Castleport Test Prep

Free ARRT Radiography Practice Test

100 original, unofficial questions. No signup. Testing on or after March 1, 2027? Use the updated ARRT specifications alongside this set; newly added topics aren't all covered.

Answers stay closed under each question so you can choose first. Open all 100 answers (reading and print view).

Block 1: Questions 1–25

1. A PA chest projection is routinely performed at a 72-inch (about 183 cm) SID mainly to:

TA-01 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. A longer SID means less beam divergence, so structures that sit away from the image receptor are magnified less. That's why the heart's size can be judged on a 72-inch PA chest. A is backwards: a longer SID needs more mAs to keep receptor exposure, not less. B and D aren't the reason for the distance standard.

Source: UMS Radiographic Procedures Review — Chest, PA chest

2. An outpatient arrives for a wrist exam. Which is the best way to confirm her identity before the exam?

PC-01 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Use two patient-specific identifiers, such as name and date of birth, and have the patient state them. The Joint Commission says a room number is not an acceptable identifier (C). A yes/no question (B) invites an anxious or hard-of-hearing patient to agree with the wrong name, so open-ended questions are standard good practice. A family member's word (D) isn't verification against the order.

Source: The Joint Commission — Two Patient Identifiers FAQ

3. In the x-ray tube, the free electrons that form the tube current are produced by:

SP-01 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The filament circuit heats the tungsten filament until electrons boil off its surface. That's thermionic emission, and it supplies the electrons that kVp then accelerates toward the anode. Characteristic interactions (A) happen at the target after the electrons arrive. The step-up transformer (B) provides kilovoltage, not electrons. Compton interactions (C) are photon events, not an electron source.

Source: Radiopaedia — Thermionic emission

4. A knee radiograph made at 70 kVp and 10 mAs looks grainy. The exposure indicator shows the detector received about half its target exposure. Positioning, SID, and kVp stay the same for the repeat. Which technique is most appropriate?

IA-01 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Receptor exposure is directly proportional to mAs, so going from half the target to the target means doubling 10 mAs to 20 mAs. The grain is quantum mottle: too few photons reached the detector. A smoothing filter (C) can hide it cosmetically but can't add the missing signal. Cutting mAs (A) makes it worse. Dropping kVp about 15% (D) roughly halves receptor exposure, canceling the mAs increase.

In AAPM terms, half the target exposure is a deviation index of about −3.

Sources: Radiopaedia — Quantum noise · AAPM Report 116 executive summary

5. On a PA oblique hand, the interphalangeal joints look closed and the phalanges look foreshortened. What fixes this?

EX-01 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. When the hand is rotated about 45°, the fingers drop toward the IR. If they aren't supported parallel to it, the phalanges foreshorten and the IP joints close. A radiolucent step sponge fixes that. Letting the fingertips rest on the IR (D) is the error itself. Over-rotating (A) causes metacarpal overlap. Angling the CR (B) doesn't correct finger position.

Sources: Radiopaedia — Hand (oblique view) · UMS — Hand

6. During a mobile exam, you stand 1 m from the patient, the main source of scatter. If you step back to 2 m, your exposure from that scatter will be about:

SR-01 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Treating the patient as a rough point source, intensity follows the inverse square law: double the distance and exposure falls to (1/2)², or one-quarter. Scatter does go in all directions (D), which is exactly why distance works in every direction. One-half (B) is the linear mistake.

Source: Radiopaedia — Inverse square law

7. Which x-ray generator type has the lowest voltage ripple?

EQ-01 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Typical ripple: single-phase about 100%, three-phase six-pulse about 13–14%, three-phase twelve-pulse about 4%, high-frequency about 1% or less. Lower ripple means a more nearly constant voltage, a higher average photon energy, and more efficient x-ray production.

Source: Radiopaedia — Ripple

8. On a PA axial (Caldwell) skull projection with the CR angled 15° caudad to the OML, where should the petrous ridges project?

HSP-01 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. With 15° caudal angulation exiting at the nasion, the petrous ridges land in the lower third of the orbits. The foramen magnum (B) is where the dorsum sellae belongs on an AP axial (Towne). Ridges just below the maxillary sinuses (C) is the Waters criterion. D isn't produced by a correctly angled Caldwell.

Source: UMS — Skull, PA axial (Caldwell)

9. An unresponsive adult arrives after a motor vehicle crash. No family is present, and the trauma team orders immediate imaging. On what basis can the radiographer proceed?

PC-02 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. When a patient is unconscious, can't give consent, and needs urgent care, consent is implied. An unresponsive patient can't give oral consent (B), and a radiographer can't consent on the patient's behalf (A). Waiting for a guardian (D) would delay necessary emergency care.

Source: Cornell LII Wex — Implied consent

10. In a diagnostic beam produced at 80 kVp with a tungsten target, most x-ray photons come from:

SP-02 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Bremsstrahlung ("braking") radiation forms when a projectile electron slows near a target nucleus. Below 70 kVp the beam is essentially all bremsstrahlung. Above 70 kVp, tungsten K-characteristic x-rays (about 69.5 keV) appear but still make up only around 15%. Photoelectric and coherent interactions (C, D) happen in the patient, not in the tube.

Source: Radiopaedia — Bremsstrahlung

11. A lumbar spine technique is 70 kVp at 20 mAs. Using the 15% rule to lower patient dose while keeping receptor exposure about the same, the new technique is closest to:

IA-02 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A 15% kVp increase roughly doubles receptor exposure, so mAs is halved: 70 × 1.15 = 80.5, so about 80 kVp at 10 mAs. Patient dose drops by about a third, not half, because entrance dose scales roughly with kVp² × mAs (1.15² × 0.5 ≈ 0.66). The tradeoff is lower subject contrast. A raises dose. B doubles receptor exposure. C halves it.

Source: How Radiology Works — The 15% rule

12. For an AP projection of the thumb, the radiographer should:

EX-02 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. An AP thumb needs extreme medial rotation of the hand so the thumbnail side lies flat on the IR, centered to the first MCP joint. A PA thumb (C) adds OID and magnification. A describes a lateral thumb. D is neither centering nor rotation for the thumb.

Source: UMS — Fingers and thumb, AP thumb

13. On an AP knee, which single step reduces both patient dose and the scatter reaching the detector?

SR-02 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Less irradiated tissue means less patient dose and less scatter produced. A higher-ratio grid (A) reduces scatter at the detector but requires more exposure, so dose goes up. A shorter SID (B) raises entrance skin dose. Opening the field (D) does the opposite of what's needed.

Sources: Image Gently — Digital radiography · Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists

14. In an x-ray generator, the main job of the rectification circuit is to:

EQ-02 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Rectifiers keep current flowing one way through the tube, protecting it and making every half-cycle useful. Raising voltage to kilovolts (B) is the step-up transformer's job. Filament heating (C) belongs to the filament circuit.

Source: Radiopaedia — High-voltage generator

15. On a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection, the petrous ridges project over the maxillary sinuses. What correction is needed?

HSP-02 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A correct Waters places the OML at 37° to the IR, which drops the petrous ridges just below the maxillary sinuses. Ridges over the sinuses mean the chin wasn't extended enough. Tucking the chin (A) makes it worse. The Waters uses a perpendicular CR to the IR, not a caudal angle (B).

Source: UMS — Paranasal sinuses, parietoacanthial (Waters)

16. A competent adult patient refuses a lateral projection. The radiographer holds the patient in position and makes the exposure anyway. This is best described as:

PC-03 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Battery is intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, and the patient's refusal withdrew consent. Assault (A) is causing fear of contact without the contact itself. Libel (C) is written defamation. Res ipsa loquitur (D) is a negligence doctrine, "the thing speaks for itself."

Source: Cornell LII Wex — Battery

17. The air kerma 100 cm from the focal spot is 2.0 mGy. With everything else unchanged, what is the air kerma at 200 cm?

SP-03 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Inverse square law: 2.0 × (100/200)² = 2.0 × 0.25 = 0.5 mGy. 1.0 mGy (C) applies distance linearly. 0.25 mGy (A) squares twice. 4.0 mGy (D) inverts the ratio.

Source: Radiopaedia — Inverse square law

18. A technique of 10 mAs at 40 inches (102 cm) SID gives the correct receptor exposure. The SID must change to 72 inches (183 cm). To keep receptor exposure the same, the new mAs is about:

IA-03 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The exposure maintenance formula is the inverse square law turned around: new mAs = old mAs × (new SID / old SID)² = 10 × (72/40)² = 10 × 3.24 = 32.4 mAs. 18 mAs (C) uses the ratio without squaring it. 5.6 mAs (A) moves in the wrong direction.

Source: Calculation from the inverse square law — Radiopaedia — Inverse square law

19. A dose-area product (DAP) meter reads air kerma multiplied by beam area. Technique and SID are unchanged, but the field opens from 10 × 10 cm to 20 × 20 cm. The DAP reading will be about:

SR-03 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The air kerma at the center of the beam doesn't change, but the area goes from 100 cm² to 400 cm². Four times the area means four times the DAP. That's four times as much tissue irradiated and more scatter produced, which is the radiation-protection case for tight collimation in one number. "The same" (B) reflects only the center-of-field air kerma.

Source: Calculation from the DAP definition given in the stem. DAP meters are listed under Radiation Protection in ARRT's 2022 Radiography content specifications.

20. A PA chest is reviewed for inspiration. Which finding shows adequate inspiration?

TA-02 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Ten posterior ribs above the diaphragm is the standard criterion for a good inspiration. Seven (A) is a poor inspiration. Clavicles above the apices (C) describes an AP lordotic. Equidistant sternal clavicle ends (D) is the check for rotation, not inspiration.

Source: UMS — Chest, image evaluation

21. The main advantage of a rotating anode over a stationary anode is that it:

EQ-03 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The induction motor's stator sits outside the tube envelope and the rotor sits inside, spinning the anode. The electron beam hits a moving track, so heat spreads around the circumference instead of one spot. The heel effect (B) still exists. Focal spot size (A) is set by the filament, the focusing cup, and the target angle.

Source: Varex Imaging — How x-ray tubes work

22. To best demonstrate the scaphoid without foreshortening on a PA wrist, the radiographer should use:

EX-03 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Ulnar deviation elongates the scaphoid and opens the spaces around it. Radial deviation (B) is used to open the medial (ulnar-side) carpals instead. 45° medial rotation (D) moves the wrist into a medial oblique rather than opening the scaphoid.

Source: UMS — Wrist, PA ulnar deviation

23. On an AP axial (Towne) skull with the CR 30° caudad to the OML, a correctly angled image shows the dorsum sellae and posterior clinoids:

HSP-03 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. With 30° caudad to the OML (or 37° to the IOML), the dorsum sellae and posterior clinoids project inside the foramen magnum. If they fall outside it, check the CR angle and the head's flexion before repeating.

Source: UMS — Skull, AP axial (Towne)

24. A hospital is held liable for a radiographer's negligent act performed within the scope of employment. Which legal doctrine applies?

PC-04 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Respondeat superior ("let the master answer") makes an employer liable for an employee's acts within the scope of employment. Res ipsa loquitur (A) lets negligence be inferred from the event itself. Stare decisis (B) is following precedent. Primum non nocere (D) means "first, do no harm," an ethical principle, not a liability doctrine.

Source: Cornell LII Wex — Respondeat superior

25. Adding aluminum filtration to the x-ray beam lowers patient skin dose because it:

SR-04 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Low-energy photons add to entrance dose but rarely contribute to the image. Filtering them out raises the beam's average energy (beam hardening) and lowers skin dose. It does the opposite of B, doesn't change the kVp setting (C), and isn't a scatter-control device (D).

Source: Radiopaedia — Filters


Block 2: Questions 26–50

26. Under HIPAA, which disclosure is permitted without the patient's written authorization?

PC-05 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The Privacy Rule allows disclosure for treatment without authorization, and the minimum-necessary standard doesn't apply to treatment disclosures. A, B, and C have no treatment, payment, or operations purpose and need the patient's authorization.

Sources: 45 CFR 164.506(c) · HHS — Disclosures for treatment, payment, and operations

27. Paranasal sinus projections are done with the patient upright and a horizontal beam mainly to:

HSP-04 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Fluid settles and air rises only when the patient is upright, and only a horizontal beam can show the flat interface between them. Angling the CR on an upright patient blurs that line.

Source: UMS — Paranasal sinuses

28. Select all that apply. Which actions reduce patient dose during fluoroscopy?

SR-05 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A, B, and C. Lower pulse rates, last-image hold, and collimation all cut beam-on dose. Magnification mode (D) raises the dose rate, so the lowest practical magnification is the goal. Keeping the image receptor close to the patient lowers dose, so increasing the gap (E) raises it.

Source: Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists

29. A nongrid extremity technique is 5 mAs. The radiographer must switch to a grid with a conversion factor of 5. To keep receptor exposure the same, the new mAs is:

IA-04 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Going from no grid to a grid: new mAs = old mAs × grid conversion factor = 5 × 5 = 25 mAs. The grid absorbs scatter and some primary radiation, so exposure has to go up. Dividing (A) is the reverse move, used when removing a grid.

Source: Calculation using the grid conversion factor given in the stem. Grids appear under Image Acquisition in ARRT's content specifications.

30. The tangential (Gaynor-Hart) carpal canal projection demonstrates:

EX-04 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. With the wrist hyperextended and the CR about 25–30° to the long axis of the hand, the beam looks down the carpal canal, showing the pisiform and the hamulus in profile. A is the ulnar-deviation PA. B is the lateral-rotation elbow oblique.

Source: UMS — Wrist, Gaynor-Hart

31. Bone looks whiter than soft tissue on a radiograph mainly because its higher effective atomic number increases the probability of:

SP-04 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Photoelectric probability rises roughly with Z³ and falls roughly with 1/E³, so high-Z bone absorbs far more photons than soft tissue. That differential absorption is subject contrast. Compton scatter (A) depends little on atomic number and degrades contrast. Pair production (D) needs photon energies above 1.02 MeV, far outside diagnostic radiography.

Source: Radiopaedia — Photoelectric effect

32. On a PA chest, which finding shows the patient is not rotated?

TA-03 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Equal distances between each sternoclavicular joint and the spine mean no rotation. B is the inspiration check. C shows the shoulders were rolled forward. D describes a lordotic projection.

Source: UMS — Chest, image evaluation

33. Under the line-focus principle, decreasing the target (anode) angle will:

EQ-04 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Effective focal spot size ≈ actual focal spot × sin(target angle). A smaller angle gives a smaller effective spot and better detail. The cost is a stronger heel effect and less field coverage, the reverse of D.

Source: Radiopaedia — Line focus principle

34. A heavy patient has slid down the stretcher and needs to be moved up before imaging. What is the safest approach?

PC-06 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. NIOSH guidance for repositioning up in bed calls for a friction-reducing device and two or three caregivers, or more for heavier patients. It says this isn't a one-person task and that there's no safe way to manually lift an adult. Keep the load close and avoid twisting the spine (B) or reaching with extended arms (C). Pulling by the arms (A) can injure the patient's shoulders.

Source: NIOSH Publication 2009-127 — Safe patient handling

35. Under federal performance standards (21 CFR 1020.32), the minimum source-to-skin distance for a stationary fluoroscope in routine use is:

SR-06 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Stationary fluoroscopes must keep the source at least 38 cm from the skin, and mobile units at least 30 cm (B). Specific surgical applications may go shorter, but never below 20 cm. Small C-arms (maximum SID under 45 cm, made on or after June 10, 2006) have a separate 19 cm limit for extremity use. A longer source-to-skin distance lowers entrance skin dose.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(g)

36. Select all that apply. With OID unchanged, which changes improve spatial resolution?

IA-05 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A, B, and C. Geometric unsharpness = focal spot size × OID / SOD. A smaller focal spot shrinks it, and so does a longer SID with the same OID, because SOD grows. Motion blur destroys detail no matter the geometry. mAs and kVp (D, E) change receptor exposure and contrast, not geometric sharpness.

Sources: How Radiology Works — Magnification and blurring · Motion is listed under spatial resolution in ARRT's content specifications

37. Which elbow projection best demonstrates the radial head and neck free of the ulna?

EX-05 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. About 45° of lateral rotation separates the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from the ulna. Medial rotation (B) shows the coronoid process in profile instead. On the AP (C) and lateral (D), the radial head partly overlaps the ulna.

Source: UMS — Elbow, AP obliques

38. A patient who can't stand needs abdominal images to look for free intraperitoneal air. Which position is preferred?

TA-04 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. With the left side down and a horizontal beam, free air rises to the right side and outlines against the liver, away from the gastric air bubble. The patient should lie on that side at least 5 minutes, with 10–20 minutes preferred, so air can collect. A supine film (D) can't show an air–fluid interface. An immediate exposure (B) doesn't give air time to move.

Source: UMS — Abdomen series, lateral decubitus

39. On an AP axial oblique (LPO) of the cervical spine with the CR 15–20° cephalad, which intervertebral foramina are shown?

HSP-05 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Posterior cervical obliques show the foramina on the side away from the IR, so the LPO shows the right side. Anterior obliques (RAO/LAO, with a caudal angle) show the side closest to the IR. Lumbar obliques follow the opposite rule (see HSP-07).

Source: UMS — Cervical spine, AP axial oblique

40. An AEC system's backup timer:

EQ-05 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The backup timer is a safety cap that prevents overexposure and tube overload if the AEC doesn't stop the exposure, for example when the wrong chamber is selected or anatomy isn't over the chamber. Federal rules cap AEC exposures at 51 kVp and above at 60 kWs or 600 mAs per exposure (2,000 mAs below 51 kVp). The shortest exposure the AEC can end is a different setting, the minimum response time (B).

Sources: 21 CFR 1020.31(a)(3)(iii) · Radiologica — Automatic exposure control

41. An order reads "O2 at 2 L/min." Which device is typically used at this flow?

PC-07 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A nasal cannula is a low-flow device used at about 1–6 L/min. A non-rebreather (A) needs at least 10–15 L/min. A simple face mask (C) needs at least about 6 L/min so the patient doesn't rebreathe CO₂. A bag-valve mask (D) is for assisted ventilation. Don't change the ordered flow yourself; report concerns to the responsible clinician.

Source: Open RT text (WTCS) — Medical gas therapy devices

42. During fluoroscopy, the radiographer's main source of occupational exposure is:

SP-05 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Compton scattering dominates in soft tissue at diagnostic energies and is the main source of scattered radiation. Most worker dose comes from that patient scatter, not the tube itself. Staff should never be in the primary beam (B), and leakage (A) is limited by the tube housing.

Sources: Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q9545 · Radiopaedia — Compton effect

43. For fluoroscopic equipment made on or after May 19, 1995, the federal air kerma rate limit in normal operating mode is:

SR-07 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. 88 mGy/min is the normal-mode limit, traditionally quoted as 10 R/min. 176 mGy/min (D) is allowed only under high-level control with continuous manual activation. 44 mGy/min (B) is the rate above which the unit must have automatic exposure rate control. The limit is measured at a defined reference point, such as 1 cm above the tabletop for an under-table tube, not at the patient's skin.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(d)

44. SID is 100 cm and OID is 20 cm. An 8 cm object will measure about how long on the image?

IA-06 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. SOD = SID − OID = 80 cm. Magnification factor = SID/SOD = 100/80 = 1.25. Image size = 8 × 1.25 = 10 cm. 6.4 cm (A) applies the factor backward.

Source: How Radiology Works — Magnification and blurring

45. Which criterion shows a true lateral elbow?

EX-06 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A lateral elbow is flexed 90°, and superimposed epicondyles confirm no rotation. A full-extension lateral (A) hides the fat pads and the olecranon relationship. B describes the lateral-rotation oblique.

Source: UMS — Elbow, lateral

46. A patient who can't stand has a suspected left pneumothorax. Which decubitus position best demonstrates it?

TA-05 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Free air rises, so the side in question goes up: a left pneumothorax needs a right lateral decubitus. Fluid does the opposite. A suspected left pleural effusion goes left side down (A).

Source: UMS — Chest, clinical applications

47. An AEC's minimum response time matters most when:

EQ-06 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Minimum response time is the shortest exposure the AEC can end. If a thin part at high mA needs less time than that, the exposure runs long and the image is overexposed. Lower the mA or use a manual technique. A thick part (A) needs a long exposure, so the minimum isn't the issue. A short backup time (D) causes underexposure.

Sources: Radiologica — Automatic exposure control · 21 CFR 1020.31(a)(3)(ii)

48. A patient with diabetes took her usual morning insulin but hasn't eaten since midnight for her exam. While waiting, she becomes shaky, sweaty, and confused. These signs most suggest:

PC-08 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Insulin without food is a classic setup for low blood sugar, and shaking, sweating, and confusion are typical signs. Get help right away under your facility's emergency protocol. No contrast has been given (C), and hyperglycemia (B) tends to develop over hours with thirst and frequent urination.

Source: CDC — Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)

49. Under 21 CFR 1020.32(h), fluoroscopy equipment must:

SR-08 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Units made before June 10, 2006 have a cumulative timer, preset to no more than 5 minutes, that signals when it completes. Units made on or after that date must display fluoroscopy time at the operator's position and signal at each 5 minutes. The purpose is awareness of beam-on time, a direct driver of patient dose.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(h)

50. An AP shoulder with the humerus in external rotation places which structure in profile laterally?

EX-07 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. External rotation puts the humerus in a true AP, with the greater tubercle in profile on the lateral side. Internal rotation turns the humerus lateral and puts the lesser tubercle (A) in profile medially. The glenoid cavity (D) is shown in profile on the Grashey (see EX-09).

Source: UMS — Shoulder, AP external and internal rotation


Block 3: Questions 51–75

51. On a lateral cervical spine of a non-trauma patient, the shoulders still hide C7–T1 after the patient depresses them. Which projection is the usual next step?

HSP-06 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Raising one arm over the head and dropping the other shoulder separates the shoulders and shows the cervicothoracic junction. The open-mouth view (B) is for C1–C2. Flexion (D) shows motion, not the C7–T1 region hidden by the shoulders.

Source: UMS — Cervical spine, cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral

52. Select all that apply. A patient is on contact precautions for C. difficile. Which are appropriate?

PC-09 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A, B, and D. C. difficile calls for contact plus standard precautions. Gown and gloves are appropriate for contact with the patient or environment. When spore contamination is likely, soap-and-water handwashing physically removes spores; alcohol-based hand rub does not kill C. difficile spores, so C is wrong. Use an EPA-registered disinfectant with a sporicidal claim for contaminated equipment and surfaces. N95 respirators (E) are for airborne hazards, not routine C. difficile contact precautions.

Sources: CDC — Transmission-Based Precautions · CDC — Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers · CDC — C. diff clinical guidance

53. A long bone lies at an angle to the IR while the CR is perpendicular to the IR. The bone will appear:

IA-07 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. When the part isn't parallel to the IR, its projected length shrinks: foreshortening. Elongation (A) comes from the opposite setup, where the part is parallel to the IR and the tube is angled along its long axis.

Source: University of Mustansiriyah lecture — Distortion

54. Which quantity–SI unit pair is correct?

SP-06 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Effective dose and equivalent dose use the sievert. Absorbed dose and air kerma use the gray. Exposure uses coulombs per kilogram (C/kg). SI units are the primary units on the ARRT radiography exam.

Source: U.S. NRC — Measuring radiation

55. A PA oblique (scapular Y) shoulder shows the humeral head beneath the coracoid process. This indicates:

EX-08 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Normally the humeral head sits over the center of the "Y." Beneath the coracoid (anterior) means anterior dislocation. Beneath the acromion (posterior) means posterior dislocation (B).

Source: UMS — Shoulder, scapular Y

56. What is the annual occupational effective dose limit for radiation workers?

SR-09 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. NCRP Report 116 recommends 50 mSv per year, with a cumulative limit of 10 mSv × age. The NRC's federal rule for radioactive materials uses the same 0.05 Sv. X-ray equipment is regulated by the states. 1 mSv (A) is the annual limit for members of the public. 150 mSv (D) is the NRC's annual limit for the lens of the eye, not effective dose.

Sources: 10 CFR 20.1201 · Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q11553

57. Put these steps of image capture in an indirect-conversion flat-panel detector in order.

EQ-07 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA · Ordering question

  • P. Amorphous silicon photodiodes convert the light to electrical charge
  • Q. X-ray photons strike the cesium iodide scintillator
  • R. Thin-film transistors read out the stored charge
  • S. The scintillator emits light
  • T. The analog-to-digital converter digitizes the signal
Show answer and explanation

Answer: Q → S → P → R → T. Indirect conversion goes x-ray → light → charge → readout → digital value. Direct-conversion detectors use amorphous selenium to turn x-rays straight into charge, skipping the light stage. That's the difference the exam usually tests.

Source: Radiopaedia — Flat panel detector

58. Which projection best demonstrates the lung apices free of the clavicles?

TA-06 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. On an AP lordotic, the clavicles project nearly horizontal and above the apices, so the apices are clear of them. On a PA (A) and an AP supine (C), the clavicles overlie the apices.

Source: UMS — Chest, AP lordotic

59. A patient with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis is being transported to radiology. The patient should:

PC-10 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. CDC tells patients with suspected or confirmed infectious TB to wear a surgical or procedure mask, if possible, during transport and around others. The mask contains their respiratory droplets. Staff entering the patient's room wear fit-tested respirators (N95), not the patient (A). TB needs airborne precautions, not contact precautions alone (D).

Source: CDC — Guidelines for preventing the transmission of M. tuberculosis (MMWR 2005), Minnesota Department of Health copy

60. On a 45° RPO of the lumbar spine, which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated?

HSP-07 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Posterior lumbar obliques show the joints closest to the IR, the "Scottie dog" side, so the RPO shows the right side. Compare HSP-05: posterior cervical obliques show the side away from the IR. Keep the two rules separate.

Source: UMS — Lumbar spine, posterior oblique

61. Which cell type is the most radiosensitive?

SP-07 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Lymphocytes are highly radiosensitive even though they're mature and don't divide, a well-known exception to the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau. Nerve cells, muscle cells, and mature red cells (A, C, D) are among the most radioresistant.

Source: Stanford EHS — Biological effects of radiation

62. To use the anode heel effect on an AP thoracic spine, position the patient with:

IA-08 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Beam intensity is greater on the cathode side, so the thicker part goes there. On an AP thoracic spine, that means the lower thoracic region under the cathode and the head toward the anode. A and B say the same wrong thing.

Source: Radiopaedia — Anode heel effect

63. The posterior oblique (Grashey) shoulder projection is used to show:

EX-09 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The patient rotates 35–45° toward the affected side, placing the scapula parallel to the IR so the glenoid is seen in profile. The supraspinatus outlet (D) is the Neer projection.

Source: UMS — Shoulder, Grashey

64. During fluoroscopy, a radiographer wearing a lead apron has one personal dosimeter. Where should it be worn?

SR-10 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. A single dosimeter goes at collar level outside the apron, where it estimates dose to the unshielded head, neck, and eyes. Some programs add a second badge under the apron at the waist (A), but with one badge, the collar is the place.

Source: Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists

65. Nyquist frequency, the highest spatial frequency a detector can record, is 1 ÷ (2 × pixel pitch). Detector A has a 0.1 mm pitch and detector B has a 0.2 mm pitch. Which statement is correct?

EQ-08 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. A: 1 ÷ (2 × 0.1 mm) = 5 lp/mm. B: 1 ÷ (2 × 0.2 mm) = 2.5 lp/mm. Smaller pitch means higher limiting resolution, so A wins. C forgets the factor of 2. DQE (B) describes detection efficiency, not sampling limits.

Source: Calculation from the formula given in the stem. Pixel pitch, detector elements, and Nyquist frequency are listed under digital spatial resolution in ARRT's 2027 content specifications.

66. MRSA spreads to a second patient through a positioning sponge that wasn't disinfected between uses. In the chain of infection, the sponge is:

PC-11 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Fomites are inanimate objects that carry an infectious agent, a form of vehicle-borne indirect transmission. Vectors (B) are living carriers such as mosquitoes or ticks. Droplets (C) are direct transmission.

Source: CDC — Principles of Epidemiology, Lesson 1, Section 10

67. For a rib series with an injury below the diaphragm, the exposure should be made on:

TA-07 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Expiration and a recumbent position both raise the diaphragm, putting the lower ribs against the denser abdomen. Ribs above the diaphragm use the opposite: upright and full inspiration (A).

Source: UMS — Ribs

68. On an AP open-mouth projection of C1–C2, the upper incisors superimpose the dens. What correction is needed?

HSP-08 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The line from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the mastoid tips should be perpendicular to the IR. Incisors over the dens mean the chin is too low, so raise it. If the base of the skull overlaps the dens, the chin is too high, so flex (A).

Source: Radiopaedia — Cervical spine (odontoid view)

69. Which of these is a stochastic effect of radiation?

SP-08 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Stochastic effects have no threshold. Their probability, not their severity, rises with dose. Cancer is the classic example. Erythema, cataract, and epilation (B, C, D) are deterministic effects (tissue reactions): they have a threshold, and severity rises with dose.

Source: Stanford EHS — Biological effects of radiation

70. A PA chest is taken with AEC, but only the center chamber, behind the spine and mediastinum, is selected. The most likely result is:

IA-09 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The AEC keeps exposing until its selected chamber gets enough radiation. Behind the dense mediastinum and spine, that takes longer, so the air-filled lungs receive too much. For a PA chest, the outer chambers behind the lungs are normally selected.

Source: Radiopaedia — Automatic exposure control

71. An AP oblique foot with 30–40° medial rotation best demonstrates:

EX-10 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Medial rotation of 30–40° opens the lateral side of the foot: the cuboid in profile, the sinus tarsi, and the third through fifth metatarsal bases. The sesamoids (A) need a tangential projection.

Source: UMS — Foot, AP medial oblique

72. An OSL dosimeter uses:

SR-11 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters use carbon-doped aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃:C). Light makes them release a signal proportional to dose. Heating lithium fluoride (A) describes a TLD.

Sources: Landauer — Luxel+ dosimeter · AAPM — OSL dosimetry presentation

73. On a digital image display, narrowing the window width will:

EQ-09 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Window width controls contrast: a narrower range of values spread across the gray scale looks more contrasty. Window level controls brightness. Neither changes the detector's spatial resolution (D).

Source: Radiopaedia — Windowing

74. Neutropenic (protective, or "reverse") isolation is used mainly to:

PC-12 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Protective isolation keeps infectious agents away from a patient whose immune defenses are very low. CDC's term for the room setup is a "Protective Environment." Protecting others from the patient (A) is what transmission-based precautions do.

Source: CDC — Isolation precautions glossary

75. For an AP mortise projection of the ankle, the leg is internally rotated about 15–20° so that:

EX-11 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The malleoli don't lie in a true coronal plane. Rotating the leg 15–20° medially brings the intermalleolar line parallel to the IR and opens all three sides of the mortise.

Source: UMS — Ankle, AP mortise


Block 4: Questions 76–100

76. During a power injection of IV iodinated contrast, the patient reports pain and swelling at the injection site. What should be done first?

PC-13 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Stop the injection as soon as extravasation is suspected. The ACR recommends examining the patient, elevating the affected extremity, and using either cold or warm compresses; evidence does not establish one compress temperature as clearly superior. The patient should receive instructions about worsening pain, swelling, sensory change, reduced motion, or skin injury. Squeezing or massaging the site (B) is not recommended.

Source: ACR Manual on Contrast Media — “Extravasation of Contrast Media”

77. An image shows quantum mottle from too few photons reaching the detector. The best correction for the repeat is:

IA-10 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Mottle is a shortage of signal, and only more photons fix it. Edge enhancement (B) and narrower windowing (C) make noise more visible. Lowering kVp at the same mAs (D) sends even fewer photons to the detector.

Source: Radiopaedia — Quantum noise

78. For a plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus, the CR is angled:

EX-12 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The CR enters at the base of the third metatarsal at 40° cephalad to the long axis of the foot. That shows the calcaneus from the tuberosity to the talocalcaneal joint.

Sources: Radiopaedia — Calcaneus (axial view) · UMS — Calcaneus

79. Put the acute radiation syndromes in order, from the lowest to the highest whole-body dose at which the full syndrome appears.

SP-09 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology · Ordering question

  • P. Gastrointestinal
  • Q. Hematopoietic
  • R. Cardiovascular/central nervous system
Show answer and explanation

Answer: Q → P → R. According to CDC, the full hematopoietic syndrome appears at about 0.7–10 Gy (mild symptoms possibly from 0.3 Gy), the GI syndrome above about 10 Gy, and the cardiovascular/CNS syndrome above about 50 Gy. The order follows tissue radiosensitivity: bone marrow stem cells, then the gut lining, then the far more resistant nervous system.

Source: CDC — Acute radiation syndrome: information for clinicians

80. During an upper GI series, which position best demonstrates the barium-filled pylorus, duodenal bulb, and C-loop?

TA-08 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. In the RAO, barium flows toward the pylorus and duodenum, filling the bulb and C-loop in profile. The LPO (A) is the reverse: barium shifts to the fundus and the bulb fills with air for a double-contrast view.

Source: UMS — Upper GI series

81. During C-arm fluoroscopy with a horizontal (lateral) beam, where should the radiographer stand to reduce occupational exposure?

SR-12 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Scatter is greatest where the beam enters the patient, on the tube side. The patient's body attenuates much of it toward the receptor side, so stand next to the image receptor.

Sources: Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists · Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q9545

82. Two projections are exposed on one DR detector field. The system doesn't recognize the collimated borders, the exposure indicator is far off, and the image looks wrong. The most likely cause is:

EQ-10 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. Processing software analyzes a histogram of the anatomy inside the collimated area. If it can't find the borders, or the field holds multiple exposures or large raw-beam areas, it identifies the values of interest incorrectly. That throws off both the exposure indicator and the displayed image.

Source: AAPM Report 116 executive summary

83. On an AP pelvis, the lesser trochanters are prominent in profile and the femoral necks look short. The most likely cause is:

HSP-09 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Rotating the legs internally 15–20° puts the femoral necks parallel to the IR and largely hides the lesser trochanters. A clearly visible lesser trochanter with foreshortened necks means the legs are externally rotated. A is the correction.

Source: UMS — Pelvis

84. Minutes after IV iodinated contrast, a patient develops facial swelling and shortness of breath. Under the ACR classification, this allergic-like reaction is:

PC-14 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The ACR classifies "facial edema with dyspnea" as severe. Without the breathing difficulty, facial swelling alone would rate lower. Stay with the patient, call for help, and start the facility's emergency response; a radiologist or physician directs treatment. Onset within minutes rules out a delayed reaction (D).

Source: ACR Manual on Contrast Media · ACR severity table reproduced in Insights into Imaging, Table 3

85. A DR image is badly overexposed, and parts of it are saturated. Which statement is correct?

IA-11 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. At saturation, every pixel in the area is forced to the maximum value, and the differences between tissues are gone. No windowing (B, D) can bring back data that was never recorded. If the lost anatomy matters, the image has to be repeated.

Source: AAPM Report 116 executive summary

86. For an AP knee, a thin patient measures 17 cm from ASIS to tabletop. The CR should be:

EX-13 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The rule: under 19 cm, angle 3–5° caudad; 19–24 cm, perpendicular; over 24 cm, angle 3–5° cephalad. Angling to match the tibial plateau opens the joint space. Watch for study sources that reverse this rule.

Source: UMS — Knee and patella

87. Following Image Gently principles, the technique for a pediatric chest should be:

SR-13 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Image Gently's message is "child-size" technique: measure the child and adjust, because one size doesn't fit all. Adult technique (A) or doubled technique (B) overexposes the child.

Source: Image Gently — Digital radiography

88. During a contrast enema, which position best opens the left colic (splenic) flexure?

TA-09 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The LAO and RPO open the splenic flexure. The RAO and LPO (A, C) open the hepatic flexure. A memory hook: anterior obliques open the flexure on the side down, and posterior obliques open the side up.

Source: UMS — Contrast enema, obliques

89. Which standard formats and transmits medical images between imaging equipment and PACS?

EQ-11 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. DICOM is the international standard for medical images and related information. HL7 (B) carries clinical and administrative text messages, such as orders and reports. HIPAA (C) is a privacy law, not a data standard.

Source: DICOM — About

90. Before IV iodinated contrast, which lab value is most useful for assessing kidney function?

PC-15 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The ACR–National Kidney Foundation consensus uses eGFR to stratify risk. Patients with eGFR under 30 mL/min/1.73 m² who aren't on dialysis are higher risk and are candidates for preventive IV fluids. Metformin is held only when eGFR is under 30 or there's acute kidney injury.

Sources: RSNA — ACR–NKF contrast consensus · ACR Manual on Contrast Media

91. With other factors adjusted to keep receptor exposure the same, increasing kVp will:

IA-12 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Higher-energy photons penetrate tissues more evenly, with less differential absorption and more Compton scatter, so subject contrast drops. With mAs lowered to compensate, patient dose goes down, not up (D). On digital systems, displayed contrast is largely set by processing (the LUT and window width).

Source: How Radiology Works — Contrast-to-noise ratio

92. Well-oxygenated tissue is more sensitive to x-radiation than hypoxic tissue. This is called:

SP-10 · Safety · Radiation Physics & Radiobiology

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The oxygen enhancement ratio compares the dose needed for the same effect under hypoxic and oxygenated conditions. It's about 3 for x-rays (low-LET radiation) and smaller for high-LET radiation.

Source: ICRPaedia — Oxygen enhancement ratio

93. An emergency patient has a suspected hip fracture. Which lateral projection is appropriate?

HSP-10 · Procedures · Head, Spine & Pelvis

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. The cross-table lateral uses a horizontal beam and raises the unaffected leg, so the injured leg never has to move. Frog-leg positions (A, B) require abducting and rotating the injured leg and are contraindicated when a fracture is suspected.

Sources: UMS — Hip, axiolateral (Danelius-Miller) · Radiopaedia — Hip (horizontal beam lateral view)

94. For a lateral knee, the knee is flexed 20–30° and the CR is angled 5–7° cephalad to:

EX-14 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The medial condyle extends lower than the lateral one, and the slight cephalic angle lines up their distal margins. Limiting flexion to 20–30° avoids tightening the muscles and tendons that hold the patella in place.

Source: UMS — Knee and patella, lateral knee

95. Before a lumbar spine series, a patient of childbearing age says she might be pregnant. The radiographer should:

SR-14 · Safety · Radiation Protection

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The ACR–SPR practice parameter calls for screening and, when pregnancy status is still uncertain, notifying the radiologist before the study. The patient, referring physician, and radiologist then decide whether to proceed, modify, or postpone. Proceeding (A, B) skips that decision. Rescheduling on your own (D) leaves the ordering team uninformed.

Source: ACR–SPR Practice Parameter for Imaging Pregnant or Potentially Pregnant Patients with Ionizing Radiation (rev. 2023), §III.B–E

96. For an esophagram, an RAO of 35–40° projects the esophagus:

TA-10 · Procedures · Thorax & Abdomen

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The RAO rotation separates the esophagus from the spine so it sits in the clear space between the vertebral column and the heart. On a straight PA or AP, it overlies the spine (A).

Source: UMS — Esophagus, RAO

97. Under 21 CFR 1020.31(d)(2)(i), at 100 cm SID the total misalignment between the light field and x-ray field edges, along either the length or the width, must not exceed:

EQ-12 · Image Production · Equipment Operation & QA

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. The limit is 2% of the distance from the source to the center of the light field (the SID, when the IR is perpendicular to the beam). 2% × 100 cm = 2 cm. A routine collimator QC test checks this, because a misaligned field irradiates tissue you didn't intend to include or cuts off anatomy you did.

Source: 21 CFR 1020.31(d)(2)(i)

98. A patient with suspected bowel perforation needs a GI contrast study. Which contrast is generally preferred?

PC-16 · Patient Care

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. Barium (B) that leaks into the peritoneal cavity can cause peritonitis, so known or strongly suspected GI perforation is a contraindication to barium. Water-soluble contrast is generally preferred.

Source: Radiopaedia — Barium sulfate

99. AAPM Report 116 defines the deviation index (DI) as 10 × log₁₀(EI ÷ target EI). A DI of +3 means the detector received about:

IA-13 · Image Production · Image Acquisition & Evaluation

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. 10 × log₁₀(2) ≈ 3, so DI +3 is about double the target exposure, and DI −3 is about half (B). DI is logarithmic, so it doesn't read as a percent (A) or a simple multiple (D). A DI near 0 means the detector exposure matched the target for that exam.

Source: AAPM Report 116 executive summary

100. For the PA axial (Camp-Coventry) intercondylar fossa projection, the knee is flexed 40–50° and the CR is directed:

EX-15 · Procedures · Extremities

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. With the patient prone and the lower leg raised 40–50°, the CR is angled to match, perpendicular to the lower leg, to open the intercondylar fossa. The Holmblad method gets a similar result by kneeling (about 60–70° flexion) with the CR perpendicular to the IR.

Source: UMS — Knee and patella, Camp-Coventry and Holmblad


100 original, unofficial practice questions covering all four ARRT Radiography content categories: Patient Care, Safety, Image Production, and Procedures. Every question has its answer, explanation, and source right underneath. No signup. If you test on or after March 1, 2027, use the updated ARRT content specifications alongside this set because the new blueprint adds topics that these 100 questions do not all sample.

Score yourself by category

Check your answers above. Then count how many you got right in each category. A select-all or ordering question counts as correct only if your answer matches completely.

Score yourself by category
Category Question numbers Questions Your correct
Patient Care 2, 9, 16, 24, 26, 34, 41, 48, 52, 59, 66, 74, 76, 84, 90, 98 16 ___
Safety: Radiation Physics & Radiobiology 3, 10, 17, 31, 42, 54, 61, 69, 79, 92 10 ___
Safety: Radiation Protection 6, 13, 19, 25, 28, 35, 43, 49, 56, 64, 72, 81, 87, 95 14 ___
Image Production: Image Acquisition & Evaluation 4, 11, 18, 29, 36, 44, 53, 62, 70, 77, 85, 91, 99 13 ___
Image Production: Equipment Operation & QA 7, 14, 21, 33, 40, 47, 57, 65, 73, 82, 89, 97 12 ___
Procedures: Head, Spine & Pelvis 8, 15, 23, 27, 39, 51, 60, 68, 83, 93 10 ___
Procedures: Thorax & Abdomen 1, 20, 32, 38, 46, 58, 67, 80, 88, 96 10 ___
Procedures: Extremities 5, 12, 22, 30, 37, 45, 50, 55, 63, 71, 75, 78, 86, 94, 100 15 ___
Total 100 ___

Your total is your score on these 100 questions. It isn't an ARRT scaled score, and it can't be converted into one. ARRT reports scores on a 1–99 scale, where 75 passes, and it sets the raw score needed for each exam form through its own scoring studies. With 10 to 16 questions per category, treat your category results as a direction to study, not a precise measurement. One or two questions can swing a small category a long way.

How to use your results

  1. Take each block cold the first time. Don't look anything up. Mark any question you guessed on, even if you got it right.
  2. Read every explanation you missed or guessed. The goal is the principle behind the answer, because the real exam won't repeat these questions. If you can only answer because you remember this question, count that topic as unfinished.
  3. Start with your weakest category. Review that topic in your program materials or the ARRT content specifications, then retry only the questions you missed.
  4. Come back to the whole block a few days later. If a weak category holds up, your review worked. If it keeps dropping points, that's where your next study hours go.
  5. Practice pacing. The real exam allows about one minute per question. Once the content feels solid, time a full block: 25 questions in about 25 minutes.

How this test lines up with the real exam

ARRT publishes how many scored questions come from each content category, and those counts change for exams taken on or after March 1, 2027. This set is spread across the same eight subcategories, with counts between the two editions. It isn't weighted exactly like either one, and it isn't a full-length simulation.

How this test lines up with the real exam: scored questions by category
Category Scored questions, exams through Feb 28, 2027 Scored questions, exams from Mar 1, 2027 In this set
Patient Care 33 31 16
Safety: Radiation Physics & Radiobiology 21 21 10
Safety: Radiation Protection 29 25 14
Image Production: Image Acquisition & Evaluation 26 26 13
Image Production: Equipment Operation & QA 25 25 12
Procedures: Head, Spine & Pelvis 18 20 10
Procedures: Thorax & Abdomen 20 22 10
Procedures: Extremities 28 30 15
Total scored 200 200 100

Sources: ARRT Radiography content specifications in effect through Feb 28, 2027 and effective Mar 1, 2027, page 1 of each.

Which edition applies to you? Your test date decides it, not your graduation date. Testing on or before Feb 28, 2027 means the current specification. Testing on or after Mar 1, 2027 means the 2027 specification. These questions avoid major topics ARRT is dropping, such as computed radiography (CR), intravenous urography, and compensating filters, so most of the bank remains relevant across the change. But the 2027 blueprint also adds topics this set does not fully sample. If you test on or after March 1, use the 2027 content specifications as your checklist rather than treating these 100 questions as complete blueprint coverage.

What's different in the 2027 edition: more Procedures questions (72, up from 66), and fewer in Patient Care and Radiation Protection. New topics include:

  • patient scheduling
  • pregnancy and the Image Wisely and Image Gently resources
  • digital detector characteristics such as DQE and exposure latitude
  • image contrast versus subject contrast
  • virtual grids
  • informatics security and teleradiology
  • lumbar puncture and epidural injections
  • joint injection and aspiration
  • airway and ingested foreign bodies
  • line placement with a C-arm
  • nasogastric and orogastric tube placement

Computed radiography, intravenous urography, and compensating filters are gone. (ARRT announcement, May 1, 2026)

ARRT has also approved an updated Radiography passing standard effective March 1, 2027. ARRT will continue reporting examination results with scaled scores; a raw percentage on this practice set should not be used as a stand-in for that standard. (ARRT announcement, Aug. 27, 2026)

The real exam in brief

  • 230 questions: 200 scored plus 30 unscored pilot questions. ARRT does not identify the pilot questions, and exam questions are presented in random order.
  • 230 minutes of test time inside a 250-minute appointment. The appointment also covers an 8-minute tutorial, a 2-minute nondisclosure agreement, and a 10-minute survey.
  • Question formats: most are multiple choice with one best answer. Some ask you to select several answers, sort items into order with the mouse, click an area of an image, or answer after a short video clip. This set includes select-all and ordering questions. It has no image or video questions.
  • Calculator: an on-screen basic or scientific calculator, or a basic four-function calculator from test center staff if you ask. You can't bring your own.
  • Scoring: a scaled score from 1 to 99. 75 passes, and that's not 75% correct.
  • Attempts: three attempts within three years of the date your first exam window opens.

Source: ARRT 2026 Primary Eligibility Pathway Handbook, pp. 14, 37, 40, 43–44, 53–54.

Why there are no gonadal shielding questions

Plenty of free question sets still teach rules like "shield the gonads when they're within 5 cm of the field" as current practice. In 2019 the American Association of Physicists in Medicine recommended discontinuing routine gonadal and fetal shielding, and NCRP followed in 2021. ARRT has said its exams may not refer specifically to gonadal and fetal shielding procedures, but they will still cover patient radiation exposure and protection. This set tests the protection principles that still hold: collimation, technique selection, distance, fluoroscopy dose controls, and pregnancy screening.

Source: ARRT position on gonadal and fetal shielding

Quick answers

Are these real ARRT questions? No. Every question was written for this page. ARRT doesn't release its exam questions. Its handbook warns candidates about study materials that claim to include them, and it bars test takers from sharing exam questions or answer options.

Can I tell from this test whether I'll pass? No. A score on 100 unofficial questions isn't calibrated to ARRT's scale, so it can't predict a pass. Use it to find what to study. To see how ARRT reports passing performance and how programs compare, read our ARRT radiography pass rates by program analysis.

What should I study besides practice questions? ARRT doesn't endorse any study guide or mock registry. It points candidates to its content specifications as the list of topics the exam covers. Use the official content specifications as your checklist and your program's materials to fill the gaps.

How we built and checked this test

The Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team wrote all 100 questions for this page and spread them across ARRT's eight content subcategories. We checked the fact or principle behind each answer against an open, citable source and linked it under the question. The sources include:

  • federal regulations (21 CFR, 10 CFR, 45 CFR)
  • CDC
  • the ACR Manual on Contrast Media
  • AAPM
  • Image Wisely and Image Gently
  • The Joint Commission
  • NIOSH
  • Radiopaedia
  • a university radiographic procedures review

We replaced questions that couldn't be tied to a solid source, and we left out content being dropped from the 2027 edition. Exam facts on this page come from ARRT's 2026 handbook and its content specifications.

That checking was done against sources. It isn't the same as review by a credentialed radiographer or medical physicist. If you think an answer is wrong, use our corrections page and include the question's ID (for example, EX-13). We'll check it against the source.


Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT). Exam and credential names are used for identification only, and trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and are not ARRT exam questions.

Free ARRT Radiography Practice Test: 100 Questions + Answers