Free ARRT Radiography Practice Test
100 original, unofficial questions. No signup. Testing on or after March 1, 2027? Use the updated ARRT specifications alongside this set; newly added topics aren't all covered.
Block 1: Questions 1–25
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Answer: C. A longer SID means less beam divergence, so structures that sit away from the image receptor are magnified less. That's why the heart's size can be judged on a 72-inch PA chest. A is backwards: a longer SID needs more mAs to keep receptor exposure, not less. B and D aren't the reason for the distance standard.
Source: UMS Radiographic Procedures Review — Chest, PA chest
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Answer: A. Use two patient-specific identifiers, such as name and date of birth, and have the patient state them. The Joint Commission says a room number is not an acceptable identifier (C). A yes/no question (B) invites an anxious or hard-of-hearing patient to agree with the wrong name, so open-ended questions are standard good practice. A family member's word (D) isn't verification against the order.
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Answer: D. The filament circuit heats the tungsten filament until electrons boil off its surface. That's thermionic emission, and it supplies the electrons that kVp then accelerates toward the anode. Characteristic interactions (A) happen at the target after the electrons arrive. The step-up transformer (B) provides kilovoltage, not electrons. Compton interactions (C) are photon events, not an electron source.
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Answer: B. Receptor exposure is directly proportional to mAs, so going from half the target to the target means doubling 10 mAs to 20 mAs. The grain is quantum mottle: too few photons reached the detector. A smoothing filter (C) can hide it cosmetically but can't add the missing signal. Cutting mAs (A) makes it worse. Dropping kVp about 15% (D) roughly halves receptor exposure, canceling the mAs increase.
In AAPM terms, half the target exposure is a deviation index of about −3.
Sources: Radiopaedia — Quantum noise · AAPM Report 116 executive summary
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Answer: C. When the hand is rotated about 45°, the fingers drop toward the IR. If they aren't supported parallel to it, the phalanges foreshorten and the IP joints close. A radiolucent step sponge fixes that. Letting the fingertips rest on the IR (D) is the error itself. Over-rotating (A) causes metacarpal overlap. Angling the CR (B) doesn't correct finger position.
Sources: Radiopaedia — Hand (oblique view) · UMS — Hand
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Answer: A. Treating the patient as a rough point source, intensity follows the inverse square law: double the distance and exposure falls to (1/2)², or one-quarter. Scatter does go in all directions (D), which is exactly why distance works in every direction. One-half (B) is the linear mistake.
Source: Radiopaedia — Inverse square law
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Answer: D. Typical ripple: single-phase about 100%, three-phase six-pulse about 13–14%, three-phase twelve-pulse about 4%, high-frequency about 1% or less. Lower ripple means a more nearly constant voltage, a higher average photon energy, and more efficient x-ray production.
Source: Radiopaedia — Ripple
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Answer: A. With 15° caudal angulation exiting at the nasion, the petrous ridges land in the lower third of the orbits. The foramen magnum (B) is where the dorsum sellae belongs on an AP axial (Towne). Ridges just below the maxillary sinuses (C) is the Waters criterion. D isn't produced by a correctly angled Caldwell.
Source: UMS — Skull, PA axial (Caldwell)
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Answer: C. When a patient is unconscious, can't give consent, and needs urgent care, consent is implied. An unresponsive patient can't give oral consent (B), and a radiographer can't consent on the patient's behalf (A). Waiting for a guardian (D) would delay necessary emergency care.
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Answer: A. Bremsstrahlung ("braking") radiation forms when a projectile electron slows near a target nucleus. Below 70 kVp the beam is essentially all bremsstrahlung. Above 70 kVp, tungsten K-characteristic x-rays (about 69.5 keV) appear but still make up only around 15%. Photoelectric and coherent interactions (C, D) happen in the patient, not in the tube.
Source: Radiopaedia — Bremsstrahlung
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Answer: D. A 15% kVp increase roughly doubles receptor exposure, so mAs is halved: 70 × 1.15 = 80.5, so about 80 kVp at 10 mAs. Patient dose drops by about a third, not half, because entrance dose scales roughly with kVp² × mAs (1.15² × 0.5 ≈ 0.66). The tradeoff is lower subject contrast. A raises dose. B doubles receptor exposure. C halves it.
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Answer: B. An AP thumb needs extreme medial rotation of the hand so the thumbnail side lies flat on the IR, centered to the first MCP joint. A PA thumb (C) adds OID and magnification. A describes a lateral thumb. D is neither centering nor rotation for the thumb.
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Answer: C. Less irradiated tissue means less patient dose and less scatter produced. A higher-ratio grid (A) reduces scatter at the detector but requires more exposure, so dose goes up. A shorter SID (B) raises entrance skin dose. Opening the field (D) does the opposite of what's needed.
Sources: Image Gently — Digital radiography · Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists
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Answer: A. Rectifiers keep current flowing one way through the tube, protecting it and making every half-cycle useful. Raising voltage to kilovolts (B) is the step-up transformer's job. Filament heating (C) belongs to the filament circuit.
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Answer: D. A correct Waters places the OML at 37° to the IR, which drops the petrous ridges just below the maxillary sinuses. Ridges over the sinuses mean the chin wasn't extended enough. Tucking the chin (A) makes it worse. The Waters uses a perpendicular CR to the IR, not a caudal angle (B).
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Answer: B. Battery is intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, and the patient's refusal withdrew consent. Assault (A) is causing fear of contact without the contact itself. Libel (C) is written defamation. Res ipsa loquitur (D) is a negligence doctrine, "the thing speaks for itself."
Source: Cornell LII Wex — Battery
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Answer: B. Inverse square law: 2.0 × (100/200)² = 2.0 × 0.25 = 0.5 mGy. 1.0 mGy (C) applies distance linearly. 0.25 mGy (A) squares twice. 4.0 mGy (D) inverts the ratio.
Source: Radiopaedia — Inverse square law
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Answer: D. The exposure maintenance formula is the inverse square law turned around: new mAs = old mAs × (new SID / old SID)² = 10 × (72/40)² = 10 × 3.24 = 32.4 mAs. 18 mAs (C) uses the ratio without squaring it. 5.6 mAs (A) moves in the wrong direction.
Source: Calculation from the inverse square law — Radiopaedia — Inverse square law
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Answer: D. The air kerma at the center of the beam doesn't change, but the area goes from 100 cm² to 400 cm². Four times the area means four times the DAP. That's four times as much tissue irradiated and more scatter produced, which is the radiation-protection case for tight collimation in one number. "The same" (B) reflects only the center-of-field air kerma.
Source: Calculation from the DAP definition given in the stem. DAP meters are listed under Radiation Protection in ARRT's 2022 Radiography content specifications.
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Answer: B. Ten posterior ribs above the diaphragm is the standard criterion for a good inspiration. Seven (A) is a poor inspiration. Clavicles above the apices (C) describes an AP lordotic. Equidistant sternal clavicle ends (D) is the check for rotation, not inspiration.
Source: UMS — Chest, image evaluation
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Answer: C. The induction motor's stator sits outside the tube envelope and the rotor sits inside, spinning the anode. The electron beam hits a moving track, so heat spreads around the circumference instead of one spot. The heel effect (B) still exists. Focal spot size (A) is set by the filament, the focusing cup, and the target angle.
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Answer: A. Ulnar deviation elongates the scaphoid and opens the spaces around it. Radial deviation (B) is used to open the medial (ulnar-side) carpals instead. 45° medial rotation (D) moves the wrist into a medial oblique rather than opening the scaphoid.
Source: UMS — Wrist, PA ulnar deviation
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Answer: D. With 30° caudad to the OML (or 37° to the IOML), the dorsum sellae and posterior clinoids project inside the foramen magnum. If they fall outside it, check the CR angle and the head's flexion before repeating.
Source: UMS — Skull, AP axial (Towne)
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Answer: C. Respondeat superior ("let the master answer") makes an employer liable for an employee's acts within the scope of employment. Res ipsa loquitur (A) lets negligence be inferred from the event itself. Stare decisis (B) is following precedent. Primum non nocere (D) means "first, do no harm," an ethical principle, not a liability doctrine.
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Answer: A. Low-energy photons add to entrance dose but rarely contribute to the image. Filtering them out raises the beam's average energy (beam hardening) and lowers skin dose. It does the opposite of B, doesn't change the kVp setting (C), and isn't a scatter-control device (D).
Source: Radiopaedia — Filters
Block 2: Questions 26–50
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Answer: D. The Privacy Rule allows disclosure for treatment without authorization, and the minimum-necessary standard doesn't apply to treatment disclosures. A, B, and C have no treatment, payment, or operations purpose and need the patient's authorization.
Sources: 45 CFR 164.506(c) · HHS — Disclosures for treatment, payment, and operations
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Answer: A. Fluid settles and air rises only when the patient is upright, and only a horizontal beam can show the flat interface between them. Angling the CR on an upright patient blurs that line.
Source: UMS — Paranasal sinuses
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Answer: A, B, and C. Lower pulse rates, last-image hold, and collimation all cut beam-on dose. Magnification mode (D) raises the dose rate, so the lowest practical magnification is the goal. Keeping the image receptor close to the patient lowers dose, so increasing the gap (E) raises it.
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Answer: C. Going from no grid to a grid: new mAs = old mAs × grid conversion factor = 5 × 5 = 25 mAs. The grid absorbs scatter and some primary radiation, so exposure has to go up. Dividing (A) is the reverse move, used when removing a grid.
Source: Calculation using the grid conversion factor given in the stem. Grids appear under Image Acquisition in ARRT's content specifications.
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Answer: D. With the wrist hyperextended and the CR about 25–30° to the long axis of the hand, the beam looks down the carpal canal, showing the pisiform and the hamulus in profile. A is the ulnar-deviation PA. B is the lateral-rotation elbow oblique.
Source: UMS — Wrist, Gaynor-Hart
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Answer: C. Photoelectric probability rises roughly with Z³ and falls roughly with 1/E³, so high-Z bone absorbs far more photons than soft tissue. That differential absorption is subject contrast. Compton scatter (A) depends little on atomic number and degrades contrast. Pair production (D) needs photon energies above 1.02 MeV, far outside diagnostic radiography.
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Answer: A. Equal distances between each sternoclavicular joint and the spine mean no rotation. B is the inspiration check. C shows the shoulders were rolled forward. D describes a lordotic projection.
Source: UMS — Chest, image evaluation
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Answer: B. Effective focal spot size ≈ actual focal spot × sin(target angle). A smaller angle gives a smaller effective spot and better detail. The cost is a stronger heel effect and less field coverage, the reverse of D.
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Answer: D. NIOSH guidance for repositioning up in bed calls for a friction-reducing device and two or three caregivers, or more for heavier patients. It says this isn't a one-person task and that there's no safe way to manually lift an adult. Keep the load close and avoid twisting the spine (B) or reaching with extended arms (C). Pulling by the arms (A) can injure the patient's shoulders.
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Answer: C. Stationary fluoroscopes must keep the source at least 38 cm from the skin, and mobile units at least 30 cm (B). Specific surgical applications may go shorter, but never below 20 cm. Small C-arms (maximum SID under 45 cm, made on or after June 10, 2006) have a separate 19 cm limit for extremity use. A longer source-to-skin distance lowers entrance skin dose.
Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(g)
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Answer: A, B, and C. Geometric unsharpness = focal spot size × OID / SOD. A smaller focal spot shrinks it, and so does a longer SID with the same OID, because SOD grows. Motion blur destroys detail no matter the geometry. mAs and kVp (D, E) change receptor exposure and contrast, not geometric sharpness.
Sources: How Radiology Works — Magnification and blurring · Motion is listed under spatial resolution in ARRT's content specifications
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Answer: A. About 45° of lateral rotation separates the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from the ulna. Medial rotation (B) shows the coronoid process in profile instead. On the AP (C) and lateral (D), the radial head partly overlaps the ulna.
Source: UMS — Elbow, AP obliques
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Answer: C. With the left side down and a horizontal beam, free air rises to the right side and outlines against the liver, away from the gastric air bubble. The patient should lie on that side at least 5 minutes, with 10–20 minutes preferred, so air can collect. A supine film (D) can't show an air–fluid interface. An immediate exposure (B) doesn't give air time to move.
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Answer: D. Posterior cervical obliques show the foramina on the side away from the IR, so the LPO shows the right side. Anterior obliques (RAO/LAO, with a caudal angle) show the side closest to the IR. Lumbar obliques follow the opposite rule (see HSP-07).
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Answer: A. The backup timer is a safety cap that prevents overexposure and tube overload if the AEC doesn't stop the exposure, for example when the wrong chamber is selected or anatomy isn't over the chamber. Federal rules cap AEC exposures at 51 kVp and above at 60 kWs or 600 mAs per exposure (2,000 mAs below 51 kVp). The shortest exposure the AEC can end is a different setting, the minimum response time (B).
Sources: 21 CFR 1020.31(a)(3)(iii) · Radiologica — Automatic exposure control
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Answer: B. A nasal cannula is a low-flow device used at about 1–6 L/min. A non-rebreather (A) needs at least 10–15 L/min. A simple face mask (C) needs at least about 6 L/min so the patient doesn't rebreathe CO₂. A bag-valve mask (D) is for assisted ventilation. Don't change the ordered flow yourself; report concerns to the responsible clinician.
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Answer: D. Compton scattering dominates in soft tissue at diagnostic energies and is the main source of scattered radiation. Most worker dose comes from that patient scatter, not the tube itself. Staff should never be in the primary beam (B), and leakage (A) is limited by the tube housing.
Sources: Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q9545 · Radiopaedia — Compton effect
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Answer: C. 88 mGy/min is the normal-mode limit, traditionally quoted as 10 R/min. 176 mGy/min (D) is allowed only under high-level control with continuous manual activation. 44 mGy/min (B) is the rate above which the unit must have automatic exposure rate control. The limit is measured at a defined reference point, such as 1 cm above the tabletop for an under-table tube, not at the patient's skin.
Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(d)
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Answer: C. SOD = SID − OID = 80 cm. Magnification factor = SID/SOD = 100/80 = 1.25. Image size = 8 × 1.25 = 10 cm. 6.4 cm (A) applies the factor backward.
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Answer: D. A lateral elbow is flexed 90°, and superimposed epicondyles confirm no rotation. A full-extension lateral (A) hides the fat pads and the olecranon relationship. B describes the lateral-rotation oblique.
Source: UMS — Elbow, lateral
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Answer: C. Free air rises, so the side in question goes up: a left pneumothorax needs a right lateral decubitus. Fluid does the opposite. A suspected left pleural effusion goes left side down (A).
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Answer: B. Minimum response time is the shortest exposure the AEC can end. If a thin part at high mA needs less time than that, the exposure runs long and the image is overexposed. Lower the mA or use a manual technique. A thick part (A) needs a long exposure, so the minimum isn't the issue. A short backup time (D) causes underexposure.
Sources: Radiologica — Automatic exposure control · 21 CFR 1020.31(a)(3)(ii)
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Answer: A. Insulin without food is a classic setup for low blood sugar, and shaking, sweating, and confusion are typical signs. Get help right away under your facility's emergency protocol. No contrast has been given (C), and hyperglycemia (B) tends to develop over hours with thirst and frequent urination.
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Answer: D. Units made before June 10, 2006 have a cumulative timer, preset to no more than 5 minutes, that signals when it completes. Units made on or after that date must display fluoroscopy time at the operator's position and signal at each 5 minutes. The purpose is awareness of beam-on time, a direct driver of patient dose.
Source: 21 CFR 1020.32(h)
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Answer: C. External rotation puts the humerus in a true AP, with the greater tubercle in profile on the lateral side. Internal rotation turns the humerus lateral and puts the lesser tubercle (A) in profile medially. The glenoid cavity (D) is shown in profile on the Grashey (see EX-09).
Block 3: Questions 51–75
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Answer: A. Raising one arm over the head and dropping the other shoulder separates the shoulders and shows the cervicothoracic junction. The open-mouth view (B) is for C1–C2. Flexion (D) shows motion, not the C7–T1 region hidden by the shoulders.
Source: UMS — Cervical spine, cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral
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Answer: A, B, and D. C. difficile calls for contact plus standard precautions. Gown and gloves are appropriate for contact with the patient or environment. When spore contamination is likely, soap-and-water handwashing physically removes spores; alcohol-based hand rub does not kill C. difficile spores, so C is wrong. Use an EPA-registered disinfectant with a sporicidal claim for contaminated equipment and surfaces. N95 respirators (E) are for airborne hazards, not routine C. difficile contact precautions.
Sources: CDC — Transmission-Based Precautions · CDC — Clinical Safety: Hand Hygiene for Healthcare Workers · CDC — C. diff clinical guidance
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Answer: D. When the part isn't parallel to the IR, its projected length shrinks: foreshortening. Elongation (A) comes from the opposite setup, where the part is parallel to the IR and the tube is angled along its long axis.
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Answer: B. Effective dose and equivalent dose use the sievert. Absorbed dose and air kerma use the gray. Exposure uses coulombs per kilogram (C/kg). SI units are the primary units on the ARRT radiography exam.
Source: U.S. NRC — Measuring radiation
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Answer: C. Normally the humeral head sits over the center of the "Y." Beneath the coracoid (anterior) means anterior dislocation. Beneath the acromion (posterior) means posterior dislocation (B).
Source: UMS — Shoulder, scapular Y
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Answer: C. NCRP Report 116 recommends 50 mSv per year, with a cumulative limit of 10 mSv × age. The NRC's federal rule for radioactive materials uses the same 0.05 Sv. X-ray equipment is regulated by the states. 1 mSv (A) is the annual limit for members of the public. 150 mSv (D) is the NRC's annual limit for the lens of the eye, not effective dose.
Sources: 10 CFR 20.1201 · Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q11553
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Answer: Q → S → P → R → T. Indirect conversion goes x-ray → light → charge → readout → digital value. Direct-conversion detectors use amorphous selenium to turn x-rays straight into charge, skipping the light stage. That's the difference the exam usually tests.
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Answer: D. On an AP lordotic, the clavicles project nearly horizontal and above the apices, so the apices are clear of them. On a PA (A) and an AP supine (C), the clavicles overlie the apices.
Source: UMS — Chest, AP lordotic
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Answer: C. CDC tells patients with suspected or confirmed infectious TB to wear a surgical or procedure mask, if possible, during transport and around others. The mask contains their respiratory droplets. Staff entering the patient's room wear fit-tested respirators (N95), not the patient (A). TB needs airborne precautions, not contact precautions alone (D).
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Answer: A. Posterior lumbar obliques show the joints closest to the IR, the "Scottie dog" side, so the RPO shows the right side. Compare HSP-05: posterior cervical obliques show the side away from the IR. Keep the two rules separate.
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Answer: B. Lymphocytes are highly radiosensitive even though they're mature and don't divide, a well-known exception to the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau. Nerve cells, muscle cells, and mature red cells (A, C, D) are among the most radioresistant.
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Answer: D. Beam intensity is greater on the cathode side, so the thicker part goes there. On an AP thoracic spine, that means the lower thoracic region under the cathode and the head toward the anode. A and B say the same wrong thing.
Source: Radiopaedia — Anode heel effect
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Answer: A. The patient rotates 35–45° toward the affected side, placing the scapula parallel to the IR so the glenoid is seen in profile. The supraspinatus outlet (D) is the Neer projection.
Source: UMS — Shoulder, Grashey
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Answer: C. A single dosimeter goes at collar level outside the apron, where it estimates dose to the unshielded head, neck, and eyes. Some programs add a second badge under the apron at the waist (A), but with one badge, the collar is the place.
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Answer: D. A: 1 ÷ (2 × 0.1 mm) = 5 lp/mm. B: 1 ÷ (2 × 0.2 mm) = 2.5 lp/mm. Smaller pitch means higher limiting resolution, so A wins. C forgets the factor of 2. DQE (B) describes detection efficiency, not sampling limits.
Source: Calculation from the formula given in the stem. Pixel pitch, detector elements, and Nyquist frequency are listed under digital spatial resolution in ARRT's 2027 content specifications.
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Answer: A. Fomites are inanimate objects that carry an infectious agent, a form of vehicle-borne indirect transmission. Vectors (B) are living carriers such as mosquitoes or ticks. Droplets (C) are direct transmission.
Source: CDC — Principles of Epidemiology, Lesson 1, Section 10
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Answer: C. Expiration and a recumbent position both raise the diaphragm, putting the lower ribs against the denser abdomen. Ribs above the diaphragm use the opposite: upright and full inspiration (A).
Source: UMS — Ribs
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Answer: D. The line from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the mastoid tips should be perpendicular to the IR. Incisors over the dens mean the chin is too low, so raise it. If the base of the skull overlaps the dens, the chin is too high, so flex (A).
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Answer: A. Stochastic effects have no threshold. Their probability, not their severity, rises with dose. Cancer is the classic example. Erythema, cataract, and epilation (B, C, D) are deterministic effects (tissue reactions): they have a threshold, and severity rises with dose.
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Answer: C. The AEC keeps exposing until its selected chamber gets enough radiation. Behind the dense mediastinum and spine, that takes longer, so the air-filled lungs receive too much. For a PA chest, the outer chambers behind the lungs are normally selected.
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Answer: B. Medial rotation of 30–40° opens the lateral side of the foot: the cuboid in profile, the sinus tarsi, and the third through fifth metatarsal bases. The sesamoids (A) need a tangential projection.
Source: UMS — Foot, AP medial oblique
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Answer: D. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters use carbon-doped aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃:C). Light makes them release a signal proportional to dose. Heating lithium fluoride (A) describes a TLD.
Sources: Landauer — Luxel+ dosimeter · AAPM — OSL dosimetry presentation
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Answer: B. Window width controls contrast: a narrower range of values spread across the gray scale looks more contrasty. Window level controls brightness. Neither changes the detector's spatial resolution (D).
Source: Radiopaedia — Windowing
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Answer: C. Protective isolation keeps infectious agents away from a patient whose immune defenses are very low. CDC's term for the room setup is a "Protective Environment." Protecting others from the patient (A) is what transmission-based precautions do.
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Answer: A. The malleoli don't lie in a true coronal plane. Rotating the leg 15–20° medially brings the intermalleolar line parallel to the IR and opens all three sides of the mortise.
Source: UMS — Ankle, AP mortise
Block 4: Questions 76–100
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Answer: D. Stop the injection as soon as extravasation is suspected. The ACR recommends examining the patient, elevating the affected extremity, and using either cold or warm compresses; evidence does not establish one compress temperature as clearly superior. The patient should receive instructions about worsening pain, swelling, sensory change, reduced motion, or skin injury. Squeezing or massaging the site (B) is not recommended.
Source: ACR Manual on Contrast Media — “Extravasation of Contrast Media”
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Answer: A. Mottle is a shortage of signal, and only more photons fix it. Edge enhancement (B) and narrower windowing (C) make noise more visible. Lowering kVp at the same mAs (D) sends even fewer photons to the detector.
Source: Radiopaedia — Quantum noise
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Answer: B. The CR enters at the base of the third metatarsal at 40° cephalad to the long axis of the foot. That shows the calcaneus from the tuberosity to the talocalcaneal joint.
Sources: Radiopaedia — Calcaneus (axial view) · UMS — Calcaneus
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Answer: Q → P → R. According to CDC, the full hematopoietic syndrome appears at about 0.7–10 Gy (mild symptoms possibly from 0.3 Gy), the GI syndrome above about 10 Gy, and the cardiovascular/CNS syndrome above about 50 Gy. The order follows tissue radiosensitivity: bone marrow stem cells, then the gut lining, then the far more resistant nervous system.
Source: CDC — Acute radiation syndrome: information for clinicians
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Answer: C. In the RAO, barium flows toward the pylorus and duodenum, filling the bulb and C-loop in profile. The LPO (A) is the reverse: barium shifts to the fundus and the bulb fills with air for a double-contrast view.
Source: UMS — Upper GI series
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Answer: A. Scatter is greatest where the beam enters the patient, on the tube side. The patient's body attenuates much of it toward the receptor side, so stand next to the image receptor.
Sources: Image Wisely — Fluoroscopy checklists · Health Physics Society — Ask the Experts, q9545
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Answer: D. Processing software analyzes a histogram of the anatomy inside the collimated area. If it can't find the borders, or the field holds multiple exposures or large raw-beam areas, it identifies the values of interest incorrectly. That throws off both the exposure indicator and the displayed image.
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Answer: B. Rotating the legs internally 15–20° puts the femoral necks parallel to the IR and largely hides the lesser trochanters. A clearly visible lesser trochanter with foreshortened necks means the legs are externally rotated. A is the correction.
Source: UMS — Pelvis
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Answer: C. The ACR classifies "facial edema with dyspnea" as severe. Without the breathing difficulty, facial swelling alone would rate lower. Stay with the patient, call for help, and start the facility's emergency response; a radiologist or physician directs treatment. Onset within minutes rules out a delayed reaction (D).
Source: ACR Manual on Contrast Media · ACR severity table reproduced in Insights into Imaging, Table 3
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Answer: A. At saturation, every pixel in the area is forced to the maximum value, and the differences between tissues are gone. No windowing (B, D) can bring back data that was never recorded. If the lost anatomy matters, the image has to be repeated.
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Answer: A. The rule: under 19 cm, angle 3–5° caudad; 19–24 cm, perpendicular; over 24 cm, angle 3–5° cephalad. Angling to match the tibial plateau opens the joint space. Watch for study sources that reverse this rule.
Source: UMS — Knee and patella
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Answer: C. Image Gently's message is "child-size" technique: measure the child and adjust, because one size doesn't fit all. Adult technique (A) or doubled technique (B) overexposes the child.
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Answer: B. The LAO and RPO open the splenic flexure. The RAO and LPO (A, C) open the hepatic flexure. A memory hook: anterior obliques open the flexure on the side down, and posterior obliques open the side up.
Source: UMS — Contrast enema, obliques
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Answer: A. DICOM is the international standard for medical images and related information. HL7 (B) carries clinical and administrative text messages, such as orders and reports. HIPAA (C) is a privacy law, not a data standard.
Source: DICOM — About
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Answer: D. The ACR–National Kidney Foundation consensus uses eGFR to stratify risk. Patients with eGFR under 30 mL/min/1.73 m² who aren't on dialysis are higher risk and are candidates for preventive IV fluids. Metformin is held only when eGFR is under 30 or there's acute kidney injury.
Sources: RSNA — ACR–NKF contrast consensus · ACR Manual on Contrast Media
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Answer: C. Higher-energy photons penetrate tissues more evenly, with less differential absorption and more Compton scatter, so subject contrast drops. With mAs lowered to compensate, patient dose goes down, not up (D). On digital systems, displayed contrast is largely set by processing (the LUT and window width).
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Answer: B. The oxygen enhancement ratio compares the dose needed for the same effect under hypoxic and oxygenated conditions. It's about 3 for x-rays (low-LET radiation) and smaller for high-LET radiation.
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Answer: D. The cross-table lateral uses a horizontal beam and raises the unaffected leg, so the injured leg never has to move. Frog-leg positions (A, B) require abducting and rotating the injured leg and are contraindicated when a fracture is suspected.
Sources: UMS — Hip, axiolateral (Danelius-Miller) · Radiopaedia — Hip (horizontal beam lateral view)
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Answer: A. The medial condyle extends lower than the lateral one, and the slight cephalic angle lines up their distal margins. Limiting flexion to 20–30° avoids tightening the muscles and tendons that hold the patella in place.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The ACR–SPR practice parameter calls for screening and, when pregnancy status is still uncertain, notifying the radiologist before the study. The patient, referring physician, and radiologist then decide whether to proceed, modify, or postpone. Proceeding (A, B) skips that decision. Rescheduling on your own (D) leaves the ordering team uninformed.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The RAO rotation separates the esophagus from the spine so it sits in the clear space between the vertebral column and the heart. On a straight PA or AP, it overlies the spine (A).
Source: UMS — Esophagus, RAO
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The limit is 2% of the distance from the source to the center of the light field (the SID, when the IR is perpendicular to the beam). 2% × 100 cm = 2 cm. A routine collimator QC test checks this, because a misaligned field irradiates tissue you didn't intend to include or cuts off anatomy you did.
Source: 21 CFR 1020.31(d)(2)(i)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Barium (B) that leaks into the peritoneal cavity can cause peritonitis, so known or strongly suspected GI perforation is a contraindication to barium. Water-soluble contrast is generally preferred.
Source: Radiopaedia — Barium sulfate
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 10 × log₁₀(2) ≈ 3, so DI +3 is about double the target exposure, and DI −3 is about half (B). DI is logarithmic, so it doesn't read as a percent (A) or a simple multiple (D). A DI near 0 means the detector exposure matched the target for that exam.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. With the patient prone and the lower leg raised 40–50°, the CR is angled to match, perpendicular to the lower leg, to open the intercondylar fossa. The Holmblad method gets a similar result by kneeling (about 60–70° flexion) with the CR perpendicular to the IR.
100 original, unofficial practice questions covering all four ARRT Radiography content categories: Patient Care, Safety, Image Production, and Procedures. Every question has its answer, explanation, and source right underneath. No signup. If you test on or after March 1, 2027, use the updated ARRT content specifications alongside this set because the new blueprint adds topics that these 100 questions do not all sample.
Score yourself by category
Check your answers above. Then count how many you got right in each category. A select-all or ordering question counts as correct only if your answer matches completely.
| Category | Question numbers | Questions | Your correct |
|---|---|---|---|
| Patient Care | 2, 9, 16, 24, 26, 34, 41, 48, 52, 59, 66, 74, 76, 84, 90, 98 | 16 | ___ |
| Safety: Radiation Physics & Radiobiology | 3, 10, 17, 31, 42, 54, 61, 69, 79, 92 | 10 | ___ |
| Safety: Radiation Protection | 6, 13, 19, 25, 28, 35, 43, 49, 56, 64, 72, 81, 87, 95 | 14 | ___ |
| Image Production: Image Acquisition & Evaluation | 4, 11, 18, 29, 36, 44, 53, 62, 70, 77, 85, 91, 99 | 13 | ___ |
| Image Production: Equipment Operation & QA | 7, 14, 21, 33, 40, 47, 57, 65, 73, 82, 89, 97 | 12 | ___ |
| Procedures: Head, Spine & Pelvis | 8, 15, 23, 27, 39, 51, 60, 68, 83, 93 | 10 | ___ |
| Procedures: Thorax & Abdomen | 1, 20, 32, 38, 46, 58, 67, 80, 88, 96 | 10 | ___ |
| Procedures: Extremities | 5, 12, 22, 30, 37, 45, 50, 55, 63, 71, 75, 78, 86, 94, 100 | 15 | ___ |
| Total | 100 | ___ |
Your total is your score on these 100 questions. It isn't an ARRT scaled score, and it can't be converted into one. ARRT reports scores on a 1–99 scale, where 75 passes, and it sets the raw score needed for each exam form through its own scoring studies. With 10 to 16 questions per category, treat your category results as a direction to study, not a precise measurement. One or two questions can swing a small category a long way.
How to use your results
- Take each block cold the first time. Don't look anything up. Mark any question you guessed on, even if you got it right.
- Read every explanation you missed or guessed. The goal is the principle behind the answer, because the real exam won't repeat these questions. If you can only answer because you remember this question, count that topic as unfinished.
- Start with your weakest category. Review that topic in your program materials or the ARRT content specifications, then retry only the questions you missed.
- Come back to the whole block a few days later. If a weak category holds up, your review worked. If it keeps dropping points, that's where your next study hours go.
- Practice pacing. The real exam allows about one minute per question. Once the content feels solid, time a full block: 25 questions in about 25 minutes.
How this test lines up with the real exam
ARRT publishes how many scored questions come from each content category, and those counts change for exams taken on or after March 1, 2027. This set is spread across the same eight subcategories, with counts between the two editions. It isn't weighted exactly like either one, and it isn't a full-length simulation.
| Category | Scored questions, exams through Feb 28, 2027 | Scored questions, exams from Mar 1, 2027 | In this set |
|---|---|---|---|
| Patient Care | 33 | 31 | 16 |
| Safety: Radiation Physics & Radiobiology | 21 | 21 | 10 |
| Safety: Radiation Protection | 29 | 25 | 14 |
| Image Production: Image Acquisition & Evaluation | 26 | 26 | 13 |
| Image Production: Equipment Operation & QA | 25 | 25 | 12 |
| Procedures: Head, Spine & Pelvis | 18 | 20 | 10 |
| Procedures: Thorax & Abdomen | 20 | 22 | 10 |
| Procedures: Extremities | 28 | 30 | 15 |
| Total scored | 200 | 200 | 100 |
Sources: ARRT Radiography content specifications in effect through Feb 28, 2027 and effective Mar 1, 2027, page 1 of each.
Which edition applies to you? Your test date decides it, not your graduation date. Testing on or before Feb 28, 2027 means the current specification. Testing on or after Mar 1, 2027 means the 2027 specification. These questions avoid major topics ARRT is dropping, such as computed radiography (CR), intravenous urography, and compensating filters, so most of the bank remains relevant across the change. But the 2027 blueprint also adds topics this set does not fully sample. If you test on or after March 1, use the 2027 content specifications as your checklist rather than treating these 100 questions as complete blueprint coverage.
What's different in the 2027 edition: more Procedures questions (72, up from 66), and fewer in Patient Care and Radiation Protection. New topics include:
- patient scheduling
- pregnancy and the Image Wisely and Image Gently resources
- digital detector characteristics such as DQE and exposure latitude
- image contrast versus subject contrast
- virtual grids
- informatics security and teleradiology
- lumbar puncture and epidural injections
- joint injection and aspiration
- airway and ingested foreign bodies
- line placement with a C-arm
- nasogastric and orogastric tube placement
Computed radiography, intravenous urography, and compensating filters are gone. (ARRT announcement, May 1, 2026)
ARRT has also approved an updated Radiography passing standard effective March 1, 2027. ARRT will continue reporting examination results with scaled scores; a raw percentage on this practice set should not be used as a stand-in for that standard. (ARRT announcement, Aug. 27, 2026)
The real exam in brief
- 230 questions: 200 scored plus 30 unscored pilot questions. ARRT does not identify the pilot questions, and exam questions are presented in random order.
- 230 minutes of test time inside a 250-minute appointment. The appointment also covers an 8-minute tutorial, a 2-minute nondisclosure agreement, and a 10-minute survey.
- Question formats: most are multiple choice with one best answer. Some ask you to select several answers, sort items into order with the mouse, click an area of an image, or answer after a short video clip. This set includes select-all and ordering questions. It has no image or video questions.
- Calculator: an on-screen basic or scientific calculator, or a basic four-function calculator from test center staff if you ask. You can't bring your own.
- Scoring: a scaled score from 1 to 99. 75 passes, and that's not 75% correct.
- Attempts: three attempts within three years of the date your first exam window opens.
Source: ARRT 2026 Primary Eligibility Pathway Handbook, pp. 14, 37, 40, 43–44, 53–54.
Why there are no gonadal shielding questions
Plenty of free question sets still teach rules like "shield the gonads when they're within 5 cm of the field" as current practice. In 2019 the American Association of Physicists in Medicine recommended discontinuing routine gonadal and fetal shielding, and NCRP followed in 2021. ARRT has said its exams may not refer specifically to gonadal and fetal shielding procedures, but they will still cover patient radiation exposure and protection. This set tests the protection principles that still hold: collimation, technique selection, distance, fluoroscopy dose controls, and pregnancy screening.
Source: ARRT position on gonadal and fetal shielding
Quick answers
Are these real ARRT questions? No. Every question was written for this page. ARRT doesn't release its exam questions. Its handbook warns candidates about study materials that claim to include them, and it bars test takers from sharing exam questions or answer options.
Can I tell from this test whether I'll pass? No. A score on 100 unofficial questions isn't calibrated to ARRT's scale, so it can't predict a pass. Use it to find what to study. To see how ARRT reports passing performance and how programs compare, read our ARRT radiography pass rates by program analysis.
What should I study besides practice questions? ARRT doesn't endorse any study guide or mock registry. It points candidates to its content specifications as the list of topics the exam covers. Use the official content specifications as your checklist and your program's materials to fill the gaps.
How we built and checked this test
The Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team wrote all 100 questions for this page and spread them across ARRT's eight content subcategories. We checked the fact or principle behind each answer against an open, citable source and linked it under the question. The sources include:
- federal regulations (21 CFR, 10 CFR, 45 CFR)
- CDC
- the ACR Manual on Contrast Media
- AAPM
- Image Wisely and Image Gently
- The Joint Commission
- NIOSH
- Radiopaedia
- a university radiographic procedures review
We replaced questions that couldn't be tied to a solid source, and we left out content being dropped from the 2027 edition. Exam facts on this page come from ARRT's 2026 handbook and its content specifications.
That checking was done against sources. It isn't the same as review by a credentialed radiographer or medical physicist. If you think an answer is wrong, use our corrections page and include the question's ID (for example, EX-13). We'll check it against the source.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT). Exam and credential names are used for identification only, and trademarks belong to their respective owners. These practice questions are original and are not ARRT exam questions.