Castleport Test Prep

ARRT Radiography Exam Prep

Your test date decides what you study. Radiography exams taken through February 28, 2027 follow ARRT's 2022 content specifications, and exams taken on or after March 1, 2027 follow the new 2027 specifications. Both have 200 scored questions plus 30 unscored pilot questions, but the category weights differ.

Scored questions by ARRT Radiography content category, testing through Feb. 28, 2027 versus Mar. 1, 2027 or later
Content category Testing through Feb. 28, 2027 Testing Mar. 1, 2027 or later Change
Patient Care 33 31 −2
Safety 50 46 −4
Image Production 51 51 0
Procedures 66 72 +6
Scored questions 200 200 —
Show subcategories
Scored questions by subcategory, through Feb. 28, 2027 versus Mar. 1, 2027 or later
Subcategory Through Feb. 28, 2027 Mar. 1, 2027 or later
Patient Interactions and Management 33 31
Radiation Physics and Radiobiology 21 21
Radiation Protection 29 25
Image Acquisition and Evaluation 26 26
Equipment Operation and Quality Assurance 25 25
Head, Spine, and Pelvis Procedures 18 20
Thorax and Abdomen Procedures 20 22
Extremity Procedures 28 30

Counts are scored questions; the 30 pilot questions are mixed in and not marked. Source: ARRT Radiography Examination Content Specifications, through Feb. 28, 2027 and effective Mar. 1, 2027, p. 1. Print the one for your test date; every topic and plan on this page maps to it.

Starter practice: 25 original questions with explanations

Answer all 25, then use your misses to set your study order. The split (4 Patient Care, 6 Safety, 6 Image Production, 9 Procedures) tracks the exam's weights, and every concept here is on both outlines. Unofficial practice written by Castleport Test Prep, not ARRT questions.

Question 1 · Procedures: Thorax and Abdomen · RAD-PRO-01

Why is a routine upright PA chest done at a 72-inch (about 180 cm) source-to-image distance (SID) instead of 40 inches?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Why it's right: The heart sits toward the front of the chest, so even on a PA projection there's distance between the heart and the image receptor. A longer SID cuts the magnification that distance would cause, so heart size looks more accurate and edges stay sharper.

Why the others aren't: A: a longer SID lowers receptor exposure (inverse square law), so mAs has to go up. B: focal-spot choice doesn't depend on SID. C: you need full inspiration at any distance.

If you missed it: Review the SID and OID rows of the factors-affecting-quality table, then chest positioning.

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Chest


Question 2 · Safety: Radiation Physics and Radiobiology · RAD-SAF-01

With all technical factors unchanged, the air kerma measured 100 cm from the focal spot is 2.0 mGy. What is the air kerma at 200 cm?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Worked: I₂ = I₁ × (d₁ ÷ d₂)² = 2.0 × (100 ÷ 200)² = 2.0 × 0.25 = 0.5 mGy.

Why it's right: Intensity falls with the square of distance. Double the distance and you get one-quarter of the intensity.

Why the others aren't: B: halving for a doubled distance treats the relationship as linear, which is the most common mistake. C and D move intensity the wrong way; farther from the source always means less.

If you missed it: Drill the inverse square law until you can set it up without a formula sheet.

Source: Digital Radiographic Exposure, Ch. 8


Question 3 · Image Production: Image Acquisition and Evaluation · RAD-IP-01

An AP abdomen looks good at 80 kVp and 20 mAs. You want about the same receptor exposure with less patient dose. Which technique applies the 15% rule?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Worked: 80 × 1.15 = 92 kVp. A 15% kVp increase roughly doubles receptor exposure, so halve the mAs: 20 → 10.

Why it's right: Raising kVp 15% and halving mAs keeps receptor exposure about the same while usually lowering patient dose. The higher kVp reduces subject contrast and increases scatter; digital processing can alter displayed contrast, but it does not undo those acquisition changes.

Why the others aren't: A raises kVp and doubles mAs, which is about four times the exposure. C lowers kVp 15% (halving exposure) and halves mAs again, leaving about one-quarter. D raises kVp without cutting mAs, so exposure roughly doubles.

If you missed it: Review the 15% rule and practice it in both directions (up and down).

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Appendix A


Question 4 · Patient Care: Patient Interactions and Management · RAD-PC-03

During a shift, a staff radiographer forgets to lock a stretcher's wheels and a patient falls during transfer. The patient sues the hospital as well as the radiographer. Which doctrine makes the hospital liable for its employee's negligent act?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Why it's right: Respondeat superior ("let the master answer") holds an employer responsible for an employee's wrongful acts done within the scope of the job. That's why a suit like this usually names both the employer and the employee.

Why the others aren't: A: res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself") is a way to prove negligence from the circumstances; it doesn't shift liability to the employer. C: battery is touching without consent, not failing to secure equipment. D: beneficence is an ethical principle (act in the patient's interest), not a liability rule.

If you missed it: Make a one-line card for each legal doctrine in the Patient Care outline.

Source: LII Wex, respondeat superior; LII Wex, res ipsa loquitur


Question 5 · Procedures: Head, Spine, and Pelvis · RAD-PRO-05

A patient is placed in a 45° RPO position for an oblique lumbar spine. Which zygapophyseal joints are shown?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Why it's right: On posterior obliques (RPO and LPO), the lumbar zygapophyseal joints on the downside are shown: the "Scottie dog." RPO shows the right joints; LPO shows the left.

Why the others aren't: A describes anterior obliques: RAO and LAO show the upside joints. B: one oblique opens one side. D: the lateral shows the intervertebral foramina and disk spaces; the lumbar zygapophyseal joints need the oblique.

If you missed it: Build a four-row table: RPO, LPO, RAO, LAO, and which joints each one shows.

Source: Radiopaedia, Lumbar spine (oblique view); Radiographic Procedures Review, Lumbar Spine


Question 6 · Safety: Radiation Protection · RAD-SAF-04

Under the federal performance standard for fluoroscopic equipment, what minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) must a stationary fluoroscope enforce for general use?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Why it's right: 21 CFR 1020.32(g)(1) requires stationary fluoroscopes to keep the SSD at no less than 38 cm.

Why the others aren't: B: 30 cm is the minimum for mobile and portable fluoroscopes. A: 20 cm is allowed only for specific surgical uses. D: 45 cm is the SID that defines small C-arms (which have their own 19 cm SSD minimum), not an SSD limit.

If you missed it: Review the fluoroscopy dose-control list in the Safety outline.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(g)


Question 7 · Image Production: Image Acquisition and Evaluation · RAD-IP-06

A mobile AP chest looks grainy, and the system's standardized exposure index/deviation indicator shows detector exposure well below its target. What is the most likely cause?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Why it's right: Graininess here is quantum mottle (visible noise from too few photons). With a standardized exposure indicator interpreted against its target, a below-target detector exposure supports underexposure. Fix the acquisition technique when a repeat is clinically justified; post-processing can't add signal that was never captured.

Why the others aren't: A and B describe excess detector exposure, not the combination of below-target exposure and quantum mottle in the stem. C: motion blurs edges; it does not by itself explain a below-target detector exposure indicator.

If you missed it: Review exposure indicators and what under- and overexposure look like on a digital image.

Source: AAPM TG-116 Executive Summary; ACR–AAPM–SIIM Practice Guideline for Digital Radiography


Question 8 · Procedures: Extremity · RAD-PRO-07

After a fall, a patient has tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox. Which projection best shows the scaphoid with less foreshortening?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Why it's right: Ulnar deviation plus a proximal central-ray (CR) angle lengthens the scaphoid and opens the spaces around it. It's the standard approach for a suspected scaphoid fracture.

Why the others aren't: A: radial deviation opens the carpal spaces on the ulnar (pinky) side. C: the lateral checks alignment and dislocation, with the carpals overlapping. D: Gaynor-Hart shows the carpal canal, not the scaphoid in profile.

If you missed it: List each special wrist projection with its position, CR angle, and what it shows.

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Wrist


Question 9 · Patient Care: Patient Interactions and Management · RAD-PC-01

Select TWO. You do a portable chest in an airborne infection isolation room on a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Later the patient is taken to fluoroscopy. Which two measures fit Airborne Precautions?

Reveal answer

Answer: B and D.

Why it's right: TB spreads through the air. CDC's isolation guideline calls for a respiratory protection program with fit-testing and respiratory protection put on before room entry, and the N95 respirator is the standard TB protection for healthcare workers. A mask on the patient is source control: it cuts airborne spread outside the room.

Why the others aren't: A: a surgical mask is the Droplet Precautions standard; airborne germs need a respirator. E: clearing a hallway doesn't contain airborne particles; the patient's mask does. C: Contact Precautions cover spread by touch and never replace respiratory protection.

If you missed it: Make a three-column chart: contact, droplet, airborne, with PPE and room rules for each.

Source: CDC 2007 Isolation Guideline, Part III; Curry International TB Center, PPE


Question 10 · Image Production: Image Acquisition and Evaluation · RAD-IP-02

10 mAs at a 40-inch SID gives correct receptor exposure. The exam now has to be done at 72 inches. Which mAs keeps receptor exposure the same?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Worked: mAs₂ = mAs₁ × (SID₂ ÷ SID₁)² = 10 × (72 ÷ 40)² = 10 × 1.8² = 10 × 3.24 = 32.4 mAs.

Why it's right: This is the exposure maintenance (direct square) formula. It's the inverse square law flipped around: more distance needs more mAs.

Why the others aren't: C scales by 1.8 without squaring, the classic miss. B divides by 1.8 and A divides by 3.24; both move mAs the wrong way.

If you missed it: Practice the direct square formula alongside the inverse square law so you don't mix them up.

Source: Digital Radiographic Exposure, Ch. 8


Question 11 · Procedures: Head, Spine, and Pelvis · RAD-PRO-03

For an AP axial (Towne) skull with the orbitomeatal line (OML) perpendicular to the image receptor, what CR angle is used?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Why it's right: With the OML perpendicular, the CR goes 30° caudad (37° caudad if the infraorbitomeatal line is the one placed perpendicular). That projects the occipital bone, with the dorsum sellae inside the foramen magnum.

Why the others aren't: A: 15° caudad is the PA axial (Caldwell) skull. C: the size fits the IOML version, but the direction is wrong. D: a straight AP leaves the facial bones and skull base piled on top of each other.

If you missed it: Make a card for each skull and facial projection: positioning line, CR angle, and what a correct image shows.

Source: Radiopaedia, Skull (Towne view)


Question 12 · Safety: Radiation Physics and Radiobiology · RAD-SAF-03

After a long fluoroscopy-guided procedure, a patient develops skin reddening where the beam entered. Which description fits this effect?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Why it's right: Skin erythema is a classic deterministic effect, also called a tissue reaction. It doesn't happen below a threshold dose, and above it, a higher dose means a worse injury.

Why the others aren't: B describes cancer and heritable effects. C: genetic effects are stochastic and show up in offspring, not at the beam entrance site. D: erythema is an early effect.

If you missed it: Sort a list of effects (cataract, erythema, cancer, heritable effects) into deterministic and stochastic.

Source: IAEA, Planning a Clinical PET Centre (radiation-effects section); CDC, Cutaneous Radiation Injury


Question 13 · Procedures: Extremity · RAD-PRO-09

How is the leg positioned for an AP mortise projection of the ankle?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Why it's right: That rotation opens the whole mortise joint (the tibial plafond and both malleoli around the talar dome) without the malleoli overlapping. Rotate from the hip; turning only the ankle gives a non-diagnostic image.

Why the others aren't: A overshoots the alignment that opens the mortise. B rotates the wrong way. C is the straight AP, where the mortise isn't fully open.

If you missed it: Compare the AP, mortise, and 45° oblique ankle side by side.

Source: Radiopaedia, Ankle (mortise view)


Question 14 · Image Production: Equipment Operation and Quality Assurance · RAD-IP-05

Reviewing a digital image, you want higher displayed contrast without changing overall brightness. Which adjustment does that?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Why it's right: Window width controls displayed contrast; window level controls brightness. A narrower width spreads fewer values across the gray scale, so the image shows higher contrast.

Why the others aren't: A lowers contrast. C and D change brightness, not contrast. Also remember that post-processing changes how an image looks, not the exposure that made it. ARRT's outline lists manipulation of electronic data (exposure indicator, processing, cropping or masking off anatomy) as an ethical and legal issue.

If you missed it: Review post-processing and display terms in the Image Production outline.

Source: ARRT Radiography Content Specifications, effective Mar. 1, 2027 (Image Production: postprocessing; Patient Care: ethical and legal aspects); Radiopaedia, Windowing


Question 15 · Patient Care: Patient Interactions and Management · RAD-PC-02

The 2020 ACR–National Kidney Foundation consensus statements on IV iodinated contrast use a threshold of 30 mL/min/1.73 m² to flag patients (not on dialysis) for whom IV saline prophylaxis is indicated. Which lab value carries that threshold?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Why it's right: eGFR estimates how well the kidneys filter. The consensus treats eGFR below 30, along with acute kidney injury, as the high-risk group for contrast-associated kidney injury.

Why the others aren't: A, B, and C don't measure kidney filtration. BUN and creatinine also appear on ARRT's outline as kidney-related labs; eGFR is the one with the threshold. Prophylaxis decisions belong to the ordering clinician and radiologist under facility protocol.

If you missed it: Review the contrast section of Patient Care: lab values, reactions by severity, and extravasation.

Source: Davenport et al., Radiology, 2020 (ACR–NKF consensus); Endovascular Today summary of the consensus


Question 16 · Procedures: Thorax and Abdomen · RAD-PRO-02

A patient who can't stand needs an image to look for free air in the abdomen. Which position is preferred, and why?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Why it's right: With the left side down and a horizontal beam, free air rises to the right flank, where the solid liver gives a clean background. Include the raised side of the abdomen and the diaphragm.

Why the others aren't: B: right side down sends free air to the left, where bowel gas and the stomach make it harder to see. C: dorsal decubitus is the fallback when the patient can't be turned onto their side. D: a vertical-beam supine image can't show air-fluid levels.

If you missed it: Review the acute abdomen series and when each decubitus position is used.

Source: Radiopaedia, Abdominal radiograph (lateral decubitus view); Radiographic Procedures Review, Abdomen Series


Question 17 · Safety: Radiation Protection · RAD-SAF-05

A radiographer gives her employer a written declaration of pregnancy. Under the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission rule for a declared pregnant worker (10 CFR 20.1208), what dose limit applies to the embryo/fetus for the whole pregnancy?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Why it's right: 10 CFR 20.1208 limits the embryo/fetus dose from a declared pregnant worker's job exposure to 5 mSv (0.5 rem) for the entire pregnancy.

Why the others aren't: A and B are not the whole-pregnancy limit in 10 CFR 20.1208(a). The regulation sets 5 mSv for the entire pregnancy; paragraph (d) separately uses 0.5 mSv for the maximum additional dose allowed during the remainder of a pregnancy in a specific already-near-the-limit situation. D is far above the pregnancy limit.

Note: Declaring is voluntary and must be in writing. States regulate diagnostic x-ray use, so your facility's radiation safety program sets the rules you actually work under; know these numbers as the federal reference points.

If you missed it: Make one card with every dose limit in the Safety outline and its unit.

Source: 10 CFR 20.1208 — Dose equivalent to an embryo/fetus; NRC Regulatory Guide 8.13, Rev. 3


Question 18 · Image Production: Image Acquisition and Evaluation · RAD-IP-03

A knee is imaged without a grid at 4 mAs. Because of the patient's size, you add a 12:1 grid. Using grid conversion factors of 1 (no grid) and 5 (12:1 grid), what mAs keeps receptor exposure the same?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Worked: mAs₂ = mAs₁ × (GCF₂ ÷ GCF₁) = 4 × (5 ÷ 1) = 20 mAs.

Why it's right: Grids absorb scatter (and some primary beam), so you raise mAs by the ratio of the conversion factors.

Why the others aren't: D multiplies by the grid ratio (12) instead of the conversion factor. B just doubles. A divides, which is what you'd do when removing a grid.

Note: The stem gives the factors because published conversion-factor tables vary by source and kVp. Know how to apply the formula with whatever factors you're given.

If you missed it: Practice grid conversions in both directions (adding and removing a grid).

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Appendix A


Question 19 · Procedures: Extremity · RAD-PRO-06

An emergency patient has a suspected shoulder dislocation and can't move the arm. Which projection shows the direction of dislocation without moving the arm?

Reveal answer

Answer: B.

Why it's right: The scapular Y turns the patient 45–60° toward the affected side while the arm stays put. The scapula forms the Y, and where the humeral head sits relative to the glenoid shows which way it's displaced.

Why the others aren't: A and C require rotating the injured arm. D requires raising it out to the side.

If you missed it: Sort shoulder projections into "needs arm movement" and "trauma-safe."

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Shoulder


Question 20 · Safety: Radiation Physics and Radiobiology · RAD-SAF-02

During a mobile exam, which interaction is the main source of the radiation reaching a radiographer standing near the patient?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Why it's right: At diagnostic energies, Compton scatter dominates, and the patient is the main scattering object. That's why distance, shielding, and staying out of the beam matter most during mobile and fluoroscopy work.

Why the others aren't: A: photoelectric absorption removes the photon; it adds to patient dose, not to scatter reaching you. B: coherent scatter is a minor, low-energy interaction. D: bremsstrahlung is produced at the x-ray tube target, not in the patient.

If you missed it: Review the photon interactions and which ones add to patient dose versus scatter.

Source: AAPM/RSNA Physics Tutorial, RadioGraphics 1999; NRC dose reconstruction document ML19261A159


Question 21 · Procedures: Head, Spine, and Pelvis · RAD-PRO-04

On a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for the maxillary sinuses, where should the petrous ridges appear when positioning is correct?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Why it's right: With the mentomeatal line perpendicular to the receptor (the OML about 37° from it), the petrous ridges drop just below the maxillary sinuses, leaving the sinuses clear.

Why the others aren't: B means the chin was barely raised. C is the pattern for a 15° PA axial (Caldwell). D is what the modified Waters shows on purpose, to see the orbital floors; on a standard Waters it means the chin wasn't raised enough.

If you missed it: For each facial projection, write where the petrous ridges should land.

Source: Radiopaedia, Waters view; Radiographic Procedures Review, Facial Bones


Question 22 · Image Production: Image Acquisition and Evaluation · RAD-IP-04

For a PA hand on a digital detector, which single change (everything else equal) improves spatial resolution?

Reveal answer

Answer: D.

Why it's right: A smaller focal spot cuts geometric unsharpness (the blurry edge called penumbra), so edges look sharper. That's why distal extremities are usually done on the small focal spot.

Why the others aren't: A and B both increase magnification and unsharpness. C keeps receptor exposure about the same and changes contrast, not sharpness.

If you missed it: Review the spatial-resolution column of the factors-affecting-quality table.

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Appendix A


Question 23 · Patient Care: Patient Interactions and Management · RAD-PC-04

An unconscious trauma patient arrives in the emergency department needing immediate radiographs. No family member or surrogate is present. On what basis can imaging go ahead?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Why it's right: In an emergency, when the patient is unconscious and can't consent and treatment is needed, the law implies consent.

Why the others aren't: B: consent can't be obtained after the fact. C: an unconscious patient can't give oral consent. D: waiting for a surrogate would defeat the point of emergency care. A known advance directive or DNR order still applies; follow facility policy.

If you missed it: Make a card for each consent type with one example of when it applies.

Source: LII Wex, implied consent


Question 24 · Procedures: Extremity · RAD-PRO-08

Which positioning gives a true lateral elbow?

Reveal answer

Answer: A.

Why it's right: That position stacks the humeral epicondyles on top of each other and shows the olecranon in profile. Bending to 90° also lets the fat pads be evaluated.

Why the others aren't: B is the AP elbow. C rotates the forearm and changes the joint relationships. D places the epicondyles as for an AP, so you lose the lateral.

If you missed it: Review elbow positioning and the image-evaluation criteria for each projection.

Source: Radiographic Procedures Review, Elbow


Question 25 · Safety: Radiation Protection · RAD-SAF-06

A fluoroscope made after May 19, 1995 is used in normal mode (high-level control not on). What maximum air kerma rate does the federal standard allow at the specified measurement point?

Reveal answer

Answer: C.

Why it's right: 21 CFR 1020.32(d)(2) caps the normal-mode air kerma rate at 88 mGy per minute (the older 10 R/min figure).

Why the others aren't: D: 176 mGy/min (20 R/min) applies only when high-level control is on, which requires continuous manual activation and an audible signal. B: 44 mGy/min is the rate above which the unit must have automatic exposure rate control. A confuses the old 10 R/min unit with mGy/min.

If you missed it: Put the fluoroscopy limits (SSD, air kerma rate, 5-minute timer) on one card.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(d)

Turn your misses into a study order

Count your correct answers by category:

Count your correct practice answers by category
Category Questions Your correct
Patient Care Q4, Q9, Q15, Q23 __ / 4
Safety Q2, Q6, Q12, Q17, Q20, Q25 __ / 6
Image Production Q3, Q7, Q10, Q14, Q18, Q22 __ / 6
Procedures Q1, Q5, Q8, Q11, Q13, Q16, Q19, Q21, Q24 __ / 9

Twenty-five questions can tell you where to start. They can't predict an ARRT score: they're untimed, unscaled, and sample only a few topics per category. One miss in a four-question category is a topic to fix, not a verdict on the whole category.

What happened in your practice and what to do next
What happened What to do next
You missed a question once Reread the explanation, then say the rule out loud in one sentence
You missed two questions on the same topic Move that topic to the front of tomorrow's session
You got it right but guessed, or for the wrong reason Count it as a miss
Most of your misses sit in one category Give that category the first two or three sessions of your plan
You missed a calculation Do ten more of the same type before moving on
You're accurate but slow Add timed sets at one minute per question
You're fast but making careless errors Name your reason before you lock in each answer

Pick your study plan

All three plans follow the same order: find your gaps, rebuild the big categories, then practice under time. They're editorial plans built on ARRT's outline, not an official or required study length. Keep your printed outline open while you work; each session names the outline topics to cover. You'll need a separate source of timed practice questions for the later weeks (see choosing other prep materials).

8 weeks (about 75 minutes, five days a week)

8-week study plan by week: focus, sessions and end-of-week check
Week Focus Sessions End-of-week check
1 Baseline + Patient Care I (1) Take the 25 questions above; log every miss with the rule you missed. (2) Mark each line of your outline Know / Shaky / Never seen. (3) Ethics and legal: consent types, patient rights, HIPAA, legal doctrines, documentation, manipulation of electronic data. (4) Infection control: chain of infection, asepsis, Standard and transmission-based precautions. (5) Communication, patient education and scheduling, transfers, monitoring, fall prevention. Redo Q4, Q9, Q23 without looking at the explanations.
2 Patient Care II + radiation physics (1) Contrast and pharmacology: contrast types, lab values (BUN, creatinine, eGFR), reactions by severity, extravasation, documentation. (2) Medical emergencies: allergic reactions, cardiac or respiratory arrest, trauma, seizures, diabetic reactions. (3) X-ray production and target interactions. (4) Beam quality and quantity; photoelectric, Compton, and coherent interactions; inverse square law. (5) A timed 20-question mixed set (20 minutes), then review every miss. Redo Q2, Q15, Q20.
3 Radiobiology + patient protection (1) SI units: Gy, Sv, air kerma. (2) Radiosensitivity: LET, relative tissue sensitivity, oxygen effect. (3) Deterministic vs. stochastic effects, embryo/fetus effects, acute radiation syndromes. (4) Lowering patient dose: exposure factors, collimation, filtration, body habitus, pregnancy. (5) Fluoroscopy dose controls: pulsed mode, automatic exposure rate control, last image hold, minimum SSD, cumulative air kerma, dose-area product. Redo Q6, Q12, Q25.
4 Personnel protection + exposure math (1) Time, distance, shielding; protective devices; rules for mobile and fluoroscopy work. (2) Dosimeters, dose limits, records. (3) Math drill: 15% rule, direct square law, inverse square law, grid conversion, magnification (20 problems). (4) The factors-affecting-quality table: receptor exposure, contrast, spatial resolution, distortion. (5) Technique charts and automatic exposure control (AEC): chamber selection, alignment, backup timer. Redo Q3, Q10, Q17, Q18.
5 Digital imaging + equipment and QA (1) Digital image basics: pixel and detector element size, matrix, bit depth, dynamic range, noise, signal-to-noise ratio. (2) Processing and display: histogram, lookup table, window width and level, exposure indicators, image evaluation. (3) Equipment: generators, x-ray tube, digital detectors, grids. (4) Fluoroscopy equipment, monitors, informatics (PACS, DICOM, EMR). (5) Quality control; then a timed 25-question mixed set. Redo Q7, Q14, Q22.
6 Procedures: thorax, abdomen, contrast studies, head (1) Chest, ribs, sternum, soft-tissue neck, clavicle, SC joints. (2) Abdomen positions and decubitus work. (3) GI contrast studies (esophagram, upper GI, small bowel, contrast enema) and surgical cholangiography. (4) GU studies: cystography, cystourethrography, retrograde urography, hysterosalpingography. (5) Skull, facial bones, sinuses, mandible, TMJs, orbits, nasal bones: positioning lines and CR angles. Redo Q1, Q11, Q16, Q21.
7 Procedures: extremities, spine, pelvis (1) Fingers, hand, wrist, forearm, elbow. (2) Humerus, shoulder, scapula, AC joints. (3) Toes, foot, calcaneus, ankle, leg, knee and patella, femur. (4) Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine; sacrum and coccyx; SI joints; myelography. (5) Pelvis and hip; arthrography. For every projection, know the part position, the CR, and what a correct image shows. Redo Q5, Q8, Q13, Q19, Q24.
8 Timed practice + weakest areas (1) A timed 100-question block (100 minutes); review every miss. (2) Deep review of your weakest category. (3) A second timed 100-question block. (4) Error-log review; check logistics (two valid IDs; arrive 30 minutes early). (5) Light review only, no new material. Retake the 25 questions; you should be able to explain every answer.

4 weeks (about 2 hours a day, six days a week)

4-week study plan by week
Week Days 1–5 Day 6
1 Day 1: take the 25 questions and mark your outline. Days 2–3: Patient Care (ethics and legal, infection control, contrast, emergencies). Days 4–5: radiation physics and radiobiology. Timed 50-question mixed set; review every miss.
2 Days 1–2: patient and personnel protection, fluoroscopy limits, dose limits. Day 3: exposure math (15% rule, direct square, inverse square, grids). Days 4–5: digital imaging, display, equipment, QC. Timed 50-question mixed set; review.
3 Day 1: chest and abdomen. Day 2: contrast studies and head. Day 3: upper extremity and shoulder girdle. Day 4: lower extremity. Day 5: spine and pelvis. Timed 100-question block; review.
4 Days 1–2: your weakest category. Day 3: timed 100-question block and review. Day 4: second-weakest category. Day 5: error log, formulas, positioning cards. Light review and logistics only.

2 weeks (2–3 hours a day)

With two weeks, rebuild the biggest categories first and lean hard on your misses.

2-week study plan by day
Day Task
1 Take the 25 questions; mark your outline Know / Shaky / Never seen
2 Procedures: extremities and shoulder girdle
3 Procedures: spine, pelvis, skull, and facial bones
4 Procedures: chest, abdomen, and contrast studies
5 Safety: physics, interactions, radiobiology
6 Safety: patient and personnel protection, fluoroscopy limits, dose limits
7 Timed 100-question mixed block; review every miss
8 Image Production: exposure factors, AEC, and the math drill
9 Image Production: digital imaging, display, equipment, QC
10 Patient Care: ethics and legal, infection control, contrast, emergencies
11 Your weakest category from Day 7
12 Timed 100-question mixed block; review
13 Error log, formulas, positioning cards
14 Light review and logistics; no new material

If you test before March 1, 2027

You're on the 2022 outline: Safety has 50 scored questions (29 on radiation protection), and Procedures has 66.

  • Keep computed radiography (CR) in your digital-imaging sessions. It's on the 2022 outline and gone from the 2027 one.
  • Add intravenous urography to your GU studies session.
  • Skip topics that only appear in 2027: enteric and orogastric tube placement, line placement with a C-arm, lumbar puncture and epidural injections, joint injection and aspiration, airway foreign body, virtual grids, and informatics security and teleradiology.
  • Shift one Procedures session to radiation protection.

If you're retaking

Start with your score report, not page one of your notes.

  1. Find your two lowest section scores. Section scores run from 0.1 to 9.9; ARRT says an 8.1 can generally be read as a scaled 81 if that section were the whole exam. They come from fewer questions than your total, so treat them as direction, not precision.
  2. Compare those sections with your own miss log.
  3. Put those two sections first in whichever plan fits your time.
  4. Rebuild the concepts before you go back to a question bank you've already used.
  5. Add timed mixed practice once your concept misses drop.
  6. If your next exam falls on or after March 1, 2027, compare the 2027 outline with the one you studied before. ARRT's handbook tells retakers to do exactly that.

ARRT allows three attempts within three years, counted from the start of your first exam window; each attempt needs a new application and fee. An attempt taken as a state candidate counts toward the limit if you also apply separately for ARRT certification. See Three Attempts in Three Years.

How to review practice questions without memorizing them

If you've seen a question bank three times, you may remember the answer letter, not the idea. The exam won't reuse your bank's wording, so review for the rule:

  1. Say why. Explain why your answer was right or wrong before you read the explanation.
  2. Write the rule. One sentence: "Posterior obliques show the downside lumbar joints."
  3. Change one detail. Swap RPO for RAO, or 40 inches for 72, and predict whether the answer changes.
  4. Test it somewhere else. Come back to the concept a few days later through a different question.

Keep an error log with three columns: the question topic, the rule, and why you missed it (didn't know it, misread it, or ran out of time). The "why" column tells you whether you need more content or more careful reading.

What changed on March 1, 2027

The 2027 outline keeps the same four categories and 200 scored questions. ARRT summarized the major content changes in its May 1, 2026 announcement; we compared the two outlines line by line for the last items in each list.

Patient Care (33 → 31)

  • Patient scheduling added to patient education.
  • IV supplies added to disposal of contaminated materials.

Safety (50 → 46; radiation protection 29 → 25)

  • "Morbid obesity" replaced by "body habitus."
  • Pregnancy and dose-reduction resources (such as Image Wisely and Image Gently) added to minimizing patient exposure.
  • "Image receptors" replaced by "digital detectors."
  • Reference updates: SI units now cite NCRP Report No. 184; personnel monitoring cites NCRP Report No. 180 (previously No. 116).

Image Production (51 → 51)

  • Image contrast and subject contrast added to the factors-affecting-quality table.
  • Virtual grids added; compensating filters removed.
  • Security, confidentiality, and teleradiology added to informatics.
  • All computed radiography (CR) content removed.

Procedures (66 → 72)

  • Lumbar puncture and epidural injections added to myelography.
  • Joint injection and aspiration added to arthrography.
  • Airway or ingested foreign body, line placement with a C-arm, and nasogastric/orogastric and enteric tube placement added to Thorax and Abdomen.
  • Intravenous urography removed.
  • The projection list (Attachment A) dropped some less common projections and added more common ones; the positioning-terminology attachment (Attachment B) was removed.
  • Clavicle now sits under Thorax rather than Upper Extremities.

The passing standard was also reset. ARRT approved an updated Radiography passing standard for everyone testing on or after March 1, 2027. You still need a scaled 75 to pass, and ARRT says the change isn't meant to make the exam easier or harder. In the standard-setting study, the new standard equaled 130 of 200 correct on the exam form used there; the old standard would have equaled about 129 on that same form. ARRT staff projected a first-time pass rate of about 83%. Those raw numbers belong to one study form, so don't treat 130 as the cut on your exam. Sources: ARRT news, Aug. 27, 2026; Radiography Standard Setting Report, effective March 2027, pp. 4–6.

Older prep materials: a review book or question bank written for the 2022 outline still covers most of the exam, but if you test on or after March 1, 2027, it will over-teach CR, under-weight Procedures, and miss the additions above. Check which outline it says it follows.

What a passing score of 75 means

75 is a scaled score, not 75% correct. ARRT reports total scores from 1 to 99 and adjusts for differences in difficulty between exam forms, so a 75 means the same level of performance on every version. The number of correct answers you need changes from form to form; ARRT's own examples put it around 130 or 131 out of 200 (Exam Scoring).

The latest results. In its 2025 Annual Exam Report, ARRT lists the approximate percent correct needed to pass Radiography as 67%. The first-time pass rate was 85.8% across 14,072 first-time candidates tested in 2025, with an average scaled score of 82.7 (pp. 1–3, 6). Those candidates tested on the 2022 outline under the earlier passing standard.

Section scores run from 0.1 to 9.9. Your total comes from how many questions you got right overall, not from averaging section scores; bigger sections carry more weight. In 2025, first-time Radiography candidates averaged 8.1 to 8.4 across the eight sections.

Want program-level numbers? See our ARRT radiography pass rates by program.

Exam day: format, pacing, and rules

Exam day: what ARRT says about format, time and rules
Item What ARRT says
Questions 230 total: 200 scored + 30 unscored pilot questions, mixed in and not marked, so treat every question as scored
Time 230 minutes of test time inside a 250-minute appointment, which also covers an 8-minute tutorial, 2 minutes for the nondisclosure agreement, and a 10-minute survey
Nondisclosure agreement Accept it within 2 minutes, or the exam ends and you have to reapply
Question formats Mostly multiple choice with one best answer; some ask you to select more than one answer, put items in order, click a spot on an image, or answer after a short video
Moving through You must answer each question before moving on; you can flag it and come back if time allows
Calculator Don't bring one. The exam has on-screen basic and scientific calculators, and Pearson VUE can give you a basic calculator if you ask
Arrival and ID Arrive at least 30 minutes early with two valid IDs whose names match your Candidate Status Report
Application fee $225 for the primary pathway
Exam window 365 days, shown on your Candidate Status Report
Results A preliminary score at the test center, then your official score report through your ARRT account; ARRT's Verify Credentials page shows passing candidates within about four weeks

Sources: ARRT 2026 Primary Eligibility Pathway Handbook, pp. 18, 30, 37–44, 52; ARRT Application Fees. ARRT updates the handbook each year; check the current edition before you apply.

Pacing. You get about one minute per question. Running a little faster than that buys time for flagged items. Our suggested checkpoints:

Suggested pacing checkpoints
Time used Aim to have answered
55 minutes 60 questions
110 minutes 120 questions
165 minutes 180 questions
About 210 minutes All 230, leaving about 20 minutes for flagged questions

These are our arithmetic (230 questions at about 55 seconds each), not ARRT rules. Practice them in your timed blocks so exam day isn't the first time you watch the clock.

ARRT certification isn't a state license. Some states require a license to work as a radiographer, and an ARRT credential doesn't by itself make you eligible to work in a given state. Many states use ARRT exam results in licensing, so check your state's rules through ARRT's state licensing page.

Choosing other prep materials

ARRT doesn't recommend or endorse any review program, mock registry, or study guide, and it warns candidates about materials that use its name or claim to include ARRT test questions. Sharing or seeking recalled exam questions breaks ARRT's exam-security rules and can lead to sanctions (Handbook, pp. 38, 46–49).

Before you add a question bank, book, or review course, check four things:

  1. Outline version. Does it say which outline it follows? If you test on or after March 1, 2027, it should be the 2027 outline.
  2. Explanations. Does every answer explain why the wrong options are wrong?
  3. Originality. Does it say its questions are original, not "real" or "recalled" ARRT questions?
  4. Update date. Does it show when it was last revised?

Quick answers

Can I take the exam before I finish my program? You can apply up to 90 days before you complete your program, and you can schedule once your Candidate Status Report arrives. But you have to finish your program and have your degree conferred before you sit for the exam (Handbook, p. 23).

How long should I study? ARRT doesn't publish a recommended study time. Pick the plan above that matches the time you actually have, and let your misses, not the calendar, decide where the extra hours go.

Where are the official study documents? On ARRT's Radiography credential page: the content specifications, task inventory, and competency requirements, each in a version for testing through Feb. 28, 2027 and one for Mar. 1, 2027 or later.

Sources

We checked every exam fact, rule, and figure on this page against these sources on October 27, 2026, and checked each practice question against the reference listed with it. We also recalculated every worked answer. That's source checking, not review by a credentialed radiographer.

ARRT

Regulations and clinical guidance: 21 CFR 1020.32; NRC Regulatory Guide 8.13, Rev. 3; CDC 2007 Isolation Guideline, Part III; ACR–NKF consensus on IV contrast (Davenport et al., 2020).

Teaching references: Radiographic Procedures Review and Digital Radiographic Exposure (University of Missouri System open textbooks); Radiopaedia; AAPM TG-116; LII Wex. Each question links the specific page it relies on.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT). Exam and credential names are used only to identify the subject of this resource, and trademarks belong to their respective owners. The practice questions on this page are original and unofficial; they are not ARRT exam questions.