Free NBCOT OTR Practice Test (50 Questions)
Fifty original, unofficial practice items in the current NBCOT OTR format: 42 single-answer questions and two scenario sets where you choose three of six. Every item explains each option and links to its source; no signup.
Practice questions
Question 1 of 50
A 72-year-old client with documented left unilateral spatial neglect is 10 days post right-hemisphere stroke. At lunch the client eats only the food on the right half of the tray and doesn't notice the milk carton on the far left. The occupational therapist wants to build the client's ability to attend to the left side during meals. Which intervention best fits that goal?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
This is left unilateral spatial neglect, the classic pattern after right-hemisphere stroke. Visual scanning training with an anchor on the neglected side teaches the client to start the search from the left and work across. Here, that compensatory training practices scanning left during the meal, which is exactly the stated goal.
- A is a compensatory environmental change. It reduces the need to scan left during this activity, but does not practice the goal stated in the question.
- B treats a motor impairment. It does not practice the leftward visual search needed in this activity.
Source: van Kessel et al. (2013), visual scanning training, Introduction (contralesional anchor and compensatory strategies).
Read the source: van Kessel et al., Visual Scanning Training for Neglect after Stroke
Showing every answer and explanation. Return to the practice view
Question 2 of 50
An outpatient occupational therapist receives a referral for a 54-year-old with rheumatoid arthritis who reports trouble at work and at home. What should the therapist gather at the start of the evaluation, before selecting standardized assessments?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Under AOTA's Occupational Therapy Practice Framework (OTPF-4), evaluation has two parts: the occupational profile and the analysis of occupational performance. Information for the profile is collected at the beginning of contact. The profile tells you which occupations matter and which problems to measure, and that guides your choice of tests.
- A puts measurement before purpose. Running every test wastes the client's time and may miss what the client cares about.
- C is an intervention recommendation. Selecting a home program before identifying this client’s priorities and occupational-performance needs is premature.
Source: AOTA, Evaluation & Assessment (occupational profile, occupational-performance analysis and synthesis), citing OTPF-4 (2020).
Read the source: AOTA, Evaluation & Assessment
Question 3 of 50
During a seated group session, a client has a generalized seizure and begins to slide out of the chair. What should the occupational therapist do first?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
CDC's first aid for a generalized seizure: ease the person to the floor and turn them gently onto one side so the airway stays clear. Put something soft under the head, remove eyeglasses, loosen anything tight around the neck, and time the seizure. Call 911 if it lasts longer than 5 minutes, among other triggers.
- A Restraining the person is specifically on CDC's "do not" list.
- C Never put anything in the mouth. It can injure the teeth or jaw.
- B Give no food or water until the person is fully alert.
Source: CDC, First Aid for Seizures.
Read the source: CDC, First Aid for Seizures
Question 4 of 50
Before discharge, an occupational therapist teaches a client's spouse how to help with lower-body dressing within hip precautions. What is the best way to confirm the spouse understood?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
This is the teach-back method. You ask the learner to explain in their own words what they need to know or do. AHRQ points out that teach-back checks how well you explained, not how well the person remembers. If the explanation has gaps, you re-teach and check again.
- B A yes/no question usually gets "yes" whether or not the person understood.
- C Handouts can support teaching, but a handout alone doesn't confirm understanding.
Source: AHRQ Health Literacy Universal Precautions Toolkit, Tool 5 (Teach-Back).
Read the source: AHRQ, Teach-Back (Tool 5)
Question 5 of 50
An ordinary privately owned home, used only as a residence, has an entrance rise of 24 inches. Using the ADA Standards’ 1:12 maximum running slope as a design benchmark, what is the minimum horizontal ramp run, excluding landings?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
The 2010 ADA Standards set the maximum ramp running slope at 1:12: 1 inch of rise for every 12 inches of run. 24 in × 12 = 288 in = 24 feet. This is horizontal run; level landings add space beyond it.
- A and B are far too steep (1:1 and 1:6).
- D would be gentler, but it is not the minimum horizontal run asked for.
Scope: These ADA dimensions are benchmarks for this ordinary private residence. The therapist also considers the client’s use, site conditions and applicable building codes; slope alone does not establish a complete ramp design.
Sources: U.S. Access Board, Ramps and Curb Ramps (§405.2, §405.7); Using the ADA Standards (ADA Coverage of Housing).
Read the sources: U.S. Access Board, Ramps and Curb Ramps; U.S. Access Board, Using the ADA Standards
Question 6 of 50
A school-based therapist wants to measure sensory processing patterns in a 16-year-old student. The clinic's only sensory questionnaire is the Sensory Profile 2. What is the most appropriate decision?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Pearson lists the Sensory Profile 2 age range as birth through 14 years 11 months. The Child, Short and School Companion forms cover ages 3:0–14:11; Infant and Toddler forms are separate. A 16-year-old is outside these stated age ranges, so the therapist should select an instrument appropriate to the student’s age and the assessment purpose.
- A applies younger children’s norms outside the form’s stated age range.
- B selects a form intended for infants, making the age mismatch greater.
Source: Pearson, Sensory Profile 2, Product Details and form age ranges.
Read the source: Pearson, Sensory Profile 2
Question 7 of 50
An adult client with diabetes arrives for a planned meal-preparation session. The client is alert, able to swallow safely, a little shaky, and checks a blood glucose of 64 mg/dL. The established hypoglycemia plan calls for 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate followed by a glucose check after 15 minutes. What should the occupational therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
The American Diabetes Association defines low blood glucose as below 70 mg/dL and recommends the 15-15 rule: 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, then recheck after 15 minutes. Repeat if the level is still low. The care team may set individual targets, so follow the client's plan.
- B Waiting to eat at the end of a standing kitchen task risks a further drop, with burns or falls as possible results.
- C Hypoglycemia needs prompt treatment, not a delay.
Sources: American Diabetes Association, Low Blood Glucose; CDC, Treatment of Low Blood Sugar, The 15-15 Rule.
Read the sources: American Diabetes Association, Low Blood Glucose (Hypoglycemia); CDC, Treatment of Low Blood Sugar (Hypoglycemia)
Question 8 of 50
A client with a cervical spinal cord injury has strong active wrist extension but no active finger flexion. The therapist has confirmed that wrist extension produces useful passive finger closure and that the movement is permitted. Which training approach best uses the client's available movement to pick up a lightweight cup?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Tenodesis grasp uses passive finger flexion produced as the wrist extends. The therapist has confirmed that this client has useful passive closure, so practicing wrist extension can use the available movement to grasp the cup.
- A assumes active finger flexion that is absent in this case.
- C blocks the wrist movement needed for the described grasp.
Source: London Health Sciences Centre, C6 function and tenodesis (Motor Function).
Read the source: London Health Sciences Centre, C6 function and tenodesis
Question 9 of 50
A therapist uses the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (OCEBM) 2011 table to start a search for evidence about treatment benefits. Before considering quality and applicability adjustments, which study type is listed at Level 1?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
For treatment benefits, the OCEBM 2011 table lists a systematic review of randomized trials or an n-of-1 randomized trial at Level 1. The table is a starting point: study quality, relevance and other limitations still require appraisal.
- B A panel’s consensus is not itself a listed Level 1 study type. Its recommendations must be assessed using the evidence and methods behind them; the 2011 table’s Level 5 label is mechanism-based reasoning.
- C A nonrandomized controlled cohort study is ordinarily listed below Level 1.
- D Case series are listed at Level 4 and lack a concurrent comparison group.
Sources: OCEBM, 2011 Levels of Evidence table (v2.1), Treatment Benefits row and footnotes; Introductory Document.
Read the sources: OCEBM, 2011 Levels of Evidence table (v2.1); OCEBM, 2011 Levels of Evidence: Introductory Document
Question 10 of 50
During a dressing assessment, the therapist observes a shallow open area over the client’s coccyx that has been assessed as pressure-related. The wound bed is pink and moist. No fat, slough or eschar is visible. Which pressure injury stage does this match?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
NPIAP (National Pressure Injury Advisory Panel) defines Stage 2 as partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis: a pink or red, moist wound bed with no visible fat, slough or eschar. It can also appear as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister.
- B Stage 1 is non-blanchable redness of intact skin. This skin is open.
- C Stage 3 is full-thickness loss with visible fat.
Sources: NPIAP Pressure Injury Stage Definitions (2016), Stage 2 and Deep Tissue Pressure Injury; International Guideline, Classification (2026), differential diagnosis and staging resources.
Read the sources: NPIAP, Pressure Injury Stage Definitions; International Pressure Injury Guideline, Classification of Pressure Injuries
Question 11 of 50
A therapist is teaching a client with a cognitive impairment to put on socks. The therapist completes every step except the last one, pulling the sock up the leg, which the client completes. As the client succeeds, the therapist hands over earlier steps one at a time. Which teaching method is this?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
In backward chaining the learner starts with the final step while the helper does the rest. Earlier steps are added as each one is mastered. Each attempt ends with the learner completing the task.
- A Forward chaining teaches the first step first.
- B Whole-task practice has the learner attempt all steps each time.
Source: Gateshead Health NHS Foundation Trust, Backward Chaining, Backward Chaining Technique.
Read the source: Gateshead Health NHS Foundation Trust, Backward Chaining
Question 12 of 50
An occupational therapy assistant (OTA) has completed the assessments the occupational therapist delegated during an inpatient evaluation. Who is responsible for interpreting the results and developing the intervention plan?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Under AOTA's supervision guidelines, the occupational therapist directs the evaluation, interprets the data, and develops the intervention plan. The OTA contributes by carrying out delegated assessments and giving input.
- A Administering a test doesn't transfer responsibility for interpreting it.
- C Responsibility follows role, not caseload.
Source: AOTA, Guidelines for Supervision, Roles, and Responsibilities (2020), final article, p.3, Evaluation and Intervention Planning.
Read the source: AOTA, Guidelines for Supervision, Roles, and Responsibilities (final 2020 article)
Question 13 of 50
A client is 4 days post total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach. The surgeon has prescribed no hip flexion beyond 90°, no adduction across the body’s midline and no internal rotation. Which lower-body dressing method best follows these orders?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Follow the actual postoperative orders and fit the seating to the person. The chair and dressing equipment in C let the client reach the feet while maintaining the stated limits. A surgical approach alone does not establish one universal set of precautions.
- A explicitly exceeds the prescribed hip-flexion limit.
- B moves the operated leg across the midline, violating the prescribed adduction restriction.
Source: Royal National Orthopaedic Hospital, Hip Precautions Following Primary or Revision Total Hip Replacement (surgeon-selected precautions; Sitting; Dressing). The stem supplies this client’s orders.
Read the source: Royal National Orthopaedic Hospital, Hip Precautions Following Primary or Revision Total Hip Replacement
Question 14 of 50
A pediatric assessment reports the child's score in relation to the scores of a representative sample of same-age children. What kind of test is this?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
A norm-referenced test compares a person's performance with a reference group. A criterion-referenced test compares performance with a fixed standard, whatever anyone else scores. NBCOT's own certification exam is criterion-referenced, which is why there is a set passing standard rather than a curve.
- B Criterion-referenced tests use a set criterion, not peers.
- C A traditional ipsative comparison concerns the same person’s relative pattern of responses or attributes, rather than a same-age reference group.
Sources: NBCOT, Foundations, What is a criterion-referenced test?; National Academies (2017), Assessment Methods for College Competencies, Forced Choice, pp.106–107.
Read the sources: NBCOT, Foundations of the Certification Examinations; National Academies, Assessment Methods for College Competencies
Scenario Set A: Returning home and to work with multiple sclerosis
A 45-year-old office manager with multiple sclerosis has started using a manual wheelchair full time because of increasing fatigue and leg weakness. She lives alone in an ordinary privately owned, single-story house used only as a residence and wants to return to her job. On a home visit the occupational therapist finds:
- 4 front-entry steps, with a total rise of 20 inches and no alternative step-free entrance
- A bathroom doorway 12 inches deep with a 30-inch clear opening
- A bathroom that accommodates neither a 60-inch turning circle nor a compliant T-shaped turning layout
- Horizontal toilet grab bars 34 inches above the finished floor, measured to the top of the gripping surface
- A straight, unobstructed hallway with 40 inches of clear width
- Lever faucets in the kitchen that she can operate independently
She reports being "wiped out by noon" most days.
For the access questions, use the 2010 ADA Standards as design benchmarks for this private home. These measurements do not replace an assessment of her wheelchair, transfers, reach and safe use or a check of applicable building codes.
Question 15 of 50 · Scenario A, item 1
Select the three best answers. Which three findings require access planning under the stated design benchmarks?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B, D, F.
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B No step-free entrance has been identified. Entry access needs to be addressed.
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D The 30-inch clear opening is below the 32-inch doorway benchmark for this shallow opening.
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F Neither permitted turning-space layout is available. A missing 60-inch circle alone would not rule out a compliant T-shaped layout.
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A The measured bar height is within the adult 33–36-inch benchmark. Height alone does not establish every grab-bar requirement.
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C The straight, unobstructed 40-inch route exceeds the usual 36-inch clear-width benchmark.
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E The client can operate these faucets; the scene identifies no faucet-use barrier.
The therapist still evaluates the client’s individual wheelchair use and task performance.
Sources: U.S. Access Board, Doors (§404.2.3) and Accessible Routes (§403.5.1); DOJ 2010 ADA Standards §§304.3 and 609.4; AOTA Evaluation & Assessment.
Read the sources: U.S. Access Board, Entrances, Doors, and Gates; U.S. Access Board, Accessible Routes; U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Turning Space; U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Grab Bars; AOTA, Evaluation & Assessment
Question 16 of 50 · Scenario A, item 2
Select the three best answers. Which recommendations should the therapist include?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A, C, E.
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A addresses entry access. The plan must account for slope, level landings, available space and the client’s safe use.
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C addresses the doorway benchmark while checking individual wheelchair clearance.
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E addresses the missing turning space; a permitted circle or T-shaped layout may be used.
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B A 10-foot horizontal run for a 20-inch rise produces a 1:6 slope, steeper than the 1:12 benchmark.
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D Raising the bars to 42 inches would put their top surface above the adult height range.
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F Narrowing this continuous hallway to 30 inches would fall below the 36-inch route benchmark.
Sources: U.S. Access Board, Ramps (§405.2, §405.7), Doors (§404.2.3) and Accessible Routes (§403.5.1); DOJ 2010 ADA Standards §§304.3 and 609.4.
Read the sources: U.S. Access Board, Ramps and Curb Ramps; U.S. Access Board, Entrances, Doors, and Gates; U.S. Access Board, Accessible Routes; U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Turning Space; U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Grab Bars
Question 17 of 50 · Scenario A, item 3
Select the three best answers. Which strategies would conserve energy during the household tasks she currently finds fatiguing?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C, D, F.
These choices apply energy-conservation principles to her household tasks:
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C schedules demanding tasks for her higher-energy periods.
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D uses sitting to reduce the standing demands of these tasks when the seated setup works for her.
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F organizes materials in advance to reduce unnecessary effort and trips.
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A ignores pacing; planned breaks help avoid exhausting all available energy.
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B concentrates demands that could be spread across the week.
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E makes a chore into endurance training instead of conserving energy for it. Appropriate exercise can still be part of a separate, individualized plan.
Source: Can Do MS, Mind Your 4 Ps (February 1, 2026), Plan, Pace and Position.
Read the source: Can Do MS, Mind Your 4 Ps: A Trusted Cognitive Strategy for Energy Conservation
Question 18 of 50 · Scenario A, item 4
Select the three best answers. Her employer is covered by ADA Title I, and she can perform the job’s essential functions with reasonable accommodation. Assuming no undue hardship, which statements about possible workplace accommodations are consistent with EEOC guidance?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A, B, E.
EEOC defines a reasonable accommodation as any change in the work environment or in the way things are customarily done that gives equal employment opportunity. Its examples include modified schedules, acquiring or modifying equipment, making facilities accessible, and job restructuring. When several options would be effective, the individual's preference gets primary consideration, but the employer has the final choice.
The wrong options:
- C contradicts that discretion.
- D is far too narrow.
- F The OT can make functional recommendations and support the interactive process, but does not dictate the employer’s choice among effective accommodations.
Source: EEOC, Reasonable Accommodation and Undue Hardship under the ADA, General Principles and question 9.
Read the source: EEOC, Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation and Undue Hardship under the ADA
Question 19 of 50
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which routine use or disclosure below is excepted from the "minimum necessary" standard because of its stated purpose?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
HHS guidance says the minimum necessary standard does not apply to disclosures to, or requests by, a health care provider for treatment. That is the purpose specified in C.
- A Internal quality-improvement access is a health-care-operations use, generally governed by minimum-necessary policies.
- B A routine payment disclosure is generally subject to minimum necessary: limit it to information reasonably needed for the payment purpose.
Source: HHS, Minimum Necessary Requirement, How the Rule Works and treatment exception.
Read the source: HHS, HIPAA Minimum Necessary Requirement
Question 20 of 50
A client with stable COPD has been taught pursed-lip breathing by the rehabilitation team. While seated and breathing comfortably, the client practices before a dressing task. Which instruction matches the technique?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
Pursed-lip breathing uses a slow nasal inhalation followed by a gentle, longer exhalation through pursed lips. Practicing while breathing is comfortable helps the client learn the technique for use during daily activities.
- B replaces the controlled breathing pattern with rapid, forceful breathing.
- C is breath-holding, not the taught breathing technique.
Source: American Lung Association, Breathing Exercises, Pursed Lip Breathing and Practice Makes Perfect.
Read the source: American Lung Association, Breathing Exercises
Question 21 of 50
A parent asks a school-based occupational therapist to add occupational therapy to their child's services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). Who determines which related services, including OT, appear in the child's program?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Under IDEA, occupational therapy is a related service: provided as needed to help a child with a disability benefit from special education. The IEP must state the special education and related services the child will receive, and the IEP team develops it.
- A The OT's evaluation informs the decision, but the OT doesn't decide alone.
- C A medical prescription doesn't determine educational services under IDEA.
Sources: 34 CFR §§300.34(a), 300.34(c)(6), 300.320(a)(4) and 300.321(a).
Read the sources: 34 CFR §300.34, Related services; 34 CFR §300.320, Definition of individualized education program; 34 CFR §300.321, IEP Team
Question 22 of 50
After several days of limited mobility, a client has pressure-related damage at the heel. The skin is intact, with a persistent maroon-purple area that does not blanch, and the area is painful. Which classification fits best?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
NPIAP describes a deep tissue pressure injury as persistent, non-blanchable deep red, maroon or purple discoloration of intact or non-intact skin. Pain and temperature change often come before the color change.
- A Stage 1 is non-blanchable erythema (redness). NPIAP notes that purple or maroon discoloration points to deep tissue injury instead.
- B Stage 2 is partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis and may also present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. The persistent maroon-purple appearance described here fits deep tissue pressure injury instead.
Sources: NPIAP Pressure Injury Stage Definitions (2016), Stage 2 and Deep Tissue Pressure Injury; International Guideline, Classification (2026), differential diagnosis and staging resources.
Read the sources: NPIAP, Pressure Injury Stage Definitions; International Pressure Injury Guideline, Classification of Pressure Injuries
Question 23 of 50
Three clients after stroke ask about constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT). Which movement profile matches the higher-functioning motor criteria described in the EXCITE trial?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
EXCITE’s higher-functioning group required at least 20° of active wrist extension and 10° of active extension at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints of each digit, tested from the specified resting position. That matches B.
- A falls below the wrist-extension threshold and has no active finger extension.
- C describes flexion without the required extension.
These are the study’s motor thresholds, not a complete clinical eligibility rule. The trial enrolled people 3–9 months after stroke and applied additional criteria, including medical clearance and other functional requirements.
Source: Wolf et al. (2008), EXCITE, Methods—Study participants and procedures.
Read the source: Wolf et al., The EXCITE Trial: Retention of Improved Upper Extremity Function
Question 24 of 50
While working on a home exercise program, an outpatient client says quietly, "Some days I think everyone would be better off if I just weren't here." What should the occupational therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
The NIMH's first action step is to ask directly. Research shows asking about suicide doesn't increase suicidal thoughts or behavior. Then help keep the person safe and connect them with support, such as the 988 Suicide & Crisis Lifeline or 911 if life is in danger, following your setting's risk-assessment and escalation procedures.
- B Reassurance without asking skips assessment of risk.
- C Waiting for the next visit delays a response to a possible emergency.
Source: NIMH, 5 Action Steps to Help Someone Having Thoughts of Suicide (revised 2024), Ask, Be There, Help Keep Them Safe and Help Them Connect.
Read the source: NIMH, 5 Action Steps to Help Someone Having Thoughts of Suicide
Question 25 of 50
A therapist checks an adult horizontal toilet grab bar against the 2010 ADA Standards. The round bar has an outside diameter of 1.5 inches. The installer measured 35.5 inches from the finished floor to the bar’s centerline. Which conclusion is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Section 609.4 measures adult horizontal grab-bar height to the top of the gripping surface, which must be 33–36 inches above the finished floor. Half of the 1.5-inch outside diameter is 0.75 inch: 35.5 + 0.75 = 36.25 inches. The top is too high for this benchmark.
- A uses the centerline instead of the required top surface.
- B uses the bottom surface, which is also the wrong measurement point.
Source: 2010 ADA Standards §609.4. Calculation: centerline height + outside diameter ÷ 2 = top-of-grip height.
Read the source: U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Grab Bars
Question 26 of 50
On the ISNCSCI motor exam, which movement tests the C7 key muscle group?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
The key muscles are:
| Level | Key muscle group |
|---|---|
| C5 | Elbow flexors |
| C6 | Wrist extensors |
| C7 | Elbow extensors |
| C8 | Finger flexors |
| T1 | Small-finger abductors |
- A tests C5.
- B tests C6.
- C tests C8.
Source: ASIA/ISCoS ISNCSCI worksheet (REV 04/26), p.1, MOTOR—KEY MUSCLES.
Read the source: ASIA/ISCoS, ISNCSCI Worksheet (REV 04/26; ninth edition, 2026)
Question 27 of 50
An occupational therapist treats a Medicare Part B outpatient three times a week. What is Medicare’s minimum progress-report frequency for these services?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
The Medicare Benefit Policy Manual (Chapter 15, §220.3) sets the minimum progress-report period at once every 10 treatment days. Treatment days are counted, not calendar days.
- A uses calendar days, which is not the current standard.
- C is too infrequent; progress reporting happens throughout the episode.
- D doubles the interval.
This is the reporting-period rule, not a requirement for a separate form on the tenth day. CMS permits a delayed report to be written within 7 calendar days after the reporting period ends. If the treatment notes contain all required progress-report elements during the period, a separate report is not required.
Source: CMS Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Chapter 15, §220.3(D), including Delayed Reports and Elements of Progress Reports.
Read the source: CMS, Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Chapter 15
Question 28 of 50
A client with rheumatoid arthritis carries grocery bags by hooking them over flexed fingers. Which recommendation applies joint protection principles?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Joint protection means using larger, stronger joints, spreading the load, avoiding sustained tight grip, respecting pain, and using aids.
- B A tight, sustained grip strains the small finger joints.
- A Heavier loads on the same small joints make the problem worse.
Source: Versus Arthritis, "What is joint protection?"
Read the source: Arthritis UK (formerly Versus Arthritis), What is joint protection?
Question 29 of 50
Which statement is written as a measurable long-term goal for a plan of care?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
It names the task, the level of independence, the conditions and a time frame, so progress can be measured. Medicare requires measurable long-term goals in the outpatient therapy plan of care.
- B is vague; it does not specify how improvement will be measured.
- C describes what the therapist will do, not a client outcome.
Source: Medicare Benefit Policy Manual Ch. 15 §220.1.2 (plan of care elements).
Read the source: CMS, Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Chapter 15
Question 30 of 50
A client with low vision has trouble seeing white onion slices on a white cutting board. Which modification best addresses the problem?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Increasing contrast between an object and its background is a core low-vision strategy. A reversible black/white board lets the client match the board to the food.
- A The stem identifies low contrast, not glare. Dimming the lights does not solve that contrast problem; lighting and glare control should fit the client’s visual needs.
- C Slowing down doesn't make the onion any easier to see.
Source: UCSF Memory and Aging Center, Home Safety Tips for People With Visual Dysfunction.
Read the source: UCSF, Home Safety for Visual Dysfunction
Question 31 of 50
During a toilet-transfer assessment, a client who started a new blood pressure medication two days ago reports lightheadedness each time they stand. What should the occupational therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Stop and seat the client safely. Lightheadedness on standing can occur with orthostatic hypotension, and some medications can contribute, but this observation alone does not establish the cause. Report the repeated symptoms and recent medication change promptly to the nurse or prescriber for assessment.
- B Do not independently tell the client to omit a prescribed dose.
- A Pushing on through repeated lightheadedness to finish a test creates a fall risk.
Source: Mayo Clinic, Orthostatic hypotension — Diagnosis and treatment, Treatment section.
Read the source: Mayo Clinic, Orthostatic hypotension — Diagnosis and treatment
Question 32 of 50
A newly certified OTR wants to post a before-and-after photo of a client's custom hand orthosis on a professional social media account. The client's face won't appear, but a distinctive forearm tattoo will. Under the NBCOT Candidate/Certificant Code of Conduct, what has to happen before the photo is posted?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
NBCOT's Code of Conduct, Principle 8, says certificants must not electronically post personal health information, or anything (photos included) that may reveal a client's identity or relationship to the practitioner, without the client's written consent. A distinctive tattoo can identify someone just as a face can. NBCOT notes that posts like this can also violate laws such as HIPAA.
- A Leaving out the face doesn't make a photo anonymous when other features can identify the person.
- C A supervisor's approval isn't the client's written consent.
Source: NBCOT Candidate/Certificant Code of Conduct (revised May 2024), Principle 8.
Read the source: NBCOT, Candidate/Certificant Code of Conduct
Scenario Set B: Inpatient rehabilitation after cervical spinal cord injury
A 24-year-old has a complete cervical spinal cord injury and is 6 weeks into inpatient rehabilitation. On the motor exam, elbow flexors and wrist extensors are strong, elbow extensors show a flicker, and the fingers have no active motion. He has an indwelling urinary catheter and wears an abdominal binder. His resting blood pressure is usually about 98/60. His mother will take him home on a weekend pass soon.
Question 33 of 50 · Scenario B, item 1
Select the three best answers. Midway through a dressing session he reports a pounding headache. His face is flushed and his blood pressure is 168/98. The therapist stops dressing and calls for immediate nursing or medical help under the unit’s autonomic dysreflexia protocol. Which three additional actions should begin while help arrives?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B, C, F.
These findings strongly suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency that can occur with SCI at or above T6. While the medical team responds:
- Sit upright with the legs lowered if possible.
- Loosen the abdominal binder and tight clothing.
- Look for a urinary trigger: check the external catheter tubing for kinks and the bag for overfilling. Report findings and follow the unit’s protocol; do not independently irrigate, remove or replace the catheter.
- Monitor blood pressure and pulse every 1–2 minutes until stable. His marked blood-pressure rise needs prompt medical management.
The wrong options:
- A is the opposite of the recommended upright positioning.
- D delays treatment of a medical emergency.
- E does not address the cause.
Source: Consortium for Spinal Cord Medicine, Evaluation and Management of Autonomic Dysreflexia and Other Autonomic Dysfunctions (2021), recommendations 2.6–2.8 and 2.10–2.17.
Read the source: Consortium for Spinal Cord Medicine, Evaluation and Management of Autonomic Dysreflexia and Other Autonomic Dysfunctions
Question 34 of 50 · Scenario B, item 2
Select the three best answers. The record already identifies a complete cervical spinal cord injury. Which statements correctly distinguish that classification from what the brief arm findings establish?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A, D, E.
ISNCSCI separates completeness, motor level and neurological level. The case supplies the documented complete classification; the limited arm description does not independently establish the full neurological level.
- A Completeness depends on sacral sensory and motor sparing, not on whether every muscle below the injury is motionless.
- D The motor level uses formal grades: the lowest key-muscle function at least grade 3, with key-muscle functions above judged normal.
- E The neurological level combines sensory and motor findings. The short arm description cannot supply it.
The wrong options:
- B A flicker in an arm muscle does not establish sacral sparing.
- C Grade 5 has defined range-of-motion, gravity and resistance criteria; “strong” is not a complete test result.
- F Absent finger motion alone cannot identify a neurological level.
Source: ASIA/ISCoS ISNCSCI worksheet (REV 04/26), p.2, classification steps 2–4, ASIA Impairment Scale and Muscle Function Grading.
Read the source: ASIA/ISCoS, ISNCSCI Worksheet (REV 04/26; ninth edition, 2026)
Question 35 of 50 · Scenario B, item 3
Select the three best answers. Before the weekend pass, the therapist teaches his mother to recognize and respond to autonomic dysreflexia. Which teaching methods fit health-literacy best practice?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B, E, F.
Teach-back asks the learner to explain in their own words. When there's a gap, you re-explain and check again. Plain language is a basic health-literacy universal precaution.
The wrong options:
- A A yes/no check doesn't confirm understanding.
- C A packet alone confirms nothing before the pass.
- D AHRQ is explicit that teach-back checks the clinician's explanation, not the patient's memory.
Source: AHRQ Health Literacy Universal Precautions Toolkit, Tool 5.
Read the source: AHRQ, Teach-Back (Tool 5)
Question 36 of 50 · Scenario B, item 4
Select the three best answers. He later develops diarrhea and is diagnosed with C. difficile infection during an outbreak on the unit. He is placed on contact precautions. Which practices are consistent with CDC guidance?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A, C, D.
- A C. difficile infection calls for contact plus standard precautions: gown and gloves.
- C Put gloves on last when wearing them with other required PPE, covering the gown cuffs. Contact precautions alone do not automatically require a mask or eye protection.
- D During a C. difficile outbreak, CDC encourages soap-and-water handwashing after care as an additional precaution. Gloves and safe removal remain essential.
The wrong options:
- B is false: alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores. In most clinical situations, however, CDC still prefers alcohol-based hand sanitizer unless hands are visibly soiled; the outbreak instruction is an additional precaution.
- E Remove the gown and gloves before leaving the patient-care area, and perform hand hygiene.
- F Gloves are single-use; do not wash or reuse them for another client.
Sources: CDC Isolation Precautions Appendix A, C. difficile row; CDC Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers, C. difficile/outbreak guidance; CDC Isolation Precautions II.E.1–2.
Read the sources: CDC, Isolation Precautions Appendix A; CDC, Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers; CDC, Isolation Precautions: Fundamental Elements Needed to Prevent Transmission
Question 37 of 50
For which client is a cold pack contraindicated?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Cold therapy contraindications include Raynaud's phenomenon (vasospasm), cold hypersensitivity, cryoglobulinemia, impaired circulation, and absent sensation. Cold can trigger vasospasm in Raynaud's.
- A and C do not describe a contraindication in the information given. Before applying cold, assess the remaining contraindications and precautions.
Source: NSW Health SESLHD guideline, Application of Heat or Cold Therapy, §2.1.6.
Read the source: NSW Health SESLHD, Heat or Cold Therapy
Source access note: when we rechecked sources on November 4, 2026, this link to the cited SESLHD guideline PDF returned a 404 (page not found) error, so this specific document could not be rechecked. SESLHD’s official public policy index now points to staff-only access. The citation is shown as originally used.
Question 38 of 50
A 78-year-old who lives at home completes the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test using the CDC STEADI directions: regular footwear, usual cane, normal pace. The time is 14 seconds. How should the occupational therapist interpret this result?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
CDC's STEADI (Stopping Elderly Accidents, Deaths and Injuries) TUG directions say an older adult who takes 12 seconds or more is at risk for falling. At 14 seconds, this result is a flag to integrate with the rest of the fall-risk assessment and to plan interventions.
- B 20 seconds isn't the CDC threshold; using it would miss this client's risk.
- C A TUG time flags risk. It doesn't predict that a specific fall will happen on a timetable.
Source: CDC STEADI, Assessment: Timed Up & Go (2017).
Read the source: CDC STEADI, Timed Up & Go
Question 39 of 50
A therapist is planning a bathroom remodel for a power wheelchair user, using the ADA Standards as a benchmark. A mock-up provides a 60-inch-diameter turning space, but the client’s chair contacts a fixture during the turning trial. What should the therapist recommend?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
The 2010 ADA Standards specify a 60-inch-diameter circular turning space. A T-shaped turning space is the alternative. Knee and toe clearance under fixtures may count toward the circle. But the Access Board explains that turning maneuvers vary by person and mobility aid. The measured benchmark does not override the failed trial with this client’s actual chair.
- B mistakes a design minimum for a guarantee of individual functional fit.
- C changes a seating component without evaluating support, positioning or safety. Modify the environment and verify the result.
Source: U.S. Access Board, Clear Floor or Ground Space and Turning Space, Maneuvering for Turns and §304.3.1.
Read the source: U.S. Access Board, Clear Floor or Ground Space and Turning Space
Question 40 of 50
On a home visit for a manual wheelchair user, the therapist measures a swinging bathroom door’s clear opening using the ADA Standards as a benchmark. Which measurement method is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
Doors need at least 32 inches of clear width under the standard benchmark. Clear width is measured with the door open 90 degrees, between the face of the door and the opposite stop.
- A and B do not measure the unobstructed passage with the open door in place.
- C uses the wrong door position for the standard measurement.
Source: U.S. Access Board, 2010 ADA Standards §404.2.3, Clear Width.
Read the source: U.S. Access Board, 2010 ADA Standards Chapter 4
Question 41 of 50
A therapist frames this clinical question: "In adults with chronic stroke, does mirror therapy compared with conventional task practice improve upper-limb function?" In PICO terms, what is the C?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
PICO stands for Patient/Problem, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome. Here: P = adults with chronic stroke, I = mirror therapy, C = conventional task practice, O = upper-limb function.
The other options are the P, I and O, respectively.
Source: Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 2, §2.3, PICO components.
Read the source: Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 2: Determining the scope of the review and the questions it will address
Question 42 of 50
Two days after cast removal for a wrist fracture, a client’s fingers are swollen and stiff. The treating team has cleared active finger motion. Which home-program component best addresses the edema?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
Elevation combined with active movement is a standard edema strategy. Elevation assists drainage, and active muscle contractions help move fluid from the hand. Use the prescribed movement limits rather than forcing a full fist.
- B A dependent position lets fluid pool in the hand.
- C Vigorous deep massage is not the recommended approach. The review describes lighter edema-mobilization techniques and cautions that treatment must fit the injury and the person; it does not support routine deep massage for everyone.
Source: Miller et al., Effectiveness of edema management techniques for subacute hand edema, J Hand Ther (2017), introduction and conclusion.
Read the source: Miller, Jerosch-Herold and Shepstone, Effectiveness of edema management techniques for subacute hand edema: A systematic review
Question 43 of 50
A client recovering from a stroke says the most important goal is to cook dinner for the family again. The therapist believes independent bathing is the bigger safety concern. What is the most client-centered way to set priorities?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
AOTA describes developing intervention plans in collaboration with the client, using the client’s goals and values, evaluation findings, context and available evidence. Shared decision-making lets you include the cooking priority and discuss bathing safety together.
- A overrides the client's priority, which undermines engagement.
- B ignores a safety concern the therapist has a duty to raise.
Source: AOTA, Intervention, Intervention plan section.
Read the source: AOTA, Intervention
Question 44 of 50
A speech-language pathologist's swallow study recommends a postural strategy for a client with reduced airway protection. The occupational therapist will reinforce it during self-feeding training. Which posture may narrow the airway entrance during the swallow?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
ASHA describes the chin-down (chin tuck) posture as potentially narrowing the airway entrance and reducing penetration or aspiration in some people. Which strategy a client uses is set by the swallowing evaluation, so OT carries out the team's recommendation during feeding.
- A Tilting the head back doesn't narrow the airway entrance.
- C Reclining isn't a chin-down strategy. Follow the positioning in the swallow plan.
Source: ASHA Practice Portal, Adult Dysphagia, Postural/Position Techniques.
Read the source: ASHA, Adult Dysphagia
Question 45 of 50
A parent of a 12-month-old asks which fine motor skill is typically expected by 1 year. Which skill is on the CDC's 1-year milestone checklist?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
CDC's "Milestones by 1 Year" lists picking things up between the thumb and pointer finger, such as small bits of food. Neither copying a circle nor pedaling a tricycle appears on CDC's 1-year list.
Source: CDC, Learn the Signs. Act Early. Milestones by 1 Year.
Read the source: CDC, Milestones by 1 Year
Question 46 of 50
An insurer’s utilization reviewer requests documentation from a HIPAA-covered provider to decide on a pending occupational therapy claim. What should the therapist send?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
Disclosures for payment are subject to HIPAA's minimum necessary standard: share only what's reasonably needed for that purpose.
- B and C go well beyond what's needed to review the claim.
Source: HHS, Minimum Necessary Requirement guidance.
Read the source: HHS, HIPAA Minimum Necessary Requirement
Question 47 of 50
An office worker is seated at a computer workstation with the keyboard above elbow height. During typing the worker elevates the shoulders and holds the wrists bent upward. Which workstation change best addresses these observations?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B.
Adjust the workstation to the worker. OSHA’s neutral-position guidance calls for relaxed shoulders, straight wrists aligned with the forearms, elbows close to the body, and feet supported on the floor or a footrest. Adjusting the keyboard and chair addresses the elevated shoulders and bent wrists described here. The worker should still change position during the day.
- A leaves the high keyboard in place and adds wrist splints without an identified need.
- C increases reaching instead of correcting the setup.
Source: OSHA, Computer Workstations eTool, Good Working Positions (neutral body positioning and changing position).
Read the source: OSHA, Computer Workstations eTool: Good Working Positions
Question 48 of 50
An occupational therapist is planning the first session 2 days after a posterior-approach total hip arthroplasty. The referral does not state the client’s weight-bearing status or movement precautions. What should the therapist do before finalizing the transfer and lower-body dressing plan?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Surgical approach alone does not establish this client’s weight-bearing and movement orders. AAOS advises following the surgeon’s specific instructions and notes that precautions vary. Confirm the applicable orders, then select activities, equipment and assistance for this client.
- A assumes a universal protocol and duration.
- B substitutes another person’s orders for this client’s plan.
Source: AAOS OrthoInfo, Activities After Total Hip Replacement, Weightbearing and precautions sections.
Read the source: AAOS OrthoInfo, Activities After Total Hip Replacement
Question 49 of 50
A school team asks the occupational therapist to decide whether a 7-year-old qualifies for special education under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), using only the child's standard score on one fine motor test. What do IDEA's evaluation procedures require?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C.
Under 34 CFR 300.304(b), the evaluation must use a variety of assessment tools and strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental and academic information, including information from the parents, and must not use any single measure as the sole criterion for eligibility or for planning the child's program.
- A A sound test still can't be the only basis for the decision.
- B IDEA's evaluation procedures don't make a physician's diagnosis a precondition; they set out how the educational evaluation itself must be done.
Source: 34 CFR 300.304(b)(1)–(2).
Read the source: eCFR, 34 CFR §300.304 — Evaluation procedures
Question 50 of 50
Eight months after a traumatic brain injury, a client who lives alone understands their weekly schedule when it's reviewed in therapy, but keeps missing medical appointments and forgetting to move laundry to the dryer. Which intervention best fits these findings?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
The client understands the information but can't recall it at the moment it's needed, in their own routine. The Model Systems Knowledge Translation Center (MSKTC) recommends memory aids such as a memory notebook and calendar reminders on a phone, plus writing down step-by-step instructions for tasks. The NBCOT outline lists memory aids among compensatory strategies for cognitive deficits.
- A Clinic review alone does not put a reminder where and when the client needs it.
- B Removing aids works against the recommended approach.
- C Abandoning a client goal isn't an intervention.
Sources: MSKTC, Cognitive Problems After Traumatic Brain Injury (Learning and remembering new information); NBCOT 2022 OTR outline, D3 Task 2.
Read the sources: MSKTC, Cognitive Problems After TBI; NBCOT, 2022 OTR Examination Content Outline
Check your score
Count two things as you go:
- Correct choices: 1 point for each single-answer question you get right, and 1 point for each correct option you pick in a scenario item (up to 3 per item). That gives 66 points in all. This is Castleport’s raw practice tally; it does not reproduce NBCOT’s scoring system.
- Fully correct items: count an item only when you got it completely right. For a scenario item, that means all three correct options. There are 50 items in all.
| Domain (2022 OTR outline) | Question numbers | Items | Points possible | Share of the real exam |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 · Evaluation and Assessment | 2, 6, 10, 14, 15, 22, 26, 34, 40, 45, 49 | 11 | 15 | 23% |
| 2 · Analysis, Interpretation, and Planning | 4, 12, 21, 24, 29, 35, 38, 43, 48 | 9 | 11 | 23% |
| 3 · Select and Manage Interventions | 1, 5, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 18, 20, 23, 25, 28, 30, 37, 39, 42, 44, 47, 50 | 19 | 25 | 38% |
| 4 · Competency and Practice Management | 3, 7, 9, 19, 27, 31, 32, 33, 36, 41, 46 | 11 | 15 | 16% |
| Total | 50 | 66 |
What your score means. Both numbers describe these 50 items only. They don't convert to an NBCOT score and don't predict whether you'll pass. NBCOT reports a scaled score from 300 to 600, and you need 450 to pass. The pass decision rests on the whole exam, with no passing standard for individual domains. With 9 to 19 items per domain here, a domain result is a pointer for what to review, not a measurement of your ability. (NBCOT, Foundations)
Answer key
| # | Item ID | Domain | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | OTR-001 | D3 | C |
| 2 | OTR-002 | D1 | B |
| 3 | OTR-003 | D4 | D |
| 4 | OTR-004 | D2 | A |
| 5 | OTR-005 | D3 | C |
| 6 | OTR-006 | D1 | C |
| 7 | OTR-007 | D4 | A |
| 8 | OTR-008 | D3 | B |
| 9 | OTR-009 | D4 | A |
| 10 | OTR-010 | D1 | A |
| 11 | OTR-011 | D3 | C |
| 12 | OTR-012 | D2 | B |
| 13 | OTR-013 | D3 | C |
| 14 | OTR-014 | D1 | A |
| 15 | OTR-SA1 | D1 | B, D, F |
| 16 | OTR-SA2 | D3 | A, C, E |
| 17 | OTR-SA3 | D3 | C, D, F |
| 18 | OTR-SA4 | D3 | A, B, E |
| 19 | OTR-015 | D4 | C |
| 20 | OTR-016 | D3 | A |
| 21 | OTR-017 | D2 | B |
| 22 | OTR-018 | D1 | C |
| 23 | OTR-019 | D3 | B |
| 24 | OTR-020 | D2 | A |
| 25 | OTR-021 | D3 | C |
| 26 | OTR-022 | D1 | D |
| 27 | OTR-023 | D4 | B |
| 28 | OTR-024 | D3 | C |
| 29 | OTR-025 | D2 | A |
| 30 | OTR-026 | D3 | B |
| 31 | OTR-027 | D4 | C |
| 32 | OTR-028 | D4 | B |
| 33 | OTR-SB1 | D4 | B, C, F |
| 34 | OTR-SB2 | D1 | A, D, E |
| 35 | OTR-SB3 | D2 | B, E, F |
| 36 | OTR-SB4 | D4 | A, C, D |
| 37 | OTR-029 | D3 | B |
| 38 | OTR-030 | D2 | A |
| 39 | OTR-031 | D3 | A |
| 40 | OTR-032 | D1 | D |
| 41 | OTR-033 | D4 | C |
| 42 | OTR-034 | D3 | A |
| 43 | OTR-035 | D2 | C |
| 44 | OTR-036 | D3 | B |
| 45 | OTR-037 | D1 | C |
| 46 | OTR-038 | D4 | A |
| 47 | OTR-039 | D3 | B |
| 48 | OTR-040 | D2 | C |
| 49 | OTR-041 | D1 | C |
| 50 | OTR-042 | D3 | D |
Turn missed questions into a review plan
Pick up to three items you missed or guessed. For each one, fill in a row like this:
| Item ID | Detail I missed | Why my choice didn't fit | What I'll review or try next |
|---|---|---|---|
| OTR-001 | The goal was to practice scanning left during the meal. | Moving everything to the right side does not practice scanning toward the left side. | Review visual scanning and anchoring for left neglect, then explain how I'd grade the anchor cue down over time. |
Then open the linked source if the principle still isn't clear, and test yourself on a changed detail rather than the same answer letter. For example, ask how you would reduce the anchor cue if the client begins finding the left edge independently. Getting a familiar item right a second time isn't new evidence that you're ready. Applying the same idea to a new case helps check whether you understand the principle.
How this practice test compares with the real OTR exam
| Real NBCOT OTR exam | This practice test | |
|---|---|---|
| Length and time | 180 items in 4 hours (about 80 seconds per item on average) | 50 items; about 67 minutes at the same average pace, or work without a timer |
| Item types | Three- and four-option single-answer questions, plus six-option scenario sets | The same three types |
| Scenario sets | An opening scene and four items, three of six options correct; mixed in with other questions | Two complete sets, placed between the single-answer questions |
| Item-type mix | No set percentage of each type | Our own mix: 34 three-option, 8 four-option, 8 scenario items |
| Content basis | 2022 OTR Examination Content Outline | Selected topics from the same outline. Items are spread 11 / 9 / 19 / 11 across the four domains (22 / 18 / 38 / 22%); this is not a proportional or exhaustive exam sample |
| Scoring | Credit per correct option, no deductions; scaled 300–600, 450 to pass | Raw tallies only; never converted to a scaled score |
| Feedback | Candidates who fail get a report with a domain-level performance chart | An explanation for every option, with a source |
Sources: NBCOT Certification Examination Handbook; NBCOT 2024 Exam FAQs; NBCOT Foundations; 2022 OTR Examination Content Outline.
What happened to the CST? The clinical simulation test (CST) items are gone. NBCOT replaced them with scenario sets on January 2, 2024, so practice built around the old CST yes/no format is out of date. (NBCOT, 2024 Exam FAQs)
OTR, not COTA. These items are written for the OTR exam. The COTA exam is a separate 190-item exam with standalone six-option items and no scenario sets. (NBCOT, Foundations)
Official NBCOT practice resources
- NBCOT's sample scenario set 1 and sample scenario set 2 show the official item format. The exam tutorial walks through the testing screen. NBCOT notes that the samples don't recreate the exam-day experience.
Sources
The sources beside each explanation support that item. NBCOT’s handbook and content outline establish exam facts and subject coverage; clinical, legal and technical answers use the relevant guidance or research.
-
van Kessel et al., Visual Scanning Training for Neglect after Stroke
-
American Diabetes Association, Low Blood Glucose (Hypoglycemia)
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International Pressure Injury Guideline, Classification of Pressure Injuries
-
AOTA, Guidelines for Supervision, Roles, and Responsibilities (final 2020 article)
-
National Academies, Assessment Methods for College Competencies
-
U.S. Department of Justice, 2010 ADA Standards: Turning Space
-
Can Do MS, Mind Your 4 Ps: A Trusted Cognitive Strategy for Energy Conservation
-
EEOC, Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation and Undue Hardship under the ADA
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34 CFR §300.320, Definition of individualized education program
-
Wolf et al., The EXCITE Trial: Retention of Improved Upper Extremity Function
-
NIMH, 5 Action Steps to Help Someone Having Thoughts of Suicide
-
ASIA/ISCoS, ISNCSCI Worksheet (REV 04/26; ninth edition, 2026)
-
Arthritis UK (formerly Versus Arthritis), What is joint protection?
-
Mayo Clinic, Orthostatic hypotension — Diagnosis and treatment
-
CDC, Isolation Precautions: Fundamental Elements Needed to Prevent Transmission
-
NSW Health SESLHD, Heat or Cold Therapy
Source access note: when we rechecked sources on November 4, 2026, this link to the cited SESLHD guideline PDF returned a 404 (page not found) error, so this specific document could not be rechecked. SESLHD’s official public policy index now points to staff-only access. The citation is shown as originally used.
-
U.S. Access Board, Clear Floor or Ground Space and Turning Space
-
Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 2: Determining the scope of the review and the questions it will address
Last verified: November 4, 2026. We checked NBCOT's exam format, scoring rules and posted content outline, and the source behind each practice item. By: Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team · How we write and check practice questions
Castleport Test Prep is an independent publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT). Exam and credential names identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and unofficial. They are not actual, recalled or adapted NBCOT exam items, and using them doesn't guarantee a passing score, certification or licensure.