Free NREMT EMT Practice Test
This free NREMT EMT practice test has 52 original, unofficial questions, including the multiple-response and ordering formats NREMT now uses. Answer each one, then check the explanation and its source—there's no signup.
Practice questions
Question 1
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-01
You're the first unit at a two-car crash on a dark highway shoulder. Traffic is still moving in the adjacent lane, and a driver is screaming for help. What should you do before approaching the vehicles?
- A. Begin a primary assessment of the screaming driver
- B. Call medical direction to decide who to treat first
- C. Apply cervical collars to each occupant
- D. Put on high-visibility, retroreflective apparel and assess traffic and other hazards
Show answer and explanation — Question 1
Answer: D. Scene safety comes first, and near roadways at night that includes high-visibility, retroreflective apparel. A screaming patient is breathing and has an airway; you can't help anyone if you're struck. Collars and medical direction come later, if at all.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 9 (Universal Care 1, 3).
Question 2
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-02
An adult man is unresponsive on the floor. He takes an occasional gasping breath. What is your next action?
- A. Check for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds and start compressions if you don't definitely feel one
- B. Place him in the recovery position because he is breathing
- C. Give 2 rescue breaths, then check for a pulse
- D. Check for a pulse for a full 30 seconds to avoid compressing someone with a pulse
Show answer and explanation — Question 2
Answer: A. Gasping is abnormal breathing. Healthcare professionals check a pulse for no more than 10 seconds and start CPR if no definite pulse is felt. The recovery position treats gasping as normal breathing; 30-second checks delay CPR; breaths-first is the old ABC sequence.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §6.1, §6.2.
Question 3
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-03
A conscious adult at a restaurant can't speak or cough and is clutching her throat. Per the 2025 AHA guidelines, what should you do?
- A. Perform a finger sweep to find the object
- B. Give abdominal thrusts only until the object comes out
- C. Repeat cycles of 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts until the object comes out or she becomes unresponsive
- D. Lay her down and begin chest compressions while she's still conscious
Show answer and explanation — Question 3
Answer: C. This is severe obstruction. The 2025 adult guideline changed to alternating 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts. Infants receive chest thrusts rather than abdominal thrusts. Abdominal-thrusts-only is the older teaching. Blind finger sweeps can push the object deeper. Compressions start only once she becomes unresponsive.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support Top 10 #9, §§10.1–10.2; AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support §6.3, recommendations 2–3.
Question 4
Secondary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-04
A 70-year-old woman woke at 06:15 with right-sided weakness and slurred speech. Her husband says she was normal when they went to bed at 22:00. What time is her "last known well"?
- A. 06:15, when symptoms were found
- B. 22:00 the night before
- C. The time EMS arrived
- D. It can't be determined, so it isn't documented
Show answer and explanation — Question 4
Answer: B. Last known well is the last time she was seen at her normal baseline. If she was last known well before bed, that bedtime is documented, not the time she woke with symptoms. It drives eligibility for stroke treatments, so it must be specific.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 48 Assessment 3(a); p. 49 Treatment 1; p. 50 Key Documentation Elements.
Question 5
Secondary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-05
A patient with abdominal pain says it hurts more when the ambulance hits bumps. Which part of OPQRST does this answer?
- A. Onset
- B. Provocation
- C. Quality
- D. Radiation
Show answer and explanation — Question 5
Answer: B. Provocation covers what makes the pain better or worse. Onset is when it started; quality describes how it feels (sharp, dull); radiation is where it spreads.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 12 (OPQRST).
Question 6
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-06
An injured adult doesn't respond when you speak loudly. When you pinch the trapezius muscle, he moans and opens his eyes. How do you record his level of responsiveness on the AVPU scale?
- A. A — Alert
- B. V — Verbal
- C. P — Painful
- D. U — Unresponsive
Show answer and explanation — Question 6
Answer: C. He responds only to a painful stimulus. "V" requires a response to your voice. (The national model guidelines also discourage the sternal rub as a stimulus.)
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 10–11.
Question 7
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose 2 answers · EMT-07
Direct pressure hasn't controlled bright-red bleeding from a deep wound in the middle of a patient's thigh, and you apply a tourniquet. Which two actions are correct?
- A. Place the tourniquet at least 2–3 inches above (proximal to) the wound
- B. Place it directly over the knee for a firmer anchor
- C. Loosen it every 10 minutes to let blood reach the leg
- D. Note and record the time it was applied
- E. Apply it over thick clothing even when bare skin is easy to reach
Show answer and explanation — Question 7
Answer: A and D. Tourniquets go at minimum 2–3 inches proximal to the wound, never over the elbow, wrist, knee or ankle, preferably on bare skin. Do not periodically loosen it to restore circulation, and record the time so the receiving team knows how long it's been on.
Source: ACS-COT/ACEP/NAEMSP, Prehospital Hemorrhage Control and Treatment by Clinicians (2023) Points of Consensus 4.I(a, c, f–g), 4.IV and Pitfalls (viii); accepted-manuscript PDF pp. 4–6.
Question 8
Cross-domain practice — unofficial · Choose one answer · EMT-08
A 12-year-old at school has hives, wheezing and swollen lips. Staff can't reach either parent. No parent, legal guardian, or other legally authorized decision-maker is available, and care cannot safely wait. Under the National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines’ emergency-exception principle, what supports treatment and transport?
- A. You must wait until a parent gives consent
- B. She may consent for herself because she is over 10
- C. The school nurse can sign a refusal on the parents' behalf
- D. The emergency exception (implied consent), because her condition is an immediate threat and a parent is unavailable
Show answer and explanation — Question 8
Answer: D. When a minor has an emergency that threatens life or health, the guardian is unavailable, and care can't safely wait, EMS may presume consent and provide emergency treatment and transport. Waiting could be fatal; being the school nurse alone does not establish authority to refuse care for her, and age 12 alone does not establish authority to consent. Apply applicable law and local protocol.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 23–24, Special Considerations—Minors.
Question 9
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-09
At a mass-casualty incident using START, an adult can't walk and is breathing 36 times a minute. Which category does she get?
- A. Minor (green)
- B. Delayed (yellow)
- C. Immediate (red)
- D. Expectant (black)
Show answer and explanation — Question 9
Answer: C. START uses respiratory rate early in its adult triage algorithm. A rate over 30 signals breathing compromise, which is Immediate: she needs care within minutes. Minor is for the walking wounded; Delayed patients have serious injuries but stable airway, breathing and circulation.
Source: HHS CHEMM, START Adult Triage Algorithm adult START respiratory branch; LAFD START materials pp. 3–5.
Question 10
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-10
A young adult is unresponsive with a syringe nearby. He isn't breathing, but you feel a strong carotid pulse. What is the best immediate care?
- A. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask at 1 breath every 6 seconds and give naloxone per protocol
- B. Start chest compressions at 30:2
- C. Give naloxone and wait for him to start breathing before ventilating
- D. Ventilate at 1 breath every 2–3 seconds
Show answer and explanation — Question 10
Answer: A. This is respiratory arrest with a pulse. Adults get 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min), and the AHA's 2025 healthcare BLS algorithm includes an opioid antagonist for suspected opioid overdose. Compressions aren't indicated while he has a definite pulse. Waiting on naloxone leaves him hypoxic. Every 2–3 seconds is the infant/child rate.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §8.3; AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 10: Special Circumstances of Resuscitation §21.11, recommendations 1, 3–4; AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support §6.2; National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019 p. 36.
Question 11
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-11
A responsive 7-month-old is choking and can't cry or make any sound. What should you do?
- A. Give 5 abdominal thrusts, then 5 back blows
- B. Do a blind finger sweep, then give back blows
- C. Repeat cycles of 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts
- D. Hold the infant upside down by the ankles
Show answer and explanation — Question 11
Answer: C. Responsive infants with severe obstruction get alternating 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts. Abdominal thrusts are not recommended for infants because of the risk of abdominal organ injury, and blind finger sweeps are harmful.
Source: AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support §6.3, recommendations 2, 4, 7.
Question 12
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-12
A motorcyclist is unresponsive after hitting a guardrail. You hear snoring respirations. How should you open the airway?
- A. Head tilt–chin lift
- B. Jaw thrust without head extension
- C. Insert a nasal airway without opening the airway first
- D. Turn the head to the side
Show answer and explanation — Question 12
Answer: B. With head and neck trauma, trained rescuers use a jaw thrust without head extension, which moves the neck less. If a jaw thrust plus an airway adjunct doesn't open the airway, switch to head tilt–chin lift, because airway patency outweighs the spinal risk.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §6.3 (Head and Neck Trauma).
Question 13
Primary Assessment · Choose 3 answers · EMT-13
You're screening an adult for stroke with the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale. Which three findings are positive signs on this scale?
- A. One side of the face droops when the patient smiles
- B. Unequal radial pulses
- C. One arm drifts down when both are held out with eyes closed
- D. Slurred or wrong words when repeating a simple sentence
- E. A headache that eased after resting
- F. An oxygen saturation of 95%
Show answer and explanation — Question 13
Answer: A, C and D. Facial smile/grimace, arm drift and speech are the three classic screening elements. Pulse symmetry, a resolved headache and a normal SpO2 aren't findings on this scale.
Source: AHA and American Red Cross 2024 Guidelines for First Aid §6.2, recommendation 2 and supportive text 2; NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 48 Assessment 1.
Question 14
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-14
A diabetic man is drowsy but awake, follows commands and can swallow. His blood glucose is 52 mg/dL. Your protocol includes oral glucose. What should you do?
- A. Place oral glucose between his cheek and gum even if he becomes unresponsive
- B. Withhold glucose until a hospital confirms the reading
- C. Ask him to take his own insulin
- D. Give oral glucose
Show answer and explanation — Question 14
Answer: D. He's awake and able to swallow, so oral glucose is appropriate. Oral glucose should not be given to anyone who isn't awake or can't swallow, because of aspiration risk. Insulin lowers glucose further.
Source: AHA and American Red Cross 2024 Guidelines for First Aid §6.7; NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 10 (glucose <60 mg/dL); National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019 p. 36.
Question 15
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-15
A 72-year-old fell in her kitchen. She's alert, pulse 88, blood pressure 104/70. Per the national field triage guideline, where should she go?
- A. The highest-level trauma center available within the geographic constraints of the regional trauma system, because her systolic BP is under 110 for her age
- B. The nearest emergency department, since her BP is above 90
- C. Transport is optional because the fall was from standing height
- D. Any hospital, because age doesn't change trauma triage
Show answer and explanation — Question 15
Answer: A. For patients 65 and older, the red (high-risk) criteria use a systolic BP under 110 (or heart rate higher than systolic BP). A red criterion means transport to the highest-level trauma center available within the geographic constraints of the regional trauma system. The 90 mm Hg threshold applies to ages 10–64.
Source: National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients (2021) red physiologic criteria and red destination box.
Question 16
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-16
A 6-year-old hit by a car has a systolic blood pressure of 78 mm Hg. How should you interpret it?
- A. Normal, because it's above 70
- B. Only hypotensive below 90
- C. Hypotensive, because it's below 70 + (2 × 6) = 82
- D. Blood pressure can't be interpreted in children under 10
Show answer and explanation — Question 16
Answer: C. For ages 1–10, hypotension is a systolic BP below 70 + (2 × age in years). For a 6-year-old that's 82, so 78 is low. Children compensate well, then decompensate fast, so recognize this early.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 16 Table 1 note; p. 110 Key Considerations 4; p. 211 Patient Safety Considerations 2(a); National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients (2021) pediatric age 6 physiologic criterion.
Question 17
Cross-domain practice — unofficial · Mark each row · EMT-17
For this question, your agency’s refusal workflow requires further assessment and medical-direction assistance when a patient has reported suicidal intent during this encounter or decision-making capacity is uncertain. For each person, choose Continue the informed-refusal process or Continue assessment and obtain medical-direction assistance.
| Person | Continue the informed-refusal process | Continue assessment and obtain medical-direction assistance |
|---|---|---|
| 1. An alert, oriented 45-year-old who can explain back the risks of refusing, with decision-making capacity confirmed by assessment | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 2. An adult who told you earlier that he wanted to end his life today | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 3. An adult who smells of alcohol, has slurred speech and can't repeat back the risks | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 4. The legally authorized parent of a 6-year-old with a minor cut, who understands the risks and declines transport for the child; assessment finds no immediate threat to the child | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
Show answer and explanation — Question 17
Answer:
- Row 1: Continue the informed-refusal process
- Row 2: Continue assessment and obtain medical-direction assistance
- Row 3: Continue assessment and obtain medical-direction assistance
- Row 4: Continue the informed-refusal process
Refusal requires decision-making capacity: alert, oriented, understanding the situation and risks, with judgment not impaired by illness, injury, drugs or alcohol. Under the supplied workflow, reported suicidal intent or inability to understand the risks requires further assessment and medical-direction assistance. Authority for involuntary care depends on applicable law and protocol. A parent or legal guardian may make decisions for a minor within applicable law; verify that authority and assess the child's immediate risk. Document the discussion either way.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 23–25.
Question 18
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-18
You're doing CPR on a 4-month-old. Which compression technique does the 2025 AHA guideline recommend?
- A. Two fingers in the center of the chest
- B. Heel of one hand on the sternum, or the 2-thumb–encircling hands technique
- C. Two hands stacked, as for an adult
- D. Compressions on the upper third of the sternum with the fingertips
Show answer and explanation — Question 18
Answer: B. The 2025 pediatric guideline eliminated the 2-finger technique because it doesn't achieve proper depth. Use the heel of one hand or 2 thumbs with hands encircling the chest; if you can't encircle the chest, use the heel of one hand.
Source: AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support Top 10 #8, §7.3.
Question 19
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-19
An unresponsive assault victim has bruising behind both ears and clear fluid draining from the nose. He has no gag reflex. Which airway adjunct is preferred?
- A. Nasopharyngeal airway
- B. Neither; adjuncts are never used in trauma
- C. Either; there's no difference
- D. Oropharyngeal airway
Show answer and explanation — Question 19
Answer: D. These findings suggest a basal skull fracture. An oropharyngeal airway is preferred because a nasal airway risks passage into the skull. An OPA also requires that there's no gag reflex, which is true here.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §6.3 (Rec. 2–3 and synopsis).
Question 20
Secondary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-20
A 24-year-old woman has lower abdominal pain and feels dizzy when she stands. During your history, which question is most important to add?
- A. "Could you be pregnant, and when was your last period?"
- B. "Have you ever had your appendix out?"
- C. "Do you have health insurance?"
- D. "What did you have for dinner last week?"
Show answer and explanation — Question 20
Answer: A. For women of childbearing age, ask about possible or recent pregnancy. Abdominal pain with dizziness raises concern for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, a life-threatening cause of internal bleeding.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 12 SAMPLE 10(d)(iii); p. 51; pp. 175–176 OB/GYN Conditions.
Question 21
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-21
During a winter power outage you're sent to an apartment for a "sick person." Three family members have headaches and nausea, and you start to feel lightheaded inside the doorway. Your crew has gloves and N95 respirators but no gas monitor or breathing apparatus. What should you do first?
- A. Put on N95 respirators and continue assessing everyone inside
- B. Take SAMPLE histories from each patient before moving anyone
- C. Leave, bring out patients who can move with you, and request fire department resources
- D. Open a window and continue your assessment inside
Show answer and explanation — Question 21
Answer: C. Several people with the same symptoms, plus symptoms in you, point to an atmospheric hazard such as carbon monoxide. Get yourself and anyone who can move out of it, and call for a resource equipped to enter. An N95 filters particles, not gases, so it doesn't make this room safe. An open window doesn't make it safe either. Once patients are outside, remember that a standard pulse oximeter isn't accurate when carbon monoxide is bound to hemoglobin, so a normal SpO2 doesn't rule it out.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 9 (Universal Care 1a–e); NIOSH, Filtering Facepiece Respirators (Overview); CDC, Clinical Guidance for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning (situations to consider CO; pulse oximetry).
Question 22
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-22
An adult with shortness of breath has an SpO2 of 89% on room air. Under the National Model EMS Universal Care guideline, and with no condition requiring a different target, what oxygen saturation should you target?
- A. 100% for every patient
- B. 94–98%
- C. No oxygen until the saturation falls below 85%
- D. 88–92% for every patient
Show answer and explanation — Question 22
Answer: B. National model guidelines target 94–98%, titrated to the patient's condition, using a delivery method that won't worsen hypoventilation. Blanket 100% or withholding until 85% are both wrong, and a single lower target isn't applied to every patient.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 10 Assessment 5(b)(ii); p. 12 Treatment 1; p. 14 Key Considerations 4(a).
Question 23
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-23
A 60-year-old has crushing chest pain and sweating. Your protocol includes aspirin, and he has no aspirin allergy. He is alert, can chew and swallow safely, and has no other contraindication under your protocol. What should you give?
- A. Enteric-coated aspirin, swallowed whole
- B. Aspirin only if his pain is from a blow to the chest
- C. Nothing until a 12-lead confirms a STEMI
- D. Chewable, non-enteric-coated aspirin, 162–325 mg
Show answer and explanation — Question 23
Answer: D. Chewable, non-enteric-coated aspirin is preferred because it works faster. Don't delay it for a 12-lead. Aspirin is deferred for chest pain unlikely to be cardiac, such as blunt chest trauma.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 31–32; National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019 p. 36; 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for Acute Coronary Syndromes §4.3.1 supportive text 1 and Table 7, PDF pp. 18–19 (e18–e19).
Question 24
Primary Assessment · Put the steps in order · EMT-24
For a patient who isn't in cardiac arrest and has no massive bleeding, put the primary survey in order using the National Model EMS Universal Care guideline's ABCDE framework:
- A. Disability (responsiveness, glucose if altered)
- B. Breathing
- C. Expose and keep warm
- D. Airway
- E. Circulation
Show answer and explanation — Question 24
Correct order: D (Airway) → B (Breathing) → E (Circulation) → A (Disability (responsiveness, glucose if altered)) → C (Expose and keep warm).
The national model follows ABC(DE) by default. Examples that change priorities include cardiac arrest (compressions first, CAB) and massive hemorrhage (bleeding control first, MARCH).
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 9–10, Universal Care Assessment 5.
Question 25
Operations · Choose one answer · EMT-25
Which statement about using lights and siren matches national model EMS guidelines?
- A. Routine use isn't warranted, and even when used, speed must stay safe for the vehicle and road
- B. Use them on every transport to reduce transport time
- C. They let you drive at any speed
- D. Use them only on the way back to the station
Show answer and explanation — Question 25
Answer: A. Routine lights-and-siren use isn't warranted. When they're used, speed still has to suit the vehicle and road conditions.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 13 (Patient Safety Considerations 1–2).
Question 26
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-26
A 4-year-old has a pulse but is barely breathing. How often should you give breaths?
- A. 1 breath every 6 seconds
- B. 1 breath every 10 seconds
- C. 1 breath every 2–3 seconds
- D. 2 breaths every 30 compressions
Show answer and explanation — Question 26
Answer: C. Infants and children with a pulse but inadequate breathing get 1 breath every 2–3 seconds (20–30/min). Every 6 seconds is the adult rate; 30:2 is a single-rescuer CPR ratio without an advanced airway.
Source: AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support §6.2; §7.2 recommendation 9; Figure 10.
Question 27
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-27
Which patient meets an indication for spinal motion restriction?
- A. A man with a stab wound to the neck and no neurologic deficits
- B. An alert, sober adult who fell from a ladder and has midline neck tenderness
- C. An alert, sober adult walking at the scene with no spinal pain or tenderness, a normal neuro exam and no distracting injury
- D. A patient with an isolated finger laceration
Show answer and explanation — Question 27
Answer: B. After blunt trauma, midline neck or back pain or tenderness is an indication. There's no role for spinal motion restriction in penetrating trauma, and an alert, sober patient with no spinal findings or distracting injury doesn't need it.
Source: ACS-COT/ACEP/NAEMSP, Spinal Motion Restriction in the Trauma Patient (2018) (points 4 and 9).
Question 28
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose 2 answers · EMT-28
Which two belong in scene size-up?
- A. Determine the number of patients
- B. Obtain a SAMPLE history
- C. Determine the mechanism of injury or nature of illness
- D. Check blood glucose
- E. Perform a detailed head-to-toe exam
Show answer and explanation — Question 28
Answer: A and C. Scene size-up includes hazards, PPE, number of patients, mechanism or nature of illness and resource needs. SAMPLE, glucose and a detailed exam come later in assessment.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 9; NREMT EMT Examination Specifications (test plan) (Scene Size-Up tasks).
Question 29
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-29
On the Glasgow Coma Scale, an adult patient who does not follow commands reaches up and pushes your hand away when you apply pressure to the trapezius. What is the best motor score?
- A. 6
- B. 5
- C. 4
- D. 3
Show answer and explanation — Question 29
Answer: B. Localizing pain (purposefully moving toward or pushing away the stimulus) scores 5. Obeying commands is 6; withdrawing from pain is 4; abnormal flexion is 3.
Source: Glasgow Coma Scale Assessment Aid Rate and Best motor response; NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 17 Table 2.
Question 30
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-30
A man with chest pain has a BP of 138/84. Your protocol lets you assist with his prescribed nitroglycerin. He mentions taking tadalafil (Cialis) yesterday afternoon, about 20 hours ago. What should you do?
- A. Assist with nitroglycerin now, because his systolic BP is over 100
- B. Give it only if his pain is severe
- C. Give half a dose to be safe
- D. Withhold nitroglycerin and report the tadalafil use to the receiving team
Show answer and explanation — Question 30
Answer: D. Tadalafil taken 20 hours ago is a reason to withhold nitroglycerin because the combination can cause severe hypotension. The tadalafil label requires at least 48 hours before nitrate administration is even considered in a life-threatening situation, with close medical supervision and monitoring. A normal BP doesn't remove that risk.
Source: DailyMed, Tadalafil prescribing information §§4.1, 5.1.
Question 31
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-31
A 3-month-old has a heart rate of 50, is pale and limp, and has delayed capillary refill despite effective ventilation with oxygen. What should you do?
- A. Begin chest compressions
- B. Keep ventilating and recheck in 5 minutes
- C. Give oral glucose
- D. Place the infant in the recovery position
Show answer and explanation — Question 31
Answer: A. For infants, a heart rate under 60 with signs of poor perfusion despite effective ventilation and oxygenation is an indication for chest compressions, even with a pulse. Use 15:2 with two rescuers without an advanced airway.
Source: AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support Figure 10 and §7.2 recommendation 9.
Question 32
Secondary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-32
An 18-month-old has had vomiting and diarrhea since yesterday. Her airway is clear, she's breathing without distress, and her color is good. You begin your focused history with her father. Which answer would most directly help you judge whether she's dehydrated?
- A. Whether she's received all of her routine vaccinations
- B. Her birth weight
- C. When her last wet diaper was, and whether she makes tears when she cries
- D. Whether she has started attending daycare
Show answer and explanation — Question 32
Answer: C. No wet diapers for 3 hours or more and crying without tears are listed signs of dehydration in infants and young children. Vaccination history, birth weight and daycare can matter elsewhere in a full history, but none of them tells you how much fluid she has lost.
Source: NIDDK, Symptoms & Causes of Diarrhea (Dehydration) (Dehydration: signs in infants, toddlers and young children); NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 12 (SAMPLE history).
Question 33
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-33
You arrive alone in one ambulance at a van rollover with five injured occupants. The scene is safe. What should you do next?
- A. Start full care on the first patient you reach
- B. Request additional resources and consider declaring a mass-casualty incident
- C. Transport the most critical patient immediately and return for the rest
- D. Wait for a supervisor before doing anything
Show answer and explanation — Question 33
Answer: B. Determining the number of patients is part of scene size-up so you can call for help early. With more patients than you can manage, request resources and consider an MCI declaration before committing to one patient.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 9 (1c, 1e, 1f).
Question 34
Primary Assessment · Mark each row · EMT-34
Choose Start chest compressions now or Do not start compressions now.
| Patient | Start now | Do not start now |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Unresponsive adult, only gasping, no definite pulse after 10 seconds | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 2. Unresponsive adult, not breathing, strong carotid pulse | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 3. Infant, HR 50 with poor perfusion despite effective ventilation and oxygen | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 4. Adult with severe foreign-body airway obstruction who just became unresponsive | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
| 5. Alert adult with chest pain and a regular pulse | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
Show answer and explanation — Question 34
Answer:
- Row 1: Start now
- Row 2: Do not start now
- Row 3: Start now
- Row 4: Start now
- Row 5: Do not start now
Patient 2 needs ventilation (1 breath every 6 s), not compressions. An adult whose severe foreign-body obstruction leads to unresponsiveness gets CPR starting with compressions, which can help expel the object. The infant meets the HR-under-60-with-poor-perfusion rule despite effective ventilation and oxygenation. Patient 1 meets the recognition criteria for cardiac arrest. Patient 5 is alert with a pulse and does not need compressions.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §§6.1, 8.3, 10.2; AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support Figure 10.
Question 35
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-35
You and your partner are doing CPR on a 5-year-old without an advanced airway. What compression-to-ventilation ratio should you use?
- A. 30:2
- B. Continuous compressions with no breaths
- C. 5:1
- D. 15:2
Show answer and explanation — Question 35
Answer: D. With two rescuers, infants and children get 15:2. A single rescuer uses 30:2. Ventilation matters especially in children because most pediatric arrests are respiratory in origin.
Source: AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support §7.2 (Rec. 9), Major Concepts.
Question 36
Operations · Choose one answer · EMT-36
At the ED, the nurse is ready to take your patient but your electronic report isn't finished. What's correct?
- A. Give a verbal report and an abbreviated written report now, then complete the full patient care report
- B. Leave without giving information; the report will arrive later
- C. A good verbal report means you don't need to finish a written report
- D. Keep the patient on your stretcher until the report is done
Show answer and explanation — Question 36
Answer: A. If the full record can't be provided at transfer, give a verbal and abbreviated written report. That doesn't replace the requirement to complete the full electronic or written record.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 12–13 (Transfer of Care 3–5).
Question 37
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-37
Approaching a sick toddler, you form a first impression from across the room using the pediatric assessment triangle. What are its three parts?
- A. Airway, breathing, circulation
- B. Pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate
- C. Appearance, work of breathing, circulation (to the skin)
- D. Alertness, verbal response, pain response
Show answer and explanation — Question 37
Answer: C. The pediatric assessment triangle lets you judge how sick a child is before touching them: appearance, work of breathing and circulation (skin color). Option D lists only part of AVPU; U means unresponsive.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 10 Assessment 5(d)(i); p. 13 Key Considerations 1(b).
Question 38
Cross-domain practice — unofficial · Sort each item into a category · EMT-38
Using the 2019 National EMS Scope of Practice Model, sort each skill into Within the national EMT scope or Beyond EMT (AEMT/paramedic level):
- A. CPAP
- B. Nasopharyngeal airway
- C. Acquiring and transmitting a 12-lead ECG
- D. Inhaled bronchodilator for wheezing
- E. Intraosseous access
- F. Endotracheal intubation
- G. Starting a peripheral IV
- H. Interpreting a 12-lead ECG
Show answer and explanation — Question 38
Answer:
- Within the national EMT scope: A (CPAP); B (Nasopharyngeal airway); C (Acquiring and transmitting a 12-lead ECG); D (Inhaled bronchodilator for wheezing)
- Beyond EMT (AEMT/paramedic level): E (Intraosseous access); F (Endotracheal intubation); G (Starting a peripheral IV); H (Interpreting a 12-lead ECG)
This sort follows the 2019 National EMS Scope of Practice Model; your state may add or restrict skills.
Source: National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019 pp. 32, 33, 35, 36, 37.
Question 39
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-39
An adult is coughing forcefully after a bite of steak and can say a few words. What should you do?
- A. Begin back blows immediately
- B. Let him keep coughing while you watch for signs of severe obstruction
- C. Give abdominal thrusts
- D. Do a finger sweep
Show answer and explanation — Question 39
Answer: B. Forceful coughing and the ability to speak mean mild obstruction. Let him clear it by coughing, and act if it becomes severe (weak or no cough, can't speak).
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §10.1 (Rec. 3 and synopsis).
Question 40
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-40
On a call for "man down," the patient stands up and threatens your crew with a knife. What should you do?
- A. Try to take the knife away
- B. Restrain him with straps and continue care
- C. Continue the assessment while your partner talks to him
- D. Retreat to a safe location and request law enforcement
Show answer and explanation — Question 40
Answer: D. Don't put yourself in danger to treat or transport someone. Withdraw to safety and request law enforcement, then reassess when the scene is secured.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 24 (Key Considerations 5); NREMT EMT Examination Specifications (test plan) (Scene Size-Up: protect self and others).
Question 41
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-41
A patient has chest pressure and nausea. Your unit has a 12-lead monitor and your protocol lets EMTs acquire and transmit ECGs. What's the time goal for the 12-lead?
- A. Within 10 minutes of patient contact
- B. Within 30 minutes
- C. Only after arrival at the hospital
- D. Only if the pain gets worse
Show answer and explanation — Question 41
Answer: A. The 12-lead is the main tool that identifies a STEMI, and the national model sets a goal of acquiring one within 10 minutes for patients with signs of ACS. Acquisition and transmission are within national EMT scope; interpretation is not.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 31, 33; National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019 p. 33.
Question 42
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-42
Which describes high-quality chest compressions for an average adult?
- A. At least 3 inches deep, as fast as possible
- B. About 1.5 inches deep, 80–100 per minute
- C. At least 2 inches deep but not more than 2.4 inches, 100–120 per minute, full chest recoil
- D. 2 inches deep, 100–120 per minute, leaning on the chest between compressions
Show answer and explanation — Question 42
Answer: C. Compress at least 2 in (5 cm) while avoiding more than 2.4 in (6 cm), at 100–120/min, and let the chest recoil completely; leaning reduces blood flow.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §7.3.
Question 43
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-43
Which patient is appropriate for an oropharyngeal airway?
- A. A responsive patient with a strong gag reflex
- B. An unresponsive patient with no cough or gag reflex
- C. A patient talking in full sentences
- D. A patient who keeps gagging when you try to insert it
Show answer and explanation — Question 43
Answer: B. An OPA is used in unconscious patients with no cough or gag reflex. An intact gag reflex is a contraindication; if the patient gags, remove it.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §6.3 (Rec. 3 and synopsis).
Question 44
Secondary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-44
A patient with an ankle injury is stable for a 20-minute transport. Which reassessment plan matches national model guidelines?
- A. One set of vital signs is enough for any stable patient
- B. No vitals are needed for isolated extremity injuries
- C. Vital signs every minute
- D. At least two sets of vital signs, ideally one shortly before arrival
Show answer and explanation — Question 44
Answer: D. Stable patients should have at least two sets of pertinent vitals, ideally one shortly before arrival. Critical patients need frequent monitoring.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 11 (8d–e).
Question 45
Cross-domain practice — unofficial · Sort each item into a category · EMT-45
Sort each action into Scene size-up or Primary assessment:
- A. Evaluate for hazards
- B. Assess airway patency
- C. Determine the number of patients
- D. Identify life-threatening external bleeding
- E. Determine mechanism of injury
- F. Check responsiveness with AVPU
Show answer and explanation — Question 45
Answer:
- Scene size-up: A (Evaluate for hazards); C (Determine the number of patients); E (Determine mechanism of injury)
- Primary assessment: B (Assess airway patency); D (Identify life-threatening external bleeding); F (Check responsiveness with AVPU)
Scene size-up addresses hazards, patient count and the likely mechanism. Primary assessment checks the patient's airway, circulation and responsiveness. Entry D asks you to identify the bleeding; it does not mean bleeding control should wait.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) pp. 9–10; NREMT EMT Examination Specifications (test plan) pp. 2–3, domain task lists.
Question 46
Primary Assessment · Choose one answer · EMT-46
A confused man with diabetes has a blood glucose of 48 mg/dL. How should you interpret this?
- A. It's below 60 mg/dL, so treat him for hypoglycemia per protocol
- B. It's normal for someone with diabetes
- C. Treat only if it's below 30 mg/dL
- D. Assume a stroke and don't address the glucose
Show answer and explanation — Question 46
Answer: A. The national model uses below 60 mg/dL to trigger the hypoglycemia guideline. Low glucose is a common stroke mimic, so check it in anyone with altered mental status or stroke signs.
Source: NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 10 (Disability iii), p. 49.
Question 47
Cross-domain practice — unofficial · Choose one answer · EMT-47
A patient says the accompanying dog is a service animal. The dog wears no vest, and its task is not obvious. Under the ADA, what may you ask to establish its status?
- A. For the dog's certification papers
- B. Nothing; you must leave the dog behind
- C. Only whether the dog is required because of a disability and what task it's trained to perform
- D. Whether the dog is an emotional support animal, so it can come along
Show answer and explanation — Question 47
Answer: C. Service animals aren't required to wear vests or carry ID, and requesting documentation isn't allowed. When the dog's service role is not obvious, you may ask only whether it's needed because of a disability and what task it performs. Emotional-support-only animals don't qualify as service animals under the ADA.
Source: U.S. Department of Justice, Service Animals and the ADA FAQ FAQ Q3, Q7, Q8.
Question 48
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-48
You find an adult in cardiac arrest on a living-room floor. There's enough room to work safely. Where should you start CPR?
- A. In the ambulance, after moving him
- B. Where he's found
- C. Outside, on the driveway
- D. On his bed, so he's more comfortable
Show answer and explanation — Question 48
Answer: B. Resuscitate where the patient is found if high-quality CPR can be done safely. Moving delays compressions. A firm surface is preferred when feasible without delaying compressions.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support Top 10 #1, §7.1.
Question 49
Patient Treatment and Transport · Put the steps in order · EMT-49
You're off duty in an office building with your phone when you find an adult who is unresponsive, only gasping, with no definite pulse. One bystander has run to get the building's AED, and no one else is with you. When the AED arrives, it advises a shock. Put your actions in order:
- A. Resume chest compressions immediately after the shock
- B. Begin chest compressions
- C. Attach the AED as soon as it arrives and deliver the advised shock, following its prompts
- D. Call 911 on speakerphone
Show answer and explanation — Question 49
Correct order: D (Call 911 on speakerphone) → B (Begin chest compressions) → C (Attach the AED as soon as it arrives and deliver the advised shock, following its prompts) → A (Resume chest compressions immediately after the shock).
A lone responder activates emergency response first, then starts CPR (a speakerphone lets you do both almost at once). CPR continues until the AED is applied, and compressions resume right after a shock rather than pausing for a rhythm or pulse check.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §6.2 (Rec. 2–3), §9.2, §7.2 (Rec. 3).
Question 50
Scene Size-Up and Safety · Choose one answer · EMT-50
At an adult START triage scene, you tell everyone who can walk to move to a designated area. How are those patients initially categorized?
- A. Minor (green)
- B. Delayed (yellow)
- C. Immediate (red)
- D. Expectant (black)
Show answer and explanation — Question 50
Answer: A. Ability to walk is the first START sort; walking patients are initially minor. Reassess them, because a walking patient can still deteriorate.
Source: HHS CHEMM, START Adult Triage Algorithm adult START walking/secondary-triage branch; linked LAFD PDF pp. 3, 5; LAFD START materials pp. 3–5.
Question 51
Patient Treatment and Transport · Choose one answer · EMT-51
A 58-year-old responds only to pain. His breathing is 6 per minute and shallow, SpO2 82%, with a strong radial pulse. What's the best immediate care?
- A. Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min only
- B. Place him in the recovery position and monitor
- C. Nasal cannula at 4 L/min
- D. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask at 1 breath every 6 seconds with supplemental oxygen
Show answer and explanation — Question 51
Answer: D. His shallow breathing is inadequate; supplemental oxygen alone does not provide ventilation. Assist with a BVM at the adult rate of 10 breaths a minute.
Source: AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 7: Adult Basic Life Support §8.3; NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines v3.0 (2022) p. 14, bradypnea.
Question 52
Operations · Choose one answer · EMT-52
While you're suctioning a trauma patient, blood splashes into your partner's eye. What should happen next?
- A. Flush the eye with water right away, then report the exposure so a medical evaluation can be arranged
- B. Wipe the eye with an alcohol prep pad and finish the shift before saying anything
- C. Report it at the end of the week if symptoms develop
- D. Clean around the eye with hand sanitizer and keep working
Show answer and explanation — Question 52
Answer: A. Under OSHA's bloodborne pathogens standard, mucous membranes are flushed with water immediately or as soon as feasible after contact, and an exposure that's reported triggers a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up. Alcohol and hand sanitizer aren't eye irrigation, and delaying the report can delay time-sensitive follow-up. The splash also shows why eye protection belongs on when spray is foreseeable.
Source: OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030 paragraphs (d)(2)(vi), (d)(3)(x) and (f)(3).
Answers follow the 2025 AHA CPR guidelines and national EMS guidance; your state and local protocols may differ.
Check your results
Give yourself one point only when an item is completely right. That means every required choice and no extras, the full order correct, and every row or entry in the right place. That's how NREMT scores its items too: no partial credit (EMT test plan, Item Types).
Write down your complete first response before opening an answer. If you peeked at an answer before choosing, count that item as studied, not scored.
Count your correct answers out of the items you checked without peeking, and keep the number studied separate. Only calculate a full-set percentage if you scored all 52 without seeing any answers first: correct ÷ 52 × 100. A retry is useful practice, but it does not change your first-attempt tally.
These are editorial study groups; the set does not reproduce the official examination weighting. Cross-domain practice is an unofficial study group, not a sixth exam domain.
| Study group | Items | Question numbers |
|---|---|---|
| Scene Size-Up and Safety | 8 | 1, 9, 15, 21, 28, 33, 40, 50 |
| Primary Assessment | 11 | 2, 6, 13, 16, 24, 29, 31, 34, 37, 41, 46 |
| Secondary Assessment | 5 | 4, 5, 20, 32, 44 |
| Patient Treatment and Transport | 20 | 3, 7, 10, 11, 12, 14, 18, 19, 22, 23, 26, 27, 30, 35, 39, 42, 43, 48, 49, 51 |
| Operations | 3 | 25, 36, 52 |
| Cross-domain practice — unofficial | 5 | 8, 17, 38, 45, 47 |
Your score reflects these 52 questions only. It isn't a scaled NREMT score, it can't be converted to one, and it doesn't predict whether you'll pass. The Secondary Assessment and Operations rows have only a handful of items each, so treat a low result there as a reason to review that area, not a measurement of your ability.
Turn each miss into a study task
- Reread the explanation for every miss and every lucky guess.
- Name the one finding in the stem that decided the answer, like "definite pulse," "can't swallow," or "age 72."
- Say why your choice didn't fit this patient. Most wrong answers on this set are real actions that belong to a different situation or a different certification level.
- Open the linked source passage or the matching chapter in your course materials.
- Come back the next day and redo only the questions you missed.
A simple log keeps this honest:
| Question | Why I missed it | The finding or rule I need | Next study task |
|---|---|---|---|
| Example: Question 3 | Picked abdominal thrusts out of habit | Severe adult choking now starts with 5 back blows | Reread AHA 2025 Adult BLS §10.1 |
| Blank: your answer | Misread the stem / knowledge gap / priority error / format rule / guess | Blank: your answer | Blank: your answer |
How this compares to the real NREMT EMT exam
The real exam adapts to you; this one doesn't. The table below separates official exam rules from this set's practice choices.
| Item | Real NREMT EMT exam | This practice test |
|---|---|---|
| Length | 70–120 items, computer adaptive, including 10 unscored pilot items | 52 fixed items |
| Time | 2 hours | Untimed. For pacing, 120 minutes ÷ 120 items = 1 minute per item at maximum length, so about 52 minutes here |
| Domains | Scene Size-Up and Safety 15–19% · Primary Assessment 39–43% · Secondary Assessment 5–9% · Patient Treatment and Transport 20–24% · Operations 10–14% | Editorial study groups: 8 Scene, 11 Primary, 5 Secondary, 20 Treatment, 3 Operations, plus 5 cross-domain items; not weighted like the exam |
| Pediatrics | Integrated throughout the exam | Includes pediatric scenarios |
| Item types | Multiple choice, multiple response, options table, build list, drag-and-drop | Text exercises covering all five item types |
| Scoring | Right or wrong per item, no partial credit. Failed attempts see a score on a 100–1500 scale, where 950 is passing | Right or wrong per item, counted by editorial study group |
| Delivery and cost | Pearson test center or OnVUE online proctoring; $104 per attempt | Free, on this page |
Sources: NREMT EMT test plan (Content Distribution, Examination Administration, Item Types), NREMT BLS examination page, EMT Candidate Handbook (Report of Candidate's Results), and EMT Certification Process (Application Fees).
The current domains took effect April 7, 2025, based on NREMT's 2023 practice analysis. If a study guide still presents Airway, Cardiology, Trauma, Medical/OB-GYN and Operations as the official EMT exam domains, it's describing the version that ended April 4, 2025. Those subjects are still tested. They're just organized differently now.
Why Primary Assessment is about 40% of the exam
The test plan groups questions by what you're doing on scene, not by body system. Primary Assessment covers your general impression, level of consciousness, airway, breathing, circulation, chief complaint and life threats, baseline vitals, and the call on rapid treatment or transport (EMT test plan, Content Outline). So a cardiac-arrest question might test recognizing arrest (Primary) or doing CPR well (Treatment). When you study a condition, ask two things: what do I check, and what does that finding change?
If your exam stopped at 70 questions
Seventy is the minimum. The exam ends as soon as it's 95% confident you're above or below the passing standard, or when you reach 120 items or the 2-hour limit (EMT test plan, Computerized Adaptive Testing). Stopping at 70 happens to people who pass and people who don't, so the length alone tells you nothing about your result.
2025 CPR and choking changes that change answers
In its October 27, 2025 notice, NREMT said it was reviewing live exam questions, would remove questions that conflict with the 2025 AHA guidelines, and expected new questions based on those guidelines to become operational within 12–15 months (NREMT notice). NREMT didn't announce a single switch date, so learn the 2025 versions, especially if your course used older materials.
| Situation | 2025 answer | What you may have learned before |
|---|---|---|
| Severe choking, conscious adult or child | Repeat cycles of 5 back blows, then 5 abdominal thrusts | Abdominal thrusts alone |
| Severe choking, late pregnancy or can't reach around the patient | 5 back blows, then 5 chest thrusts | Chest thrusts alone |
| Severe choking, responsive infant | 5 back blows, then 5 chest thrusts using the heel of one hand; never abdominal thrusts | Chest thrusts with two fingers |
| Infant chest compressions | Heel of one hand, or 2 thumbs with hands encircling the chest; the 2-finger technique was eliminated | Two fingers |
| Choking patient becomes unresponsive | Start CPR with compressions; remove only an object you can see; no blind finger sweeps | — |
| Absent or inadequate breathing with a definite pulse | Adult: 1 breath every 6 seconds. Infant or child: 1 breath every 2–3 seconds | — |
Sources: AHA 2025 Adult Basic Life Support §8.3 and §10.1–10.3; AHA/AAP 2025 Pediatric Basic Life Support Top 10 messages, §6.2, §6.3 and §7.3.
The five question formats, and how they're scored
- Multiple choice: pick the one best answer of four.
- Multiple response: pick 2 of 5 or 3 of 6. There are always exactly 3 wrong options. Try Question 7, Question 13, Question 28.
- Options table: classify each row against the criteria in the question. Try Question 17, Question 34.
- Build list: put the steps in the order the question asks for. Try Question 24, Question 49.
- Drag-and-drop: sort each item into the right category. Try Question 38, Question 45.
Every format is all-or-nothing. Getting 2 of 3 right on a multiple-response item scores the same as getting none right. Read the instruction line before the answer choices, and count your selections before moving on (EMT test plan, Item Types).
NREMT's own sample items show the real screen layout, and its sample packet shows each format (see NREMT's official EMT sample items). A tutorial at the start of the real exam walks you through each item type, and you can reopen it with the Help function (EMT handbook, Examination Format; NREMT BLS examination page, Novel Item Classes).
What to do next
- Redo your misses after a day, using the log above.
- See the real format: NREMT's official EMT sample items and sample packet.
- Confirm exam rules: the EMT Candidate Handbook covers your Authorization to Test, scheduling and results. NREMT doesn't recommend any particular prep materials. It points candidates to their course materials, the current AHA guidelines, and the National EMS Education Standards.
- Retesting after an unsuccessful attempt? Check NREMT retake requirements.
- Taking the EMR exam instead? It has its own domain weights and length. See NREMT EMR exam prep.
Sources
Exam facts:
-
NREMT, Updated EMR and EMT Certification Examinations — launch date, domains, item length, fee, sample items
-
NREMT EMT Examination Specifications — content outline, adaptive testing, item types, scoring
-
NREMT EMT Candidate Handbook, About the Examination — score scale, retesting, preparation
-
NREMT, How the 2025 AHA Guidelines Impact National Registry Certification Examinations (October 27, 2025)
-
NREMT, Certification & Licensure — certification and state authorization to practice
-
NREMT EMT Candidate Handbook, Certification Process — Application Fees
Teaching sources:
-
AHA/AAP 2025 Guidelines, Part 6: Pediatric Basic Life Support
-
AHA 2025 Guidelines, Part 10: Special Circumstances of Resuscitation
-
NASEMSO National Model EMS Clinical Guidelines, Version 3.0 (March 2022)
-
National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients (2021)
-
2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for Acute Coronary Syndromes
Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. Last verified October 20, 2026 (Asia/Manila): NREMT EMT exam specifications, format and fee, and the source passages cited in each explanation. Each answer was checked against its linked source. These questions have not been reviewed by a licensed clinician or statistically validated against the real examination.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians or Pearson. Exam and credential names identify the subjects discussed; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These are original practice questions, not real or recalled exam items. Practice results don't predict an exam outcome, and National Registry certification is not a state license to practice. Follow your education program and local protocols.