Castleport Test Prep

Free NPTE-PT Practice Test

Sixty original questions with answers and explanations, mapped to FSBPT's current NPTE-PT content outline and ending with four scenario sets, the way real exam sections end. Give yourself 80 minutes to practice real exam pace, or go untimed to learn.

Unofficial practice written by Castleport Test Prep. These are not FSBPT questions, and your percentage here is feedback on these items, not a predicted NPTE score.

Question 1

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-001

A 22-year-old fell onto an outstretched hand 2 days ago. He has tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox and pain with wrist ulnar deviation. Wrist radiographs taken yesterday were read as normal. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

  • A. Begin wrist range-of-motion and grip strengthening; the radiographs ruled out fracture
  • B. Apply a wrist cock-up splint for comfort and progress activity as tolerated
  • C. Contact the physician about thumb spica immobilization and repeat imaging
  • D. Perform grade III wrist mobilizations to restore extension
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Snuffbox tenderness after a fall on an outstretched hand is the classic scaphoid fracture picture, and a normal first film doesn't clear it: StatPearls estimates up to 25% of scaphoid fractures aren't visible on initial radiographs. Standard management is thumb spica immobilization with repeat films in about 1–2 weeks, or MRI. A and D load a possible fracture whose blood supply runs distal to proximal, which is why missed fractures risk nonunion and avascular necrosis. B immobilizes the wrist but not the thumb.

Review next: scaphoid blood supply and why proximal pole fractures heal poorly.

Source: StatPearls, Scaphoid Fracture

Question 2

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-002

A patient had an ischemic stroke in the territory of the right anterior cerebral artery. Which motor pattern is MOST expected?

  • A. Left lower extremity weakness greater than left upper extremity weakness
  • B. Left face and upper extremity weakness greater than lower extremity weakness
  • C. Right lower extremity weakness greater than upper extremity weakness
  • D. Bilateral upper extremity weakness with sparing of both legs
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The ACA supplies the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, where the leg is represented on the motor homunculus, so the deficit is contralateral and leg-predominant. B is the classic middle cerebral artery pattern (face and arm more than leg). C puts the deficit on the wrong side. D doesn't fit a unilateral cortical infarct.

Review next: MCA vs. ACA vs. PCA syndromes, including aphasia (dominant MCA) and neglect (nondominant hemisphere).

Source: StatPearls, Anterior Cerebral Artery Stroke

Question 3

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-003

Post-bronchodilator spirometry for a 66-year-old former smoker shows FEV1 1.4 L and FVC 2.6 L. How should the FEV1/FVC ratio be interpreted?

  • A. 0.54, consistent with a restrictive pattern
  • B. 0.54, consistent with persistent airflow obstruction
  • C. 1.86, consistent with normal lung function
  • D. 0.54, which cannot be interpreted without a lung volume test
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. 1.4 ÷ 2.6 ≈ 0.54. The GOLD criterion for persistent airflow limitation is a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70. Restrictive disease (A) typically lowers both FEV1 and FVC with a normal or high ratio. C inverts the ratio. Lung volumes (D) help confirm restriction, but you don't need them to identify obstruction.

Review next: GOLD grades by FEV1 % predicted, and how obstructive and restrictive patterns change exercise prescription.

Source: GOLD Science Committee, pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry for COPD diagnosis

Question 4

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-004

A 61-year-old with 3 months of shoulder pain has a positive painful arc, a positive drop-arm sign, and weakness on resisted external rotation with the arm at the side. What is the BEST interpretation?

  • A. Subacromial bursitis without tendon involvement is most likely
  • B. Adhesive capsulitis is most likely
  • C. The findings are nonspecific; no single combination changes probability
  • D. A full-thickness rotator cuff tear is highly likely
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. In Park et al. (2005), the combination of painful arc, drop-arm sign, and infraspinatus (external rotation) weakness gave the best post-test probability for a full-thickness tear: about 91% when all three were positive, falling to about 9% when all three were negative. External rotation weakness and a positive drop-arm sign point to tendon failure, not just bursitis (A). Adhesive capsulitis (B) presents with loss of passive motion, especially external rotation, not weakness with intact passive range. C ignores what clusters are for.

Review next: the Hawkins-Kennedy + painful arc + infraspinatus cluster for impingement, from the same study.

Source: Park HB et al. Diagnostic accuracy of clinical tests for the different degrees of subacromial impingement syndrome. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2005;87:1446–1455

Question 5

Integumentary · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-005

A 68-year-old has a shallow wound with irregular borders just above the medial malleolus. The base is red with granulation tissue, drainage is moderate to heavy, the surrounding skin has brown staining, and the leg is edematous. She says the ache improves when she elevates her leg. Which etiology is MOST likely?

  • A. Venous insufficiency ulcer
  • B. Arterial insufficiency ulcer
  • C. Neuropathic (diabetic) ulcer
  • D. Stage 2 pressure injury
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Medial gaiter location, shallow irregular shape, heavy exudate, hemosiderin staining, edema, and relief with elevation are the venous pattern. Arterial ulcers (B) tend to sit on the toes, heels, or lateral malleolus, look punched out with a pale dry base, and hurt more with elevation. Neuropathic ulcers (C) typically form under weight-bearing plantar surfaces. A pressure injury (D) sits over a bony prominence exposed to sustained pressure. Before starting compression for a venous ulcer, an ankle-brachial index is checked to rule out arterial disease.

Review next: why compression helps venous ulcers and can harm arterial ones.

Source: A Persistent Wound: Differentiating Between Arterial and Venous Ulcers, UCLA

Question 6

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-006

A 72-year-old with Parkinson disease freezes when approaching doorways and turning in tight spaces at home. Which intervention has the strongest evidence for this problem?

  • A. Isolated quadriceps strengthening on a leg extension machine
  • B. Instructing him to walk more slowly and look at his feet
  • C. External cueing, such as visual floor lines or a rhythmic auditory beat
  • D. Stretching of the hamstrings and hip flexors only
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The APTA clinical practice guideline for Parkinson disease (Osborne et al., 2022) gives external cueing a strong recommendation based on high-quality evidence, for reducing freezing of gait and improving gait outcomes. Strengthening (A) and flexibility (D) have roles in a full program but don't target the cueing deficit behind freezing. Looking down and slowing (B) doesn't address the problem and can worsen posture.

Review next: the other strong recommendations in the PD guideline (aerobic exercise, resistance training, balance training, gait training).

Source: Osborne JA et al. Physical Therapist Management of Parkinson Disease: APTA Clinical Practice Guideline. Phys Ther. 2022

Question 7

Musculoskeletal · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-007

A 13-year-old boy with obesity reports 3 weeks of left knee pain and a limp. Knee examination is unremarkable. When the therapist passively flexes his left hip, the thigh rolls into external rotation, and hip internal rotation is limited and painful. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Begin patellofemoral strengthening and taping
  • B. Teach a home stretching program and recheck in 4 weeks
  • C. Encourage normal activity, since knee pain in adolescents is usually growth-related
  • D. Keep him non-weight-bearing and refer him urgently for hip imaging and orthopedic evaluation
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Obligatory external rotation with passive hip flexion (the Drehmann sign) plus limited, painful internal rotation in an adolescent points to slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Pain is often referred to the knee, so a normal knee exam is a reason to examine the hip, not to treat the knee. Watchful waiting (B, C) risks slip progression and avascular necrosis, and loading exercise (A) treats the wrong joint. Management is protected weight-bearing and prompt orthopedic referral for fixation.

Review next: SCFE vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease by age, sex, and presentation.

Source: StatPearls, Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Question 8

Safety & Protection · NPTEPT-FT-008

A physical therapist is consulted to evaluate a hospitalized patient with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precautions are required before entering the room?

  • A. Surgical mask and gloves; standard room assignment
  • B. Fit-tested N95 (or higher) respirator, with the patient in an airborne infection isolation room
  • C. Gown and gloves only, as for contact precautions
  • D. Droplet precautions: surgical mask within 3 feet of the patient
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. TB spreads by airborne droplet nuclei that stay suspended and travel on air currents. CDC guidance calls for airborne precautions: an airborne infection isolation (negative-pressure) room and a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator put on before entry. A surgical mask (A, D) doesn't seal against airborne particles. Contact precautions (C) address organisms spread by touch, such as C. difficile.

Review next: the other classic airborne diseases (measles, varicella, disseminated zoster) and which conditions need droplet or contact precautions.

Source: CDC, TB infection control and respiratory protection

Question 9

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-009

A patient with neck and arm pain has a positive Spurling test, a positive upper limb tension test A (median nerve bias), relief of arm symptoms with cervical distraction, and cervical rotation of 50° toward the symptomatic side. How should these findings be interpreted?

  • A. The cluster is negative because rotation must be below 45°
  • B. The findings suggest thoracic outlet syndrome
  • C. All four items of the Wainner cluster are positive, which strongly increases the probability of cervical radiculopathy
  • D. A positive upper limb tension test alone is enough to confirm cervical radiculopathy
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Wainner et al. (2003) found that all four positive (ULTT A, Spurling, distraction, rotation <60° toward the involved side) gave a positive likelihood ratio of about 30, a large shift toward the diagnosis; three of four gave about 6. The rotation cutoff is 60°, not 45° (A). The ULTT is sensitive, so its value lies in a negative result helping rule radiculopathy out (D has it backwards). One caveat worth knowing: the cluster is specific but insensitive, so a patient who doesn't meet all four can still have radiculopathy.

Review next: SnNout and SpPin, and which single cervical tests are best for ruling in versus ruling out.

Source: Wainner RS et al. Reliability and diagnostic accuracy of the clinical examination and patient self-report measures for cervical radiculopathy. Spine. 2003;28(1):52–62

Question 10

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-010

A 40-year-old woke with drooping of the entire right side of her face. She cannot wrinkle her right forehead or fully close her right eye. Strength and sensation in her limbs are normal. Where is the lesion MOST likely?

  • A. Right facial nerve (lower motor neuron)
  • B. Left motor cortex (upper motor neuron)
  • C. Right motor cortex (upper motor neuron)
  • D. Right trigeminal nerve
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Weakness of the whole half of the face, forehead included, is a lower motor neuron pattern, as in Bell palsy. The forehead receives upper motor neuron input from both hemispheres, so a cortical lesion (B) typically spares the forehead and weakens the lower face on the opposite side. A right cortical lesion (C) would affect the left face. The trigeminal nerve (D) supplies facial sensation and the muscles of chewing, not facial expression. Forehead-sparing weakness with limb or speech signs is treated as a stroke until proven otherwise.

Review next: eye protection with incomplete closure, and the prognosis of Bell palsy.

Source: Continuum, Bell's Palsy (2017)

Question 11

System Interactions · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-011

A 67-year-old in outpatient cardiac rehab had his statin dose increased 3 weeks ago. Today he reports aching and weakness in both thighs that began 2 days ago without new exercise, and says his urine has looked dark, like cola. What is the MOST appropriate action?

  • A. Treat it as delayed-onset muscle soreness and reduce today's intensity
  • B. Increase fluid intake and continue the session at the same intensity
  • C. Add lower-extremity stretching and recheck at the next visit
  • D. Hold exercise and contact his physician for urgent evaluation of possible rhabdomyolysis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Muscle pain, weakness, and tea- or cola-colored urine are the classic presentation of rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious statin effect that can cause acute kidney injury. Statins are a recognized cause, and the timing after a dose increase fits. This needs medical evaluation (typically a creatine kinase level and kidney function), not exercise modification (A, C) or continued exercise (B), which adds muscle damage.

Review next: other medications that change PT management, such as beta-blockers, anticoagulants, and corticosteroids.

Source: Statin-induced rhabdomyolysis: a comprehensive review of case reports. Physiother Can. 2014

Question 12

Musculoskeletal · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-012

A 24-year-old recreational runner has 4 months of pain around the patella with squatting, stairs, and prolonged sitting. Tibiofemoral and ligament tests are negative. Which plan is BEST supported by the current clinical practice guideline?

  • A. Isolated knee extension exercises only
  • B. Exercise combining hip- and knee-targeted strengthening
  • C. A knee brace as the primary treatment
  • D. Therapeutic ultrasound and electrical stimulation as stand-alone care
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The 2019 JOSPT patellofemoral pain guideline (Willy et al.) recommends exercise therapy combining hip- and knee-targeted exercise to reduce pain and improve function in the short, medium, and long term. Knee-only work (A) is less effective than the combined approach. The guideline advises against knee orthoses and sleeves (C) and against passive modalities and other nonactive treatments on their own (D). Patellar taping can be added early for pain relief, alongside exercise.

Review next: how PFP is diagnosed (pain reproduced by squatting or other loaded knee flexion) and what must be excluded first.

Source: Willy RW et al. Patellofemoral Pain: Clinical Practice Guidelines. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 2019;49(9):CPG1–CPG95

Question 13

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-013

Six weeks after vestibular neuritis, a 50-year-old has a positive head impulse test to the right and reports that her vision bounces when she walks. Which home exercise is MOST appropriate?

  • A. Gaze stabilization: turning the head side to side while keeping the eyes fixed on a stationary target, several times a day
  • B. Repeated canalith repositioning maneuvers
  • C. Saccadic and smooth-pursuit eye exercises with the head held still
  • D. Rest with a vestibular suppressant until symptoms resolve
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A positive head impulse test and oscillopsia indicate unilateral vestibular hypofunction. The 2022 Academy of Neurologic PT guideline (Hall et al.) supports vestibular rehabilitation with gaze stabilization exercises, which use head movement with visual fixation, and suggests doing them at least 3 times a day for acute and subacute cases. The same guideline recommends against eye-movement exercises without head movement (C). Canalith repositioning (B) treats BPPV. Prolonged suppressants and inactivity (D) slow central compensation.

Review next: how to progress gaze stabilization (busier backgrounds, faster head speed, standing and walking).

Source: Hall CD et al. Vestibular Rehabilitation for Peripheral Vestibular Hypofunction: Updated CPG. J Neurol Phys Ther. 2022

Question 14

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-014

A 74-year-old with heart failure arrives for home health PT. His log shows his weight is up 4 lb since yesterday morning, and his ankles are more swollen than last visit. He feels "about the same." Vital signs are stable. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Proceed with the planned exercise progression since he is asymptomatic
  • B. Double the walking distance to help mobilize fluid
  • C. Teach him to skip fluids entirely for the next day
  • D. Hold exercise progression and contact his physician or HF team today
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The American Heart Association's heart failure self-check plan treats a sudden gain of more than 2–3 lb in 24 hours (or 5 lb in a week), especially with new swelling, as a warning sign of fluid retention that warrants prompt contact with the heart-failure team. Feeling fine (A) doesn't rule out early decompensation. Walking farther (B) doesn't remove fluid and adds cardiac load. Fluid restriction (C) is a medical prescription, not a PT instruction.

Review next: other HF warning signs (orthopnea, new cough, reduced exercise tolerance) and how the therapist should respond to each.

Source: American Heart Association, Self-Check Plan for HF Management

Question 15

Musculoskeletal · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-015

A 45-year-old reports 2 months of pain and swelling in the MCP and PIP joints of both hands and both wrists, with morning stiffness lasting about 90 minutes. Her DIP joints are spared. Which condition is MOST consistent with this presentation?

  • A. Osteoarthritis
  • B. Gout
  • C. Rheumatoid arthritis
  • D. de Quervain tenosynovitis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Symmetric involvement of the MCPs, PIPs, and wrists with DIP sparing and prolonged morning stiffness (typically over 30–60 minutes) is the inflammatory pattern of rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoarthritis (A) favors DIPs, PIPs, and the thumb CMC, with brief morning stiffness under about 30 minutes. Gout (B) usually presents as an acute monoarthritis. de Quervain (D) is a single tendon problem at the radial wrist.

Review next: joint protection and exercise during RA flares vs. remission.

Source: MSD Manual Professional Edition, Rheumatoid Arthritis (reviewed May 2026; updated October 2026)

Question 16

Lymphatic · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-016

A 55-year-old with stage II lymphedema of the left arm after breast cancer treatment is starting complete decongestive therapy (CDT). Which component belongs in the intensive (reduction) phase?

  • A. A custom compression sleeve measured at the first visit, before volume reduction
  • B. Manual lymphatic drainage with multilayer short-stretch bandaging, plus exercise performed while bandaged
  • C. Vigorous deep-tissue massage over the swollen arm
  • D. Heat packs to the arm to soften fibrotic tissue
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. CDT has two phases. The intensive phase reduces volume with manual lymphatic drainage, multilayer short-stretch bandaging, remedial exercise (done in compression so muscle contraction helps move lymph), and skin care. The maintenance phase uses compression garments and self-care. Garments are measured once maximum reduction is reached (A), not at the start. Deep-tissue massage (C) isn't MLD, which uses light skin-stretching pressure. Heat (D) increases filtration and fluid load.

Review next: how Stemmer sign and limb volume or circumference are used to track response.

Source: Complex decongestive therapy: reduction and maintenance phases

Question 17

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-017

A patient 8 months after stroke walks the middle 10 meters of a 10-Meter Walk Test in 16.1 seconds at self-selected speed. Using the classic Perry categories, how is he classified?

  • A. Household ambulator
  • B. Unlimited community ambulator
  • C. Gait speed cannot be calculated from this test
  • D. Limited community ambulator
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Speed = 10 m ÷ 16.1 s ≈ 0.62 m/s. Perry et al. (1995) categories are household under 0.4 m/s, limited community 0.4–0.8 m/s, and unlimited community over 0.8 m/s. A and B are the wrong bands, and C ignores that the 10MWT exists to produce a speed. Updated cutoffs from later research (0.49–0.93 m/s for limited community) would place him in the same category.

Review next: minimal clinically important difference for gait speed, and timing over the middle 10 m to exclude acceleration and deceleration.

Source: Walking speed and community ambulation after stroke (Perry classification)

Question 18

Gastrointestinal · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-018

A 19-year-old was hit in the left upper abdomen during a football game an hour ago. He now has left shoulder-tip pain, feels lightheaded, and has a heart rate of 118 bpm. Shoulder range of motion is full and pain-free. What should the athletic team's PT do?

  • A. Treat it as an acromioclavicular sprain and apply ice
  • B. Activate emergency medical services for possible splenic injury with internal bleeding
  • C. Perform cervical spine screening, then resume play if clear
  • D. Have him rest supine and recheck in 30 minutes
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Left shoulder pain after left upper quadrant trauma is the Kehr sign: blood irritating the diaphragm refers pain through the phrenic nerve (C3–C5) to the shoulder. With tachycardia and lightheadedness, splenic rupture with hemorrhage is the concern, and that's an emergency. A pain-free shoulder exam is the clue the pain isn't musculoskeletal (A, C). Waiting (D) delays care for possible hemorrhagic shock.

Review next: other visceral referral patterns (gallbladder to the right scapula, heart to the left arm and jaw, kidney to the flank).

Source: StatPearls, Splenic Rupture

Question 19

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-019

A 38-year-old felt a "pop" in the back of his ankle while lunging during tennis. He is lying prone with his feet off the table. When the therapist squeezes his calf, the foot does not plantarflex. What does this finding indicate?

  • A. A positive Thompson test, consistent with complete Achilles tendon rupture
  • B. A normal response
  • C. A positive anterior drawer test of the ankle
  • D. Gastrocnemius strain without tendon involvement
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Squeezing an intact calf passively plantarflexes the foot. No plantarflexion is a positive Thompson (Simmonds-Thompson) test and indicates complete Achilles rupture, typically 2–6 cm above the insertion where blood supply is poorest. Reported sensitivity and specificity are high. Some patients can still weakly plantarflex actively using posterior tibialis and the toe flexors, which is why the squeeze test is more useful than asking him to point his foot. The anterior drawer (C) tests the ATFL.

Review next: risk factors for rupture, including fluoroquinolone and corticosteroid use.

Source: Albertson S, Boysen Osborn M. Thompson Test in Achilles Tendon Rupture. JETem. 2016

Question 20

Therapeutic Modalities · NPTEPT-FT-020

A therapist plans thermal ultrasound for a patellar tendinopathy. The target tissue lies about 1 cm below the skin. Which setting is MOST appropriate?

  • A. 1 MHz, because lower frequency concentrates heat in superficial tissue
  • B. Any frequency, because intensity alone determines treatment depth
  • C. 3 MHz, because higher frequency is absorbed in more superficial tissue
  • D. 1 MHz pulsed at a 20% duty cycle
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Depth of ultrasound penetration is inversely related to frequency. 3 MHz is absorbed in superficial tissue (roughly 1–2 cm) and heats it faster, while 1 MHz reaches deeper structures (roughly 3–5 cm). A reverses the relationship. Intensity (B) affects how much energy is delivered, not the depth. A 20% duty cycle (D) produces minimal heating and doesn't match a thermal goal.

Review next: contraindications to ultrasound (over a pregnant uterus, active malignancy, the eyes, areas of impaired sensation for thermal use).

Source: Draper DO et al. Rate of temperature increase in human muscle during 1 MHz and 3 MHz continuous ultrasound. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 1995;22(4):304–307; Draper DO et al. Rate of temperature increase in human muscle during 1 MHz and 3 MHz continuous ultrasound. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 1995;22(4):142–150

Question 21

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-021

After a stab wound to the right side of the spine at T10, a patient has weakness of the right leg and loss of proprioception and vibration in the right leg. Which additional finding is expected?

  • A. Loss of pain and temperature sensation in the right leg
  • B. Loss of all sensation in both legs
  • C. Loss of motor function in both arms
  • D. Loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. This is Brown-Séquard syndrome, a hemisection of the cord. The corticospinal tract and dorsal columns carry fibers that haven't crossed yet at this level, so motor function and proprioception are lost on the same side. Spinothalamic fibers cross within one or two segments of entry, so pain and temperature are lost on the opposite side, starting a level or two below the injury. A puts the spinothalamic loss on the wrong side. B and C describe complete or cervical lesions.

Review next: central cord and anterior cord syndromes, and which incomplete syndrome has the best walking prognosis.

Source: StatPearls, Brown-Séquard Syndrome

Question 22

Musculoskeletal · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-022

A 70-year-old with osteoporosis (no vertebral fracture) asks which exercise in her current home program she should change. Which one?

  • A. Repeated sit-ups and toe-touches with a weighted ball
  • B. Single-leg balance practice next to a counter
  • C. Resistance training for the hips and back extensors twice a week
  • D. Brisk walking most days of the week
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The Too Fit To Fracture recommendations emphasize resistance and balance training, back-extensor endurance, and "spine-sparing" movement such as hip hinging, while avoiding repeated or loaded spinal flexion, which raises compressive load on the anterior vertebral bodies. B, C, and D are components the recommendations support.

Review next: how the recommendations change after a vertebral compression fracture.

Source: Giangregorio LM et al. Too Fit To Fracture. Osteoporos Int. 2014; and the 2015 Delphi consensus

Question 23

Metabolic & Endocrine · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-023

A 29-year-old with type 1 diabetes checks her glucose before a planned 45-minute run in clinic. It is 290 mg/dL, she hasn't eaten in 4 hours, and her blood ketone meter reads 1.8 mmol/L. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Postpone exercise and have her follow her diabetes care team's plan for elevated ketones
  • B. Proceed, since aerobic exercise will lower her glucose
  • C. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, then start
  • D. Substitute light walking for the run
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The international consensus on exercise in type 1 diabetes (Riddell et al., Lancet Diabetes & Endocrinology, 2017) says unexplained glucose above about 270 mg/dL calls for a ketone check, and blood ketones of 1.5 mmol/L or more make exercise contraindicated until the hyperglycemia is managed. With insufficient insulin, exercise can push glucose and ketones higher, toward ketoacidosis, so B and D are unsafe. C treats hypoglycemia, the opposite problem.

Review next: starting glucose targets for exercise, and how to manage a low pre-exercise reading.

Source: Riddell MC et al. Exercise management in type 1 diabetes: a consensus statement. Lancet Diabetes Endocrinol. 2017

Question 24

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-024

Two weeks after a traumatic brain injury, a patient is restless, confused, pulls at his IV line, and can't remember the therapist from yesterday. He follows no multistep commands. Which approach is MOST appropriate for his PT sessions?

  • A. A busy gym session with multiple stations to keep him engaged
  • B. Correcting each confused statement and reasoning with him until he agrees
  • C. A quiet, low-stimulation setting, a consistent therapist and schedule, and short, simple, familiar tasks
  • D. Teaching new, complex balance strategies he can carry over to discharge
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. He fits Rancho Los Amigos Level IV, confused-agitated: a heightened state of activity driven by internal confusion, with no short-term recall. Management prioritizes reducing stimulation and keeping caregivers and routines consistent, with simple, familiar activity. A busy environment (A) feeds agitation. Arguing with confused content (B) escalates it. He can't yet learn new complex skills (D).

Review next: how management shifts at Levels V and VI as attention and carryover improve.

Source: StatPearls, Rancho Los Amigos; Alberta Health Services, Behavioural Management of Agitation following Brain Injury

Question 25

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-025

When a patient stands on her right leg, her left pelvis drops. Which muscle weakness does this indicate?

  • A. Left gluteus medius
  • B. Right gluteus medius
  • C. Right gluteus maximus
  • D. Left hip adductors
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A positive Trendelenburg sign is a drop of the pelvis on the unsupported side during single-leg stance, caused by weakness of the hip abductors (gluteus medius and minimus) on the stance side. Standing on the right with the left pelvis dropping implicates the right abductors. A is the most common mistake: the drop is on the opposite side from the weak muscle. Gluteus maximus weakness (C) produces a backward trunk lurch at initial contact.

Review next: the compensated Trendelenburg gait (trunk lean toward the weak side) and why a cane in the opposite hand helps.

Source: StatPearls, Trendelenburg Sign

Question 26

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-026

During a monitored cardiac rehab session, the treadmill grade is increased. The patient's systolic blood pressure falls from 142 to 128 mm Hg and he reports new chest pressure. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Continue at the new workload and recheck blood pressure in 5 minutes
  • B. Reduce the speed slightly and continue the session
  • C. Have him drink water and resume once the pressure eases
  • D. Stop the exercise, keep monitoring, and activate the facility's emergency or physician-notification protocol
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Systolic pressure should rise with workload. A drop of more than 10 mm Hg from baseline despite increased workload, with other evidence of ischemia such as chest pressure, is an absolute indication to stop exercise in the AHA exercise standards. A and B keep stressing an ischemic heart. Water (C) doesn't address a cardiac cause.

Review next: the relative indications to stop exercise and the normal BP response to exercise.

Source: Fletcher GF et al. Exercise Standards for Testing and Training: AHA Scientific Statement. Circulation. 2013

Question 27

Professional Responsibilities · NPTEPT-FT-027

A physical therapist wants to send a patient's re-evaluation to the orthopedic surgeon who is co-managing his post-operative care. The patient has not signed a written authorization. Under HIPAA, what applies?

  • A. The disclosure is permitted for treatment without the patient's written authorization
  • B. Written authorization is required before sharing any information with another provider
  • C. Only a one-line summary may be sent, under the minimum necessary standard
  • D. The information may be shared only by phone, not in writing
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. HIPAA permits covered entities to disclose protected health information to another provider for treatment without written authorization. HHS also states that the minimum necessary standard does not apply to disclosures to a health care provider for treatment (C). The medium of communication (D) doesn't change permission, though reasonable safeguards still apply. Some state laws and record types (for example, substance use treatment records) add stricter rules.

Review next: when the minimum necessary standard does apply (payment, operations), and patients' right to access their records.

Source: HHS, Uses and Disclosures for Treatment, Payment, and Health Care Operations; HHS, Minimum Necessary Requirement

Question 28

Musculoskeletal · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-028

A 52-year-old assembler has numbness in her right thumb, index, and middle fingers that wakes her at night and improves when she shakes her hand. Examination shows thenar atrophy and weak thumb abduction. Where is the nerve MOST likely compressed?

  • A. Ulnar nerve at Guyon's canal
  • B. C8 nerve root
  • C. Median nerve at the carpal tunnel
  • D. Radial nerve at the spiral groove
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Sensory symptoms in the median distribution with weakness and wasting of the thenar muscles (abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis) fit carpal tunnel syndrome. Ulnar nerve entrapment (A) affects the little finger, ulnar ring finger, hypothenar muscles, and interossei. A C8 radiculopathy (B) produces neck-related symptoms on the ulnar side of the hand. Radial nerve palsy at the spiral groove (D) causes wrist drop. Thenar atrophy signals more advanced compression.

Review next: the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, which runs over the carpal tunnel and keeps thenar skin sensation intact in CTS.

Source: StatPearls, Thenar Eminence

Question 29

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-029

A 46-year-old is 3 weeks into recovery from Guillain-Barré syndrome. He has improving distal weakness and fatigues quickly. Which exercise approach is MOST appropriate?

  • A. High-intensity resistance training to muscle failure to speed reinnervation
  • B. Low- to moderate-intensity functional and strengthening exercise in short bouts with rest, avoiding exercise that causes excessive fatigue
  • C. Strict bed rest until strength returns to normal
  • D. Daily maximal-effort endurance testing to track progress
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. In the recovery phase, nerves are remyelinating and muscles fatigue easily. Rehabilitation guidance stresses pacing: graded exercise with rest breaks, avoiding overwork and exhausting effort, which can cause prolonged fatigue and set back recovery. A and D overload recovering motor units. Bed rest (C) brings deconditioning, contractures, and VTE risk. Watch respiratory function closely in the acute phase, when weakness can involve the breathing muscles.

Review next: orthoses for foot drop, and fatigue as a long-term residual problem after GBS.

Source: UW Medicine, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Exercise

Question 30

Integumentary · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-030

A 30-year-old spilled boiling water on his forearm. The area is red, moist, and blistered, blanches with pressure, and is very painful to light touch. How should the burn be classified?

  • A. Full-thickness burn
  • B. Superficial burn
  • C. Deep partial-thickness burn
  • D. Superficial partial-thickness burn
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Blisters, a moist red base that blanches, and severe pain mark a superficial partial-thickness burn involving the epidermis and papillary dermis, which usually heals in 2–3 weeks with minimal scarring. Superficial burns (B) are red and painful but don't blister, like a sunburn. Deep partial-thickness burns (C) blanch sluggishly or not at all and have reduced pain. Full-thickness burns (A) are leathery, white or charred, and insensate.

Review next: which burns are excluded from total body surface area calculations, and when burn center referral is indicated.

Source: StatPearls, Burn Classification

Question 31

Genitourinary · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-031

A 34-year-old referred for low back pain has had right flank pain for 2 days with a temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C), nausea, and painful urination. Percussion over the right costovertebral angle reproduces sharp pain. Spinal movements don't change her symptoms. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Refer her to her physician promptly for suspected kidney infection
  • B. Begin lumbar stabilization and reassess in a week
  • C. Apply heat to the flank and teach posture correction
  • D. Perform a lumbar manipulation and recheck symptoms
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Fever, flank pain, nausea, urinary symptoms, and costovertebral angle tenderness together suggest acute pyelonephritis, an infection that needs prompt medical treatment with antibiotics. Back pain that no spinal movement changes, plus systemic signs, is a screening red flag. B, C, and D treat a nonmechanical problem as mechanical and delay care.

Review next: how kidney stones differ (colicky pain, often without fever) and other systemic red flags in back pain screening.

Source: StatPearls, Acute Pyelonephritis

Question 32

Research & Evidence-Based Practice · NPTEPT-FT-032

In a randomized trial, 20% of older adults in the control group fell during follow-up, compared with 15% in the exercise group. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one fall?

  • A. 4
  • B. 6.7
  • C. 20
  • D. 25
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Absolute risk reduction = control event rate − experimental event rate = 0.20 − 0.15 = 0.05. NNT = 1 ÷ ARR = 1 ÷ 0.05 = 20, so 20 people need the program to prevent one additional faller. A is 1 ÷ 0.25, which uses the relative risk reduction. B is 1 ÷ 0.15, which uses the treatment group's event rate. D treats the 25% relative risk reduction as the NNT. NNTs are rounded up to whole patients.

Review next: relative vs. absolute risk reduction, and why the same RRR gives very different NNTs at different baseline risks.

Source: Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine, Number Needed to Treat

Question 33

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-033

A 32-year-old parent of a newborn reports pain at the radial side of the wrist when lifting the baby. Pain is reproduced over the radial styloid when the thumb is flexed into the palm and the wrist is ulnarly deviated. Which tendons are MOST likely involved?

  • A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis at the lateral epicondyle
  • B. Flexor carpi radialis at the wrist crease
  • C. Extensor pollicis longus at Lister's tubercle
  • D. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis in the first dorsal compartment
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. This is the Finkelstein-type test for de Quervain tenosynovitis, which stretches the APL and EPB where they pass through the first dorsal compartment at the radial styloid. ECRB (A) is involved in lateral epicondylalgia at the elbow. The EPL (C) runs in the third compartment around Lister's tubercle. FCR (B) is a volar tendon. The thumb-in-fist version is technically Eichhoff's maneuver and produces more false positives than Finkelstein's original method.

Review next: thumb spica orthoses and activity modification for de Quervain.

Source: StatPearls, Finkelstein Sign

Question 34

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-034

A patient in inpatient rehab is learning three transfers: bed to wheelchair, wheelchair to toilet, and wheelchair to car seat. To maximize how well he retains and transfers these skills after discharge, how should practice be scheduled once he understands each task?

  • A. Blocked practice: all repetitions of one transfer before moving to the next
  • B. Random practice: transfers mixed in varying order within each session
  • C. Practice only the easiest transfer until it is perfect, then add the others
  • D. Mental rehearsal only, to avoid fatigue
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The contextual interference effect, first shown by Shea and Morgan (1979), is that random practice often looks worse during the session but produces better retention and transfer than blocked practice. Blocked practice (A) gives smoother performance in the session but weaker long-term learning. That gap between performance and learning is exactly what exam items like to test. Blocked practice can still help in the very first stage of learning a new task.

Review next: knowledge of results vs. knowledge of performance, and fading feedback frequency.

Source: Shea JB, Morgan RL. Contextual interference effects on the acquisition, retention, and transfer of a motor skill. J Exp Psychol Hum Learn Mem. 1979;5(2):179–187

Question 35

Equipment, Devices & Technologies · NPTEPT-FT-035

A patient who is partial weight-bearing on the right leg after an ankle fracture uses two axillary crutches. There is no handrail. How should he go down the stairs?

  • A. Lower the crutches to the step below, then the right leg, then the left leg
  • B. Step down with the left leg first, then the crutches and right leg
  • C. Lower the crutches and left leg together, then the right leg
  • D. Step down with the right leg first, then lower the crutches
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. "Up with the good, down with the bad": going down, the crutches move first with the injured leg, so the arms and crutches support the injured side, then the stronger leg follows. Going up, the strong leg leads and the crutches and injured leg follow. B and C lead with the strong leg going down, which leaves the injured leg to lower the body. D moves the injured leg without crutch support.

Review next: guarding position on stairs (therapist below the patient) and stair technique with one crutch and a rail.

Source: UPMC, Using crutches on stairs

Question 36

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-036

A 44-year-old tennis player has lateral elbow pain. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle while the patient makes a fist, pronates the forearm, and extends the wrist against resistance, which reproduces his pain. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  • A. Medial epicondylalgia
  • B. Radial head fracture
  • C. Lateral epicondylalgia involving the extensor carpi radialis brevis
  • D. Cubital tunnel syndrome
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. This is Cozen's test: resisted wrist extension loads the common extensor origin, mainly the ECRB, and reproducing lateral epicondyle pain supports lateral epicondylalgia ("tennis elbow"). Medial epicondylalgia (A) is provoked by resisted wrist flexion and pronation. A fracture (B) follows trauma. Cubital tunnel syndrome (D) involves the ulnar nerve with ulnar-side hand symptoms.

Review next: Mill's test (passive stretch) and Maudsley's test (resisted middle finger extension), and how radial tunnel syndrome can mimic tennis elbow.

Source: Physiotutors, Cozen's Test

Question 37

System Interactions · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-037

A 31-year-old at 28 weeks of an uncomplicated pregnancy is doing a home program for low back pain that includes supine bridges and supine core exercises held for several minutes. She occasionally feels lightheaded during them. Which modification is MOST appropriate?

  • A. Stop all exercise until after delivery
  • B. Hold the supine positions longer to build endurance
  • C. Add breath-holding to increase core stability
  • D. Replace prolonged supine work with side-lying, seated, or inclined positions
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Later in pregnancy, lying supine can compress the vena cava, reducing venous return and causing hypotension and lightheadedness. ACOG Committee Opinion 804 supports continuing exercise in uncomplicated pregnancy, with position changes for supine activity. Stopping all exercise (A) gives up well-documented benefits. Longer supine holds (B) worsen the problem. Breath-holding (C) and straining are discouraged.

Review next: ACOG warning signs to stop exercise (vaginal bleeding, regular painful contractions, dizziness, chest pain, calf pain or swelling).

Source: ACOG Committee Opinion No. 804, Physical Activity and Exercise During Pregnancy and the Postpartum Period. Obstet Gynecol. 2020

Question 38

Safety & Protection · NPTEPT-FT-038

During August preseason practice, a high school lineman collapses. He is confused and combative, and his rectal temperature is 106°F (41.1°C). The athletic trainer and team PT are on site with a cold-water tub. What should happen FIRST?

  • A. Call EMS and transport him immediately without on-site cooling
  • B. Cool him by cold-water immersion on site, with EMS activated, before transport
  • C. Give oral fluids and move him to shade, then reassess in 15 minutes
  • D. Use ice packs at the neck and groin during transport only
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Central nervous system dysfunction with a core temperature above 105°F defines exertional heat stroke. The 2015 NATA position statement calls cold-water immersion the most effective treatment and supports "cool first, transport second," because survival depends on how fast core temperature comes down. Transporting without cooling (A) delays the treatment that matters most. Fluids and shade (C) treat heat exhaustion. Ice packs alone (D) cool far more slowly than immersion.

Review next: why rectal temperature is the only reliable field measure, and how heat exhaustion differs from heat stroke.

Source: NATA, Exertional Heat Illnesses Position Statement executive summary (published in full 2015)

Question 39

Musculoskeletal · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-039

A 36-year-old has 10 days of low back pain with pain into the right posterior thigh. With repeated prone press-ups, the thigh pain disappears and only central low back pain remains, which then eases. What does this response indicate, and what is the BEST plan?

  • A. Centralization with an extension directional preference; prescribe repeated extension exercises
  • B. Peripheralization; avoid all extension movements
  • C. Centralization indicates a poor prognosis; refer for surgical consultation
  • D. A nonmechanical source; refer for imaging before any exercise
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Centralization is the retreat of referred symptoms toward the spine with repeated movements or positions. It identifies a directional preference and is associated with a favorable prognosis. Guidelines support repeated movements that centralize symptoms in acute low back pain with related leg pain, and the 2021 JOSPT guideline lists Mechanical Diagnosis and Therapy as an option for acute LBP. Peripheralization (B) is symptoms moving farther down the leg. C reverses the prognosis. Nothing here suggests a nonmechanical source (D).

Review next: red flags that override a mechanical exam, and treatment-based classification for acute LBP.

Source: George SZ et al. Interventions for the Management of Acute and Chronic Low Back Pain: Revision 2021; APTA, Pain Centralization

Question 40

Musculoskeletal · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-040

A 70-year-old has had aching and tingling in both buttocks and thighs for a year. It starts after he walks about two blocks. Standing still doesn't help, but sitting down or leaning forward on a shopping cart relieves it within a few minutes. Pedal pulses are normal. Which condition is MOST likely?

  • A. Peripheral artery disease with vascular claudication
  • B. Hip osteoarthritis
  • C. Acute lumbar disc herniation
  • D. Lumbar spinal stenosis with neurogenic claudication
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Leg symptoms that come on with walking and ease with sitting or bending forward, but not with standing still, point to neurogenic claudication. Flexion opens up the spinal canal, which is why leaning on a shopping cart or walking uphill is easier than walking upright. Vascular claudication (A) eases with rest in any position and usually comes with weak pulses or skin changes. Hip osteoarthritis (B) causes groin pain with hip motion and doesn't explain tingling in both legs. An acute disc herniation (C) usually causes one-sided radicular pain, not symptoms set off by walking distance and relieved by sitting.

Review next: how a lower-extremity vascular screen (pulses, skin, ankle-brachial index) separates the two kinds of claudication.

Source: MSD Manual Professional, Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

Question 41

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-041

A 66-year-old with heart failure is doing a six-minute walk test in outpatient PT. Which development is a reason to stop the test IMMEDIATELY?

  • A. Her heart rate rises from 78 to 104 bpm by minute 3
  • B. She begins staggering, is sweating heavily, and looks pale
  • C. She asks to slow down because she is moderately short of breath
  • D. Her SpO2 falls from 97% to 93%
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The American Thoracic Society's six-minute walk test guideline lists the reasons to stop right away: chest pain, intolerable shortness of breath, leg cramps, staggering, heavy sweating (diaphoresis), and a pale or ashen look. A rise in heart rate (A) is the normal response to walking. Patients are allowed to slow down, or stop and rest, during the test (C); the clock keeps running and the distance is recorded. Protocols that use continuous oximetry also stop for SpO2 below 80%, and 93% (D) is well above that.

Review next: the standard 6MWT instructions (course length, scripted encouragement) and how distance walked is interpreted.

Source: ATS Statement: Guidelines for the Six-Minute Walk Test. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2002;166:111–117; PhenX Toolkit, Six-Minute Walk Test protocol

Question 42

Gastrointestinal · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-042

A 52-year-old with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is in PT for neck pain. She says her heartburn is worst at night and asks what she can do at home besides taking her medication. Which advice matches the American College of Gastroenterology guideline?

  • A. Lie down for 30 minutes after meals to help digestion
  • B. Eat her largest meal right before bed so she isn't hungry overnight
  • C. Avoid eating within 2–3 hours of bedtime and raise the head of her bed
  • D. Sleep completely flat without a pillow
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The ACG GERD guideline (Katz et al., 2022) suggests avoiding meals within 2–3 hours of bedtime and raising the head of the bed for nighttime symptoms, and recommends weight loss for patients with overweight or obesity. A, B, and D each pair a full stomach or a flat position, which makes reflux easier. The same idea carries into the clinic: for a patient with reflux, schedule supine or head-down exercise away from meals.

Review next: symptoms that need medical review rather than reassurance, such as trouble swallowing, unplanned weight loss, or chest pain with exertion.

Source: ACP Gastroenterology summary of the ACG Clinical Guideline for the Diagnosis and Management of GERD

Question 43

Musculoskeletal · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-043

A 54-year-old with type 2 diabetes has had right shoulder pain for 5 months. The pain was severe at night early on and has eased, but the shoulder is now very stiff. Active and passive external rotation are both markedly limited, followed by abduction and then internal rotation. Strength within the available range is normal, and radiographs are unremarkable. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  • A. Adhesive capsulitis
  • B. Full-thickness rotator cuff tear
  • C. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis
  • D. Subacromial bursitis
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Equal loss of active and passive motion, worst in external rotation and then abduction and internal rotation, is the frozen shoulder pattern. Diabetes is a known risk factor, and the course (a painful phase moving into a stiff phase) fits its typical stages. A rotator cuff tear (B) limits active motion while passive motion stays close to full. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis (C) would usually show joint changes on radiographs. Bursitis (D) makes movement painful but doesn't block passive motion in several planes.

Review next: the three phases of adhesive capsulitis and how treatment shifts from pain control to stretching as irritability falls.

Source: StatPearls, Adhesive Capsulitis

Question 44

Lymphatic · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-044

A 58-year-old with stable, mild lymphedema of the right arm after breast cancer treatment wants to start lifting weights. Years ago she was told never to lift more than 5 pounds with that arm. Which response is BEST supported by evidence?

  • A. Keep the lifelong 5-pound limit for the affected arm
  • B. Start a slowly progressive, supervised resistance program and monitor the arm for changes
  • C. Avoid all upper-body exercise and walk instead
  • D. Start at a heavy load to build strength quickly, since exercise doesn't affect swelling
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. In the Physical Activity and Lymphedema (PAL) trial (Schmitz et al., 2009), women with breast cancer-related lymphedema who did slowly progressive weight lifting had no more arm swelling than controls, plus fewer lymphedema flare-ups, fewer symptoms, and more strength. A and C apply an outdated blanket restriction and give up those benefits. D drops the slow progression, which is what the trial actually tested: start light, progress gradually, and watch the arm.

Review next: signs of a lymphedema flare (more swelling, heaviness, redness) and when to pause the program and reassess.

Source: Schmitz KH et al. Weight lifting in women with breast-cancer-related lymphedema. N Engl J Med. 2009;361(7):664–673

Question 45

System Interactions · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-045

A 41-year-old warehouse worker has had low back pain for 8 months. His neurological and red-flag screens are negative. He says an MRI showed "degenerated discs," believes his spine is "crumbling," and avoids bending because he's afraid it will cause damage. He scores high on a fear-avoidance questionnaire. Which plan BEST fits the current guideline?

  • A. Rest from lifting and bending until the pain is completely gone
  • B. Give him a back-care pamphlet as the main treatment
  • C. Ask his physician for repeat imaging to reassure him
  • D. Combine pain neuroscience education with an active exercise program that gradually reintroduces bending
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. His pain is shaped by more than tissue: fear, beliefs about damage, and avoidance are psychological dimensions of pain that affect his prognosis and plan. The 2021 JOSPT low back pain guideline (George et al.) says PTs should deliver pain neuroscience education alongside other treatment, such as exercise, for chronic low back pain, and should favor active treatment over education given on its own (B). Rest and avoidance (A) feed the fear and add deconditioning. More imaging (C) doesn't change management here and can reinforce the idea that something is damaged.

Review next: what fear-avoidance questionnaires measure, and the difference between graded activity and graded exposure.

Source: George SZ et al. Interventions for the Management of Acute and Chronic Low Back Pain: Revision 2021. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 2021

Question 46

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-046

A 60-year-old starting a walking program for general conditioning has a resting heart rate of 70 bpm and takes no medications that affect heart rate. Using the Karvonen method with an age-predicted maximum heart rate, what is his target heart rate at 60% intensity?

  • A. 96 bpm
  • B. 54 bpm
  • C. 124 bpm
  • D. 166 bpm
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Age-predicted maximum = 220 − 60 = 160 bpm. Heart rate reserve = 160 − 70 = 90 bpm. Target = 70 + (0.60 × 90) = 124 bpm. A is 60% of maximum heart rate, a different and lower method. B is 60% of the reserve without adding resting heart rate back. D takes 60% of the maximum and then adds resting heart rate (96 + 70).

Review next: why age-predicted maximums are only estimates, and why ratings of perceived exertion replace heart-rate targets for patients on beta-blockers.

Source: Karvonen J, Vuorimaa T. Heart rate and exercise intensity during sports activities. Sports Med. 1988;5(5):303–311

Question 47

Professional Responsibilities · NPTEPT-FT-047

While reviewing a handwritten paper note before signing it, a physical therapist notices she recorded the wrong knee flexion measurement. What is the correct way to fix it?

  • A. Cover the value with correction fluid and write the right number over it
  • B. Rewrite the whole note and throw away the original
  • C. Scribble over the value so it can't be read, then write the correct one
  • D. Draw a single line through the error, write the correct value, and initial and date the change
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. APTA's documentation guidelines say charting errors are corrected by drawing a single line through the error and initialing and dating the chart, or, in an electronic record, through a method that shows a change was made without deleting the original. The original entry stays readable, which keeps the record honest and defensible. A, B, and C all hide or destroy the original entry.

Review next: what APTA's guidelines require for authenticating entries (ink, signature, and professional designation).

Source: APTA, Guidelines: Physical Therapy Documentation of Patient/Client Management (BOD G03-05-16-41)

Question 48

Research & Evidence-Based Practice · NPTEPT-FT-048

In a randomized trial comparing supervised exercise with usual care after hip fracture, 15% of the exercise group stopped attending sessions. The researchers analyze every participant in the group they were randomized to, including those who stopped. What is this approach called, and what does it protect?

  • A. Intention-to-treat analysis; it preserves the balance created by randomization
  • B. Per-protocol analysis; it shows the effect in people who completed treatment
  • C. As-treated analysis; it removes the bias caused by dropouts
  • D. Blinding; it keeps participants from knowing their group
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Intention-to-treat analysis includes everyone who was randomized, in their original groups, whatever happened afterward. That keeps the groups comparable, which is the whole point of randomizing, and gives a cautious, real-world estimate of benefit. Per-protocol analysis (B) uses only participants who finished without major protocol deviations, and people who stick with a treatment often differ from those who don't, so it can overstate benefit. As-treated analysis (C) groups people by what they actually received, which breaks randomization rather than protecting it. Blinding (D) is a different safeguard.

Review next: how missing outcome data complicate intention-to-treat, and where it appears on the PEDro scale.

Source: Gupta SK. Intention-to-treat concept: a review. Perspect Clin Res. 2011;2(3):109–112

Scenario set 1: Questions 49–51

Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management

Question 49

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-049

Which term BEST describes her postural behavior?

  • A. Ipsilateral pushing due to cerebellar ataxia
  • B. Apraxia of trunk movement
  • C. Pusher syndrome (contraversive pushing)
  • D. Loss of lateral balance caused by left hemianopia alone
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Pusher syndrome has three features: the body tilts toward the paretic side, the nonparetic limbs push toward that side, and the patient resists passive correction. Karnath and Broetz (2003) tie it to an altered perception of body orientation relative to gravity, while perception of the visual vertical is largely preserved. Cerebellar ataxia (A) causes incoordination without active pushing. A visual field cut (D) doesn't explain active pushing and resistance.

Review next: the Scale for Contraversive Pushing and the typical recovery course (pushing is rarely still present at 6 months).

Source: Karnath HO, Broetz D. Understanding and treating "pusher syndrome." Phys Ther. 2003;83:1119–1125

Question 50

Case recap: Scenario set 1 (Questions 49–51)

Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management

Back to the full scenario set 1 case

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-050

Which intervention is MOST appropriate for her pushing?

  • A. Firmly push her trunk back to midline from the left side each time she leans
  • B. Use visual references for vertical, such as a doorframe or a mirror with a vertical line, and have her actively reach and shift toward the nonparetic side
  • C. Place a wedge under her right hip to tilt her farther left
  • D. Avoid all sitting until the pushing resolves
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Because visual vertical is intact, treatment built on Karnath and Broetz's approach uses visual feedback so she can see that she's tilted, then practices active movements to reach and hold upright, such as reaching toward the nonparetic side. Forcing her to midline (A) triggers more resistance. C tilts her farther toward the paretic side. Avoiding sitting (D) delays recovery.

Review next: why transfers toward the paretic side can be easier when pushing is severe.

Source: Karnath HO, Broetz D. Understanding and treating "pusher syndrome." Phys Ther. 2003;83:1119–1125

Question 51

Case recap: Scenario set 1 (Questions 49–51)

Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management

Back to the full scenario set 1 case

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-051

Which intervention should be AVOIDED for her left shoulder?

  • A. Positioning and support of the arm in sitting
  • B. Education for her and her caregivers on safe shoulder handling
  • C. Careful assessment for subluxation, spasticity, and range-of-motion limits
  • D. Overhead pulley exercises to maintain shoulder range of motion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The 2026 AHA/ASA Guideline for Adult Stroke Rehabilitation and Recovery says overhead pulley exercises should not be used to increase range of motion or reduce shoulder pain in people with stroke who have glenohumeral subluxation, shoulder weakness, or shoulder pain. The same guideline supports shoulder assessment (C) and patient and caregiver education (B), and positioning and support (A) are standard protection for a subluxed shoulder.

Review next: causes of hemiplegic shoulder pain and why arm support matters during transfers.

Source: Richards LG et al. 2026 Guideline for Adult Stroke Rehabilitation and Recovery. Stroke. 2026;57(10):e514–e658

Scenario set 2: Questions 52–54

Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies

Question 52

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-052

While walking in the hallway on 2 L/min, his SpO2 is 90% and he reports moderate breathlessness. What is the MOST appropriate action?

  • A. Continue walking with monitoring, since his saturation is within his ordered target range
  • B. Raise his oxygen until SpO2 reaches 98%
  • C. Stop the walk and return him to bed immediately
  • D. Remove the oxygen to test his room-air tolerance
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. For patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, such as many with COPD, the British Thoracic Society guideline sets a target saturation of 88–92%, and his physician ordered that range. 90% is on target. Pushing saturation higher (B) risks CO2 retention and goes beyond the order. Breathlessness at an on-target saturation doesn't require stopping (C). Removing ordered oxygen (D) isn't a PT decision.

Review next: why this population has a lower target than the 94–98% used for most acutely ill patients.

Source: O'Driscoll BR et al. BTS Guideline for oxygen use in adults: summary of recommendations. BMJ Open Respir Res. 2017

Question 53

Case recap: Scenario set 2 (Questions 52–54)

Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies

Back to the full scenario set 2 case

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-053

After 40 feet, his respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and he is breathing rapidly through his mouth. Which breathing strategy should the therapist teach FIRST?

  • A. Breath-holding during the hardest part of the walk
  • B. Rapid, shallow mouth breathing to increase oxygen intake
  • C. Pursed-lip breathing: inhale through the nose and exhale slowly through pursed lips
  • D. Forceful maximal exhalation with each breath
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Pursed-lip breathing creates back-pressure that helps keep airways open during exhalation, slows the respiratory rate, increases tidal volume, and reduces dyspnea, with the strongest evidence in moderate to severe COPD. Rapid shallow breathing (B) worsens air trapping. Breath-holding (A) and forceful exhalation (D) increase work of breathing and can promote airway collapse.

Review next: why diaphragmatic breathing has weaker evidence than pursed-lip breathing in COPD.

Source: Gosselink R. Breathing techniques in patients with COPD. Chron Respir Dis. 2004

Question 54

Case recap: Scenario set 2 (Questions 52–54)

Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies

Back to the full scenario set 2 case

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-054

He needs to rest. Which position is MOST likely to ease his dyspnea?

  • A. Lying flat supine
  • B. Sitting leaning forward with his forearms supported on his thighs or a table
  • C. Standing upright with his arms at his sides
  • D. Lying prone
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A forward-leaning position with the arms supported improves the length-tension relationship of the flattened diaphragm and lets the accessory muscles work more effectively by stabilizing the shoulder girdle. Gosselink's review of breathing techniques in COPD lists forward leaning among the techniques with supporting evidence. Supine (A) and prone (D) positions are usually poorly tolerated by breathless patients, and standing with the arms unsupported (C) loses the accessory-muscle advantage.

Review next: energy conservation and paced breathing during daily activities.

Source: Gosselink R. Breathing techniques in patients with COPD. Chron Respir Dis. 2004

Scenario set 3: Questions 55–57

Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training

Question 55

Therapeutic Modalities · NPTEPT-FT-055

Which addition to her program is BEST supported by the APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline for improving quadriceps strength?

  • A. Continuous therapeutic ultrasound over the quadriceps
  • B. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) to the quadriceps, alongside exercise
  • C. Sensory-level transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
  • D. Moist heat before every session
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The 2026 APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline says physical therapists should apply NMES to the quadriceps after TKA, beginning early after surgery and using the highest tolerable intensity, to improve quadriceps strength, gait performance, and other performance-based outcomes. Her quadriceps lag and weak voluntary contraction make that recommendation directly relevant. Sensory-level TENS (C) may be used for pain in some patients, but it is not the strengthening intervention asked for here. Ultrasound (A) and moist heat (D) do not address the quadriceps activation deficit.

Review next: why quadriceps weakness after TKA is partly an activation problem, not just muscle size.

Source: Bove AM et al. Clinical practice guideline for physical therapist management of total knee arthroplasty: revision 2026. Phys Ther. 2026;106(7):pzag058

Question 56

Case recap: Scenario set 3 (Questions 55–57)

Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training

Back to the full scenario set 3 case

Musculoskeletal · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-056

A friend used a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine at home after her own knee replacement, and the patient asks whether she should rent one. What should the therapist tell her?

  • A. Yes; 6–8 hours of CPM a day is the best way to reach full flexion
  • B. Yes, but only overnight
  • C. CPM isn't recommended after a primary, uncomplicated TKA; she should focus on her active exercise program
  • D. CPM is required until she reaches 90° of flexion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The 2026 APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline gives a strong recommendation not to use continuous passive motion (CPM) after a primary, uncomplicated TKA. Evidence still does not show meaningful clinical benefit from routine CPM, while active range of motion, progressive strengthening, gait, and functional training address the outcomes she needs. A, B, and D incorrectly treat CPM as a routine requirement.

Review next: the treatments with the strongest support in the same guideline: preoperative exercise, cryotherapy, and motor function training.

Source: Bove AM et al. Clinical practice guideline for physical therapist management of total knee arthroplasty: revision 2026. Phys Ther. 2026;106(7):pzag058

Question 57

Case recap: Scenario set 3 (Questions 55–57)

Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training

Back to the full scenario set 3 case

Integumentary · Foundations · NPTEPT-FT-057

At her next visit, 2 days later, the lower end of the incision is redder than before, warm, and draining cloudy fluid. Her temperature is 100.9°F (38.3°C), and her knee pain has increased both at rest and with activity. What should the therapist do?

  • A. Apply a dry dressing and recheck at the next visit
  • B. Increase range-of-motion exercise to prevent stiffness from the swelling
  • C. Use ice and compression and continue the planned session
  • D. Hold the session and contact the surgeon right away about possible infection
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Increasing redness, drainage from the wound, a fever over 100°F, and pain at rest and with activity are the warning signs of infection after knee replacement that AAOS lists, with the instruction to tell the surgeon immediately. An infection around the implant threatens the joint replacement, so speed matters. A and C treat symptoms and delay care. More aggressive motion (B) doesn't address the cause.

Review next: other early complications to screen for after joint replacement, including deep vein thrombosis and wound separation.

Source: AAOS OrthoInfo, Total Knee Replacement

Scenario set 4: Questions 58–60

Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education

Question 58

Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems · Physical Therapy Examination · NPTEPT-FT-058

Which test is MOST appropriate to assess protective sensation in his feet?

  • A. 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament testing at standard plantar sites
  • B. Two-point discrimination on the fingertips
  • C. Ankle-brachial index
  • D. Romberg test with eyes closed
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. A 10-g monofilament is one of the standard clinical tests for protective sensation and is used to identify feet at risk for ulceration and amputation. The 2026 American Diabetes Association standards recommend 10-g monofilament testing as part of the neurologic foot examination. For a comprehensive evaluation of loss of protective sensation, the monofilament should be paired with another neurologic assessment such as pinprick, temperature, reflexes, or vibration. Two-point discrimination on the fingertips (B) tests the wrong site and function. The ankle-brachial index (C) assesses arterial perfusion, and the Romberg test (D) is a balance/proprioception test rather than a foot protective-sensation test.

Review next: the other parts of a diabetic foot screen: vibration sense, skin and nail inspection, footwear, and pulses.

Source: American Diabetes Association. Retinopathy, Neuropathy, and Foot Care: Standards of Care in Diabetes—2026

Question 59

Case recap: Scenario set 4 (Questions 58–60)

Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education

Back to the full scenario set 4 case

Equipment, Devices & Technologies · NPTEPT-FT-059

Which offloading approach should be the FIRST choice for his ulcer?

  • A. A cushioned running shoe with a gel insole
  • B. A removable ankle-high walking boot worn when he remembers
  • C. A nonremovable knee-high device, such as a total contact cast
  • D. A heel-offloading shoe
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The 2023 IWGDF offloading guideline strongly recommends a nonremovable knee-high offloading device as the first choice for a neuropathic plantar forefoot or midfoot ulcer, using either a total contact cast or a nonremovable knee-high walker depending on local resources. His ulcer shows no infection or poor blood flow that would change that choice. Removable devices (B) are the guideline's second choice; a device he can't take off protects the ulcer with every step. Ordinary shoes (A) don't relieve the pressure under the metatarsal head that keeps the ulcer open, and a heel-offloading shoe (D) unloads the wrong part of the foot.

Review next: how infection or ischemia changes offloading choices, and what to check when a total contact cast is applied.

Source: International Working Group on the Diabetic Foot. Guidelines on offloading foot ulcers in persons with diabetes (2023 update)

Question 60

Case recap: Scenario set 4 (Questions 58–60)

Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education

Back to the full scenario set 4 case

Metabolic & Endocrine · Interventions · NPTEPT-FT-060

He wants to keep exercising for his diabetes while the ulcer heals. Which plan is MOST appropriate?

  • A. Brisk walking for 30 minutes a day in his offloading device
  • B. Seated or supine aerobic and strengthening exercise, such as arm ergometry and seated resistance work, that puts no load on the ulcer
  • C. Treadmill jogging in cushioned shoes
  • D. Stop all exercise until the ulcer has healed
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A consensus on exercise for people with diabetes at risk of foot ulcers (Gracia-Sánchez et al., 2023) advises that someone with an open ulcer shouldn't put pressure on it or do exercise that loads that area, and that stretching and strengthening be done sitting or lying down. Walking for exercise (A) and jogging (C) add the repeated plantar loading that offloading is meant to remove. Stopping all exercise (D) gives up the benefits for glucose control and fitness when safe options exist.

Review next: how the exercise plan changes once the ulcer has healed and he returns to weight-bearing activity.

Source: Gracia-Sánchez A et al. Consensus-based recommendations on physical activity and exercise in patients with diabetes at risk of foot ulcerations: a Delphi study. Braz J Phys Ther. 2023;27(2):100500

Answer key and scoring by content area

Count your misses by content area as well as your total. Patterns across several misses can tell you what to review next; a small number of questions in one area is not a precise measure of your ability in that area.

# Answer Content area # Answer Content area
1 C Musculoskeletal 31 A Genitourinary
2 A Neuromuscular 32 C Research & EBP
3 B Cardiovascular & Pulmonary 33 D Musculoskeletal
4 D Musculoskeletal 34 B Neuromuscular
5 A Integumentary 35 A Equipment & Devices
6 C Neuromuscular 36 C Musculoskeletal
7 D Musculoskeletal 37 D System Interactions
8 B Safety & Protection 38 B Safety & Protection
9 C Musculoskeletal 39 A Musculoskeletal
10 A Neuromuscular 40 D Musculoskeletal
11 D System Interactions 41 B Cardiovascular & Pulmonary
12 B Musculoskeletal 42 C Gastrointestinal
13 A Neuromuscular 43 A Musculoskeletal
14 D Cardiovascular & Pulmonary 44 B Lymphatic
15 C Musculoskeletal 45 D System Interactions
16 B Lymphatic 46 C Cardiovascular & Pulmonary
17 D Neuromuscular 47 D Professional Responsibilities
18 B Gastrointestinal 48 A Research & EBP
19 A Musculoskeletal 49 C Neuromuscular (scenario)
20 C Therapeutic Modalities 50 B Neuromuscular (scenario)
21 D Neuromuscular 51 D Neuromuscular (scenario)
22 A Musculoskeletal 52 A Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario)
23 A Metabolic & Endocrine 53 C Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario)
24 C Neuromuscular 54 B Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario)
25 B Musculoskeletal 55 B Therapeutic Modalities (scenario)
26 D Cardiovascular & Pulmonary 56 C Musculoskeletal (scenario)
27 A Professional Responsibilities 57 D Integumentary (scenario)
28 C Musculoskeletal 58 A Neuromuscular (scenario)
29 B Neuromuscular 59 C Equipment & Devices (scenario)
30 D Integumentary 60 B Metabolic & Endocrine (scenario)

How the 60 questions are split

Content area Questions here Official scored items (of 180)
Musculoskeletal 16 44–54
Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems 13 39–48
Cardiovascular & Pulmonary 8 22–27
Integumentary 3 8–11
System Interactions 3 8–10
Lymphatic 2 4–7
Metabolic & Endocrine 2 4–6
Gastrointestinal 2 3–6
Genitourinary 1 2–5
Safety & Protection 2 5–7
Equipment, Devices & Technologies 2 5–6
Therapeutic Modalities 2 4–6
Professional Responsibilities 2 4–5
Research & Evidence-Based Practice 2 3–5
Total 60 180

Official ranges: FSBPT NPTE-PT Test Content Outline, effective January 2024. This 60-question set samples every published content area and emphasizes the three largest systems, but it is not an official mini-blueprint or a copy of any NPTE section.

What your score here means (and doesn't)

This is one original set of 60 questions, not a calibrated exam form, so a percentage here can't be converted to an NPTE scaled score. FSBPT scores the real exam on a 200–800 scale, with 600 needed to pass, and the number of correct answers needed for 600 shifts slightly from form to form. Use your results to find which areas cost you points, then study those first.

If you took it timed: 80 minutes for 60 questions is real exam pace (5 hours for 225 questions works out to 80 seconds per question). That's a pacing drill we worked out, not an official FSBPT section time. If you ran out of time, practice timed blocks before adding more content. If you finished early but missed a lot, slow down and read each stem fully.

After you score it: for each miss, decide whether you didn't know the fact, knew it but applied it wrong, misread the question, or rushed. Only the first problem is fixed by more reading.

How this test compares with the real NPTE-PT

Feature Real NPTE-PT This practice test
Written by Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) Castleport Test Prep (independent)
Length 225 questions in 5 sections of 45 60 questions
Scored items 180; the other 45 are unscored pretest questions mixed in All 60 have answers and explanations
Scenario questions At the end of each section, 2–5 questions per scenario Four scenario sets of 3 questions at the end
Time 5 hours of testing time in one block (5 hours 30 minutes at the test center) 80 minutes if you want to match pace
Scoring 200–800 scale, 600 to pass, no penalty for wrong answers Your count correct, by content area
Lab values FSBPT generally doesn't give reference ranges for typical lab values No lab reference ranges given either

On test day, answer every question. FSBPT doesn't take points away for wrong answers.

Where these questions come from

The Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team wrote every question on this page from published clinical sources, and each explanation names the source it relies on. None of these questions is a real, recalled, or leaked NPTE or PEAT item, and none was copied from another prep company.

That matters more than it might seem. FSBPT warns that "free" NPTE questions found online may be copyrighted questions taken from prep courses, PEAT, or the NPTE itself, and that using compromised questions can put candidates at risk of being denied the exam or having a passing score invalidated. If a site says it offers "real exam questions," that's a reason to close the tab.

Free practice vs. the FSBPT demo vs. PEAT

Feature This page FSBPT NPTE Demonstration Exam FSBPT PEAT
Made by Castleport Test Prep (independent) FSBPT FSBPT
Best for Content review by area, with explanations Learning the real test interface and tutorial Full-length timed practice from the exam owner
What's included 60 original questions, four scenario sets 12 sample PT questions and one PT scenario with 3 questions; not scored, answers listed Two timed 225-question PT exams: one practice form and one retired NPTE form
Cost Free, no signup Free $99 plus a 1.6% processing fee
Access Open on this page Online, from FSBPT's website 90 days from when you start your first exam, or until you pass

Links: FSBPT NPTE Demonstration Exam · FSBPT PEAT · NPTE-PT Test Content Outline

FAQ

Is this an official NPTE practice exam? No. These are original questions written to FSBPT's published content outline. FSBPT's official practice exams are its PEAT forms.

How many questions are on the real NPTE-PT? 225, in 5 sections of 45. Of those, 180 are scored and 45 are unscored pretest questions. The PTA exam is a separate test with its own content outline, so use PT-level resources for the PT exam.

Why does this test have 60 questions instead of 45 or 225? Sixty questions is large enough to sample every content area FSBPT lists, including the smaller ones, while still fitting in one study session. It is not a scaled-down official form. For full-length official practice, use FSBPT's PEAT.

Can I retake this test? Yes. Wait a few days, keep the explanations closed, and check whether you now pick the right answer for the right reason, not just from memory of this page.

Sources

Last verified November 3, 2026: exam format, scoring, pretest items, lab-value policy, content outline item ranges, PEAT details, the FSBPT demo exam, and FSBPT's guidance on free online questions. Each question's source is linked in its explanation.


Castleport Test Prep is an independent publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT). NPTE and other exam and credential names identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. The practice questions on this page are original and are not official exam questions. Clinical content is for exam study, not patient care decisions. Prepared by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.

Free NPTE-PT Practice Test: 60 Questions With Answers