55 |
The NCEES ranges give the published question-count range for each area on the 110-question exam (FE Electrical and Computer specifications, pp. 1–3). This set uses an editorial allocation with at least two questions per area; it is not a scaled replica of an official exam form. It samples each area; it doesn't cover every subtopic inside it.
What your score means
Your percentage describes how you did on these 55 questions, nothing more. NCEES converts the real exam's raw score to a scaled score, compares it with a minimum ability level set by subject-matter experts, and doesn't publish the passing score (NCEES Exam Scoring). So there's no honest way to turn "41 out of 55" into "you'll pass."
Small samples of two to six questions per area also can't tell you that you've mastered an area. What they can do is point you at specific mistakes worth fixing.
Turn misses into a study list
Start with the questions you missed and the ones you got right by guessing. For each one, write down the actual mistake, the rule that fixes it, and how you'll check yourself on a fresh problem. "Careless" doesn't count as a mistake; find what went wrong.
| Question | What went wrong | The fix | How I'll check it |
|---|---|---|---|
| Example: Q1 | I added 6 kΩ and 3 kΩ in series to get R_Th. | With the source zeroed, R1 and R2 both connect between terminal a and ground, so they're in parallel. | On a new circuit, redraw it with the source shorted before combining anything. |
| Your next miss |
Rework each fixed problem a day or two later without looking at the explanation. If an area keeps showing up in your log, that's where your study hours should go first.
How this set compares with the real exam
| Row label | This practice set | NCEES FE Electrical and Computer exam |
|---|---|---|
| Length | 55 original questions | 110 questions, including a limited number of unscored pretest items you can't identify |
| Time | Untimed by default; 160 minutes if you match the exam's pace | 5 hours 20 minutes of exam time inside a 6-hour appointment (2-minute nondisclosure agreement, 8-minute tutorial, 25-minute scheduled break) |
| Structure | Move freely between questions and explanations | Two sections; once you submit the first section, you can't return to it |
| Question formats | Single answer, select all, numeric entry, ordering | Mostly single-answer multiple choice, plus multiple correct options, point-and-click, drag-and-drop and fill-in-the-blank |
| Scoring | Your count of correct answers | Number correct, no penalty for wrong answers, converted to a scaled score; reported pass/fail |
| Reference | Any source you like while studying | Only the FE Reference Handbook, supplied on screen as a searchable PDF |
Sources: NCEES FE exam page for length and timing; NCEES Examinee Guide, May 2026, pp. 10–11 for sections, item types, pretest items and the handbook; NCEES Exam Scoring for scoring.
This set does not simulate point-and-click items or the Pearson exam interface. The ordering questions can be answered by writing out the sequence.
Should you time it?
Take it untimed the first time if you're still learning the material. Once you're reviewing, try a timed run: the real exam averages about 2.9 minutes per question (320 minutes ÷ 110 questions), so 55 questions at that pace takes 160 minutes. That's our pacing math, not an NCEES time limit for a practice set.
Practice with the tools you'll have on test day
The FE Reference Handbook. It's the only reference allowed in the exam, and NCEES supplies the current version on screen (Examinee Guide, p. 10). You can download it free through your MyNCEES account (NCEES Help Center). Work these questions with it open, and practice finding each formula quickly. Use the handbook's search to find the relevant section, then check that the formula's assumptions match the problem.
One approved calculator. You may bring one NCEES-approved calculator. For 2026, the approved models are the HP 33s and HP 35s, any Casio model starting with fx-115 or fx-991, and any TI model starting with TI-30X or TI-36X (NCEES notice to member boards, Oct. 20, 2025). Check NCEES's calculator policy before your test date, especially in 2027 or later.
Scratch work. Pearson gives you two reusable booklets and three markers (Examinee Guide, pp. 9–10). If you usually solve on loose paper, try a few problems on a small whiteboard-style surface first.
Where to go next
- Ready to book: our NCEES exam registration guide walks through MyNCEES registration, board approval, scheduling and fees.
- See the full topic list: the FE Electrical and Computer specifications (PDF) list every subtopic under each of the 17 areas.
Quick answers
Are these real FE questions? No. We wrote every question for this page. These are original, unofficial exercises, not recalled or copied exam items.
How much does the FE exam cost? $225, paid to NCEES. Some state boards charge their own application fee on top (NCEES FE exam page).
When do results come out, and can I retake it? Results are typically available 7–10 days after the exam, reported pass/fail. If you don't pass, you get a diagnostic report showing relative strengths and weaknesses by subject area (NCEES Exam Scoring). NCEES allows one attempt per testing window and no more than three attempts in any 12-month period. The Examinee Guide lists its testing windows as January–March, April–June, July–September and October–December. Some licensing boards impose stricter retake requirements (Examinee Guide, p. 5).
Which exam specifications does this set use? The Electrical and Computer specification currently linked by NCEES is effective beginning with the July 2020 examinations. That is the specification used for this set, checked October 6, 2026—not a separately established "2026 blueprint" (NCEES FE exam page; Electrical and Computer specifications). Check NCEES's current link before your test date.
Sources and independence
By Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. Last verified: October 6, 2026.
On that date we checked exam facts against NCEES's own publications: the FE exam page, the FE Electrical and Computer specifications, the May 2026 Examinee Guide, the exam scoring page, the handbook access page, and the October 2025 notice on approved calculators for 2026. We recalculated every numeric answer, checked each question for a second defensible answer, and linked the textbook, course or standards source behind each explanation. That's source checking, not review by a licensed engineer or by NCEES.
AI-assisted tools were used in developing and checking this resource, as described in our editorial methodology.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We're not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES). These practice questions are original and unofficial, and they aren't actual exam questions. Exam and credential names are used to identify the exam this practice supports; trademarks belong to their respective owners. This page doesn't guarantee a passing result, a score, or licensure.