Free DANB RHS Practice Test: 75 Questions With Answers
Practice with 75 original Radiation Health and Safety (RHS) questions built on DANB's current exam outline (effective March 12, 2025) and today's digital-only exam. Each question has the answer, a plain explanation and a source you can check, with no account or email needed.
Original, unofficial practice. These are not DANB exam questions, and your percentage here is not a DANB score.
Practice set:
All 75 · Purpose and Technique 37 · Radiation Characteristics and Protection 19 · Infection Prevention and Control 19 · Answer key
Purpose and Technique — 37 questions
DANB weight for this domain: 50%.
Question 1 · RHS-P01
On a mandibular premolar periapical image, a small round radiolucency sits at the apex of the second premolar. The lamina dura around that apex is continuous and intact. What is the most likely explanation?
- A. A periapical abscess on the second premolar
- B. The maxillary sinus projected onto the image
- C. Interproximal decay on the second premolar
- D. The mental foramen superimposed over the apex
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The mental foramen superimposed over the apex
The mental foramen shows up as a small round or oval radiolucency in the apical region of the mandibular premolars, so it can look like disease at the root tip. An unbroken lamina dura around the apex points to normal anatomy; periapical lesions are typically associated with loss of the lamina dura. The maxillary sinus is in the upper jaw, and interproximal decay sits on the crown, not at the apex.
Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 28.3 Bony landmarks of the mandible — Mental foramen; Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Caries, periodontal and periapical lesions on radiographs — Periapical lesions (loss of lamina dura)
Question 2 · RHS-P02
Below the apices of the mandibular central incisors you see a ring-shaped radiopacity with a tiny radiolucent dot in its center. What are you looking at?
- A. The incisive foramen surrounded by the nasal septum
- B. Genial tubercles surrounding the lingual foramen
- C. A retained root tip with its canal
- D. The mental ridge with the mental fossa
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Genial tubercles surrounding the lingual foramen
Near the midline on the lingual of the mandible, the genial tubercles appear as a radiopaque ring and the lingual foramen as a small radiolucent dot inside it, just below the incisor apices. The incisive foramen and nasal septum are maxillary landmarks. The mental ridge is a thick radiopaque band running from the premolar region toward the midline, and the mental fossa is a radiolucent area above it.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 28.3 Bony landmarks of the mandible — Genial tubercles; lingual foramen; mental ridge
Question 3 · RHS-P03
On a maxillary molar periapical, a large radiolucent area lies above the root apices. Its floor is a radiopaque line, and a few thin radiopaque lines cross through it. What is it?
- A. The nasal cavity
- B. A large periapical cyst
- C. The maxillary sinus, crossed by septa
- D. The mandibular canal
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The maxillary sinus, crossed by septa
The maxillary sinus appears as a radiolucent area above the apices of the maxillary premolars and molars. Its floor is dense cortical bone, and bony septa within the sinus show as radiopaque lines. The nasal cavity sits above the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canal is in the lower jaw.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 28.2 Bony landmarks of the maxilla — Maxillary sinus; septa within the maxillary sinus
Question 4 · RHS-P04
A small oval radiolucency appears between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. Which normal landmark is this?
- A. Lingual foramen
- B. Incisive (nasopalatine) foramen
- C. Mental foramen
- D. Lateral fossa
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Incisive (nasopalatine) foramen
The incisive foramen, where the nasopalatine nerve exits the maxilla, appears as a small oval or round radiolucency between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. The lingual and mental foramina are mandibular landmarks. The lateral fossa appears as a radiolucent area between the maxillary canine and lateral incisor.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 28.2 Bony landmarks of the maxilla — Incisive foramen; lateral fossa
Question 5 · RHS-P05
Which description matches the healthy supporting structures around a root on a periapical image?
- A. A thin radiolucent periodontal ligament space bordered by a continuous radiopaque lamina dura
- B. A thin radiopaque periodontal ligament space bordered by a radiolucent lamina dura
- C. A wide radiolucent band around the root with no lamina dura visible
- D. Bone that blends into the root with no visible space or line between them
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A thin radiolucent periodontal ligament space bordered by a continuous radiopaque lamina dura
In healthy teeth the lamina dura appears as a dense radiopaque line lining the socket, and the periodontal ligament space appears as a thin radiolucent line between the root and the lamina dura. Reversing those appearances is wrong, and a widened space with missing lamina dura is a change the dentist would want to evaluate.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 34.1 Periodontal disease on images — Lamina dura; periodontal ligament space
Question 6 · RHS-P06
On bitewings, the crestal bone between #18 and #19 has dropped evenly, staying parallel to a line drawn between the cementoenamel junctions of the two teeth. How is this pattern described?
- A. Vertical (angular) bone loss
- B. Furcation involvement
- C. Horizontal bone loss
- D. Normal crestal bone
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Horizontal bone loss
Horizontal bone loss occurs in a plane parallel to the CEJs of adjacent teeth. Vertical bone loss does not follow that plane and is more severe on one tooth's side than the neighbor's. Furcation involvement is a radiolucency where bone between the roots of a multirooted tooth is lost. Bone that has dropped away from its normal level is not normal crestal bone.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 34.3 Bone loss — Bone loss: horizontal vs vertical; furcation
Question 7 · RHS-P07
A periapical image shows a radiolucent area at the root apex of one tooth, and the lamina dura is missing around that apex. How should the assistant interpret this?
- A. As normal periodontal ligament space that needs no mention
- B. As an exposure artifact that should be retaken immediately
- C. As a possible periapical lesion (such as a granuloma, cyst or abscess) for the dentist to diagnose
- D. As a radiopaque area of condensed bone
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. As a possible periapical lesion (such as a granuloma, cyst or abscess) for the dentist to diagnose
A radiolucency at the apex with loss of lamina dura is the classic appearance of periapical inflammatory lesions such as a granuloma, cyst or abscess. The assistant's job is to recognize the finding and make sure the dentist sees it; diagnosis belongs to the dentist. Normal PDL space is a thin line with intact lamina dura, a localized finding at one apex is not a reason for an automatic retake, and the area described is radiolucent, not radiopaque.
Sources: Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Caries, periodontal and periapical lesions on radiographs — Periapical inflammatory lesions; DANB RHS Exam Outline and References (effective 03/12/2025) — Domain I.A.1 apical pathology; radiography terms (abscess/cyst/granuloma)
Question 8 · RHS-P08
How does decay typically appear on a dental image?
- A. As a radiopaque (white) area in the tooth structure
- B. As a radiopaque line along the root surface
- C. As a uniform gray band across all teeth in the image
- D. As a radiolucent (dark) area in the tooth structure
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. As a radiolucent (dark) area in the tooth structure
Decay removes mineral, so x-rays pass through the affected tooth structure more easily and the lesion appears radiolucent (dark). Radiopaque areas resist the beam and appear light, which describes restorations and dense structures, not caries. A uniform gray across the whole image points to an exposure setting problem, not decay.
Sources: Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Caries, periodontal and periapical lesions on radiographs — Dental caries: radiolucent zones; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 6.1 Image characteristics — Radiolucent defined
Question 9 · RHS-P09
A posterior composite restoration that looks intact on clinical exam appears darker than the surrounding enamel on a digital image. What best explains this?
- A. A composite that looks dark always means recurrent decay under it
- B. Composite ranges from radiolucent to slightly radiopaque depending on its composition
- C. Composite is always more radiopaque than amalgam
- D. The sensor was underexposed only over that one tooth
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Composite ranges from radiolucent to slightly radiopaque depending on its composition
Composite restorations vary from radiolucent to slightly radiopaque depending on their composition, so a darker composite is not automatically decay; the dentist compares the image with the clinical exam. Composite is not more radiopaque than amalgam, which appears completely radiopaque, and exposure does not change over a single tooth on one receptor.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 32.1 Restorations and dental materials — Composite restorations
Question 10 · RHS-P10
A crown appears completely radiopaque with smooth, regular margins. Which restoration does this best describe?
- A. A gold crown
- B. A porcelain crown
- C. A composite crown
- D. A stainless steel crown with loose, poorly defined margins
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A gold crown
Gold restorations appear completely radiopaque and, unlike amalgam, show a smooth marginal outline. Porcelain is only slightly radiopaque, resembling dentin, and composite ranges from radiolucent to slightly radiopaque. Stainless steel crowns are radiopaque but not as dense as gold or amalgam, and option D describes margins that do not match this image.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 32.1 Restorations and dental materials — Gold restorations; stainless steel and chrome crowns; porcelain
Question 11 · RHS-P11
The canals of a mandibular first molar contain radiopaque material that looks less dense than a nearby metal restoration. What is it most likely?
- A. Gutta-percha
- B. Silver points
- C. Air left in empty canals
- D. A fractured file fragment
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Gutta-percha
Gutta-percha fills pulp canals and appears radiopaque, but less radiodense than metallic restorations. Silver points are very radiopaque, like other metals, and appear denser than gutta-percha; a metal file fragment would also be metal-dense. Empty canals would appear radiolucent.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 32.1 Restorations and dental materials — Materials used in endodontics
Question 12 · RHS-P12
On a periapical image of a previously edentulous site, a radiopaque post-shaped object sits within the bone with a crown above it. What is it most likely?
- A. A retained root tip
- B. A mandibular torus
- C. An amalgam fragment embedded in soft tissue
- D. A dental implant
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A dental implant
Implants appear radiopaque within the bone, and their exact appearance depends on the implant's shape and design. A retained root tip has tooth density and canal anatomy, a torus is a bony outgrowth on the lingual of the mandible, and an amalgam fragment is a small irregular radiopacity in soft tissue rather than a post supporting a crown.
Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 32.1 Restorations and dental materials — Materials used in oral surgery: implants; DANB RHS Exam Outline and References (effective 03/12/2025) — Domain I.A.4 dental implants
Question 13 · RHS-P13
The dentist needs to see a large area of the anterior maxilla, including the palate. Which intraoral image is designed for that?
- A. A premolar bitewing
- B. A maxillary occlusal (topographic) projection
- C. A single anterior periapical
- D. A lateral cephalometric projection
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A maxillary occlusal (topographic) projection
The occlusal technique is used when large areas of the maxilla or mandible must be seen; the maxillary topographic projection examines the palate and anterior maxillary teeth. A bitewing shows crowns and crestal bone, a single periapical covers a few teeth, and a cephalometric projection is an extraoral skull image.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 23.1 Occlusal technique — Purpose and use; maxillary occlusal projections
Question 14 · RHS-P14
Which task is extraoral imaging, such as a panoramic image, NOT intended for?
- A. Detecting caries, periodontal disease or periapical disease
- B. Evaluating impacted teeth
- C. Assessing growth and development
- D. Evaluating trauma to the jaws
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Detecting caries, periodontal disease or periapical disease
Extraoral images are used to evaluate large areas of the skull or jaws, growth and development, impacted teeth, large lesions, trauma and the TMJ area. They are not used to detect caries, periodontal disease or periapical disease; intraoral bitewings and periapicals show that detail.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 26.1 Extraoral imaging — Purpose and use of extraoral imaging
Question 15 · RHS-P15
In which areas of dentistry is a lateral cephalometric projection most often used?
- A. Endodontics, to measure canal length
- B. Routine recall exams, to detect early caries
- C. Periodontics, to replace probing
- D. Orthodontics and oral surgery
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Orthodontics and oral surgery
Skull imaging examines the bones of the face and skull and is most often used in oral surgery and orthodontics; the lateral cephalometric projection is the most common skull image. Canal length, caries and periodontal status call for intraoral images and clinical examination.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 26.2 Extraoral projections — Skull imaging; lateral cephalometric projection
Question 16 · RHS-P16
When cone-beam CT is justified, what field of view do the ADA's 2024 recommendations call for?
- A. The largest field of view so nothing is missed
- B. The smallest field of view needed for the area of interest
- C. A full-skull field of view for every implant case
- D. Field of view does not matter because CBCT dose is fixed
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The smallest field of view needed for the area of interest
The 2024 recommendations say to use the smallest field of view necessary for the specific anatomical area and to optimize technique factors for the lowest dose that still gives a diagnostically acceptable image. CBCT dose varies with the field of view and settings, which is why a larger-than-needed field adds exposure without benefit.
Sources: ADA/AAOMR 2026 patient-selection recommendations (open full text) — Table 1, CBCT: smallest field of view consistent with needed information; Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Recommendations 3.2.1–3.2.3
Question 17 · RHS-P17
A new patient had a full series taken at another office four months ago. Before any new images are exposed, what is the recommended step?
- A. Retake a full series so the office has its own set
- B. Make a good-faith attempt to obtain the previous radiographs
- C. Take four bitewings first, then request the old images
- D. Ask the patient to describe what the old images showed
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Make a good-faith attempt to obtain the previous radiographs
The ADA/AAOMR's 2026 patient-selection recommendations say previously obtained images should be reviewed and that imaging decisions should account for prior radiographs. Retaking images simply to create a local copy can add exposure without diagnostic benefit, and a patient's memory is not a substitute for the images.
Sources: ADA/AAOMR 2026 patient-selection recommendations (open full text) — General recommendations and Discussion: review/retrieve previously obtained images; ADA — X-Rays/Radiographs — Patient selection / good-faith attempt to use previous radiographs
Question 18 · RHS-P18
Which set of features describes a diagnostically acceptable dental image?
- A. Maximum contrast with only black and white areas
- B. Slight elongation so the full root length is easier to see
- C. Proper density and contrast, sharp outlines, and minimal distortion
- D. Extra darkness so that early lesions stand out
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Proper density and contrast, sharp outlines, and minimal distortion
A diagnostically acceptable image has appropriate density and contrast, sharp detail, and minimal distortion for the area being examined. An intentionally elongated image is distorted, and an overly dark image can lose useful detail. Maximum black-and-white contrast is not automatically the best diagnostic image.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 6.1 Image characteristics — Diagnostic radiograph; density and contrast
Question 19 · RHS-P19
Before a series of maxillary periapicals, the patient is wearing eyeglasses and a nose ring. What should you do?
- A. Leave them on, because digital sensors are not affected by metal
- B. Remove them only if a panoramic image is planned
- C. Expose first and remove them only if they show up on an image
- D. Have the patient remove the eyeglasses and any facial jewelry in the beam path before exposing
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Have the patient remove the eyeglasses and any facial jewelry in the beam path before exposing
For intraoral imaging, patients should remove facial jewelry in the beam path (such as nose rings or large earrings), eyeglasses and intraoral prostheses before exposure; metal left in the path can superimpose over the teeth. Waiting to see whether it shows up risks a retake, which means extra exposure.
Source: Dentalcare CE 589 — Intraoral patient preparation — Intraoral patient preparation
Question 20 · RHS-P20
A panoramic image shows a blurred, distorted radiopacity high on the left side that resembles the earring the patient wore on the right ear. What is it?
- A. The real image of a second earring on the left ear
- B. A scratch artifact on the receptor
- C. The hyoid bone
- D. A ghost image of the earring
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A ghost image of the earring
A ghost image resembles the real object but appears on the opposite side of the image and higher, and it is blurred and magnified. It forms when a radiodense object outside the focal trough is penetrated twice by the beam. The fix is to have the patient remove all radiodense objects from the head and neck before exposure.
Sources: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, error 1: ghost images; Dentalcare CE 533 — Panoramic patient preparation — Patient preparation guidelines
Question 21 · RHS-P21
On a panoramic image, the ramus and posterior teeth on one side look wider than on the other side, and contacts on that side overlap. Which positioning error is most likely?
- A. The patient's head was turned, so the midsagittal plane was not centered
- B. The patient's chin was tipped too high
- C. The patient was positioned too far forward
- D. The patient's tongue was not against the palate
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The patient's head was turned, so the midsagittal plane was not centered
When the head is not centered, the ramus and posterior teeth are unequally magnified and contacts overlap. The correction is to keep the midsagittal plane perpendicular to the floor with the indicator light centered between the maxillary central incisors. Chin height, anterior–posterior position and tongue placement produce different, recognizable errors.
Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, error 8: head not centered
Question 22 · RHS-P22
On a panoramic image, the anterior teeth look narrow and the spine is visible on the image. What happened?
- A. The patient was positioned too far forward, in front of the focal trough
- B. The patient was positioned too far back, behind the focal trough
- C. The patient's chin was tipped too low
- D. The patient's lips were not closed
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The patient was positioned too far forward, in front of the focal trough
With the patient too far forward, anterior teeth appear narrowed and the spine is visible; too far back makes the anterior teeth look magnified and may cut off the ramus. The correction is to make sure the teeth are in the bite-block notches. A low chin creates an exaggerated smile line, and open lips create a dark shadow around the anterior teeth.
Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, errors 6 and 7
Question 23 · RHS-P23
A panoramic image shows a flat or reversed (frowning) occlusal plane, blurred and magnified maxillary incisors, and condyles that may not be visible. What is the cause?
- A. The patient's chin was tipped too low
- B. The patient's chin was tipped too high
- C. The patient's head was turned
- D. The patient was slouching
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The patient's chin was tipped too high
A chin tipped too high produces a reverse smile line, blurred and magnified maxillary incisors, and condyles that may drop off the image. A chin tipped too low does the opposite, creating an exaggerated smile. The correction for both is to keep the Frankfort plane parallel to the floor.
Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, errors 4 and 5
Question 24 · RHS-P24
A slouching patient's panoramic image shows a radiopacity in the center that obscures the anterior region. How do you correct it on the retake?
- A. Tilt the patient's chin upward
- B. Have the patient stand as tall as possible, or seat the patient upright if needed
- C. Turn the patient's head slightly to one side
- D. Increase the kilovoltage
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Have the patient stand as tall as possible, or seat the patient upright if needed
When the spine is not straight, the cervical spine shows as a radiopacity in the center of the image. The patient should stand as tall as possible, or be seated if necessary and reminded to sit upright. Chin tilt and head rotation cause different errors, and raising the exposure settings does not remove a superimposed spine.
Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, error 9; seated patients
Question 25 · RHS-P25
A dark radiolucent shadow covers the crowns of the anterior teeth on a panoramic image. What instruction would have prevented it?
- A. Close your lips around the bite block
- B. Swallow, then keep your tongue relaxed on the floor of your mouth
- C. Lower your chin toward your chest
- D. Step slightly back from the machine
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Close your lips around the bite block
When the lips are not closed around the bite block, a dark radiolucent shadow appears around the anterior teeth. Keeping the tongue on the floor of the mouth causes a different error, a radiolucent band over the maxillary apices; the tongue belongs against the palate. Lowering the chin or stepping back creates other positioning errors.
Source: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Table 5, error 3; tongue against the hard palate
Question 26 · RHS-P26
A patient has large bilateral mandibular tori. For a mandibular premolar periapical with the paralleling technique, where should the receptor go?
- A. Resting on top of the torus
- B. Between the tori and the tongue
- C. On the buccal side of the teeth
- D. Nowhere; tori make periapicals impossible
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Between the tori and the tongue
With mandibular tori, the receptor is placed between the tori and the tongue, not on the tori, and then exposed. Resting the receptor on a torus tips it and causes discomfort, and a buccal placement does not image the teeth correctly. Tori call for a modification, not abandoning the image.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 19.3 Paralleling technique modifications — Modifications in paralleling technique: bony growths
Question 27 · RHS-P27
A patient has a large torus along the midline of the hard palate. Where should the receptor be placed for a maxillary periapical?
- A. Directly on top of the torus
- B. Against the buccal surfaces of the teeth
- C. On the far side of the torus, not resting on it
- D. Replace the periapical with a bitewing
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. On the far side of the torus, not resting on it
For a maxillary torus, the receptor is placed on the far side of the torus and then exposed, rather than resting on it. Placing it on the torus tips the receptor out of parallel with the teeth. A bitewing does not show the root apices, so it cannot replace a periapical.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 19.3 Paralleling technique modifications — Modifications in paralleling technique: maxillary torus
Question 28 · RHS-P28
In the common Rinn XCP color code, which aiming-ring color is used for bitewings?
- A. Red
- B. Blue
- C. Yellow
- D. Green
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Red
In the Rinn XCP system, red instruments are used for bitewings, blue for anterior periapicals, and yellow for posterior periapicals. Other brands may use different colors, so follow the system your office uses.
Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Positioning devices: Rinn XCP color code
Question 29 · RHS-P29
Positioning was correct, but several digital images from the same unit are too dark. Assuming the unit is working properly, which change is most appropriate?
- A. Increase the exposure time
- B. Reduce the exposure setting, such as time or mA, following the technique chart
- C. Increase the kilovoltage
- D. Retake every image at the same setting
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Reduce the exposure setting, such as time or mA, following the technique chart
Images that are too dark have too much exposure. Raising kilovoltage increases density (the image gets darker), and increasing time or mA adds more x-rays, so the fix is to lower the exposure setting according to the office's technique chart for that receptor and patient size. Repeating the same setting reproduces the error and adds exposure.
Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 5.1 Radiation characteristics — Density and kilovoltage peak; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), Chapter 5: Radiation characteristics — Milliamperage, exposure time and density; Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Recommendation 4.2: technique charts
Question 30 · RHS-P30
When images are mounted and viewed with the labial method, where does the patient's right side appear?
- A. On the viewer's right, as if looking out from inside the mouth
- B. At the top of the mount
- C. It depends on the brand of sensor
- D. On the viewer's left, as if facing the patient
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. On the viewer's left, as if facing the patient
With labial mounting, images are viewed as if the viewer is facing the patient, so the patient's right appears on the viewer's left. Lingual mounting views them as if from inside the mouth looking out. The method, not the sensor brand, determines orientation.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 11.2 Image mounting methods — Labial and lingual mounting
Question 31 · RHS-P31
In the Universal Numbering System, which tooth is #30?
- A. Permanent mandibular left first molar
- B. Permanent mandibular right first molar
- C. Permanent maxillary right first molar
- D. Permanent mandibular right second molar
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Permanent mandibular right first molar
Universal numbers run from #1, the maxillary right third molar, across to #16, then from #17, the mandibular left third molar, around to #32, the mandibular right third molar. #30 is the mandibular right first molar; the mandibular left first molar is #19, the maxillary right first molar is #3, and the mandibular right second molar is #31.
Sources: ADA Universal Tooth Designation System (HL7 code system listing) — Universal designations 1, 16, 17, 30, 31, 32; Radiopaedia — American Dental Association Universal Numbering System — Full list by quadrant
Question 32 · RHS-P32
You see a radiolucency on the maxillary left first molar. Which Universal number goes in the chart?
- A. #3
- B. #19
- C. #15
- D. #14
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. #14
Counting from #9 (maxillary left central incisor) back through the left side gives #12 and #13 for the premolars and #14 for the first molar. #3 is the maxillary right first molar, #19 is the mandibular left first molar, and #15 is the maxillary left second molar.
Source: Radiopaedia — American Dental Association Universal Numbering System — Left maxillary 9–16
Question 33 · RHS-P33
A patient who is leaving the practice demands her original radiographs. She still owes a balance. How should the office respond?
- A. Hand over the originals and delete the office's files
- B. Refuse to release anything until the balance is paid
- C. Send the originals to her new dentist and keep nothing
- D. Keep the originals and provide copies; an unpaid balance is not a reason to refuse
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Keep the originals and provide copies; an unpaid balance is not a reason to refuse
The dentist owns the physical record, including radiographs, and is its legal guardian, so originals stay with the practice. HIPAA, and possibly state law, still requires providing patients copies of their records even when the account is unpaid; a reasonable, cost-based copying fee may be charged. State rules can add details such as deadlines.
Source: ADA — Ownership of Dental Records and Radiographs — Ownership; copies even if the account is unpaid
Question 34 · RHS-P34
An endodontist who is treating your patient asks for yesterday's periapical image. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, is the patient's written authorization required before you send it?
- A. Yes; any release of images requires written authorization
- B. Only if the patient has paid for the image
- C. No; disclosure to another provider for that provider's treatment of the patient is permitted without authorization
- D. Only if the image is mailed rather than sent electronically
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. No; disclosure to another provider for that provider's treatment of the patient is permitted without authorization
HHS states that the Privacy Rule permits a provider to disclose protected health information, without the individual's authorization, to another health care provider for that provider's treatment of the individual (45 CFR 164.506). Reasonable safeguards still apply, and some offices choose stricter internal policies.
Source: HHS HIPAA FAQ 271 — Sending records to another treating provider — FAQ 271
Question 35 · RHS-P35
At a recall visit, a new assistant plans to take bitewings 'because it has been a year.' Which principle does that skip?
- A. Images are taken only when the dentist orders them based on the patient's needs
- B. Insurance frequency limits decide when images are due
- C. The assistant decides based on the calendar
- D. Any patient who asks for images should receive them
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Images are taken only when the dentist orders them based on the patient's needs
Imaging is not ordered just because a calendar interval has elapsed. The ADA/AAOMR's 2026 recommendations say the decision should follow the clinical examination and be based on medical and dental history, disease risk, clinical findings and previously obtained images. The treating dentist decides whether imaging is clinically justified.
Sources: ADA/AAOMR 2026 patient-selection recommendations (open full text) — Box 1, General Recommendation 1.2; ADA — X-Rays/Radiographs — Patient Selection for Dental Radiographic Examinations
Question 36 · RHS-P36
An elderly patient cannot stand still long enough for a panoramic exposure. What is an appropriate option?
- A. Hold the patient's head steady with your hands during the exposure
- B. Have the patient lean forward on the unit for support
- C. Skip patient positioning checks to shorten the procedure
- D. Seat the patient if the unit allows it, and remind them to sit as upright as possible
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Seat the patient if the unit allows it, and remind them to sit as upright as possible
Some panoramic units allow the patient to sit. A seated patient should be reminded to sit upright, because slumping superimposes the spine over the anterior teeth. Staying beside the patient to hold them puts the operator in the radiation area, and leaning or skipping positioning checks produces errors and retakes.
Sources: Dentalcare CE 533 — Causes and appearance of panoramic errors (Table 5) — Patients with difficulty maintaining position; Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Protection of the operator
Question 37 · RHS-P37
Which periapical technique most accurately shows the height of the crestal bone?
- A. Bisecting angle
- B. Either one, because vertical angulation does not affect bone height
- C. Paralleling
- D. Neither; only a panoramic image shows bone height
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Paralleling
The paralleling technique most accurately represents the level of bone. With the bisecting technique, the vertical angulation can distort how high or low the bone appears, which matters when evaluating periodontal bone loss.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 34.1 Periodontal disease on images — Paralleling vs bisecting and bone level
Radiation Characteristics and Protection — 19 questions
DANB weight for this domain: 25%.
Question 38 · RHS-R01
Which x-rays have the greatest penetrating power?
- A. Long-wavelength, low-energy x-rays
- B. Low-frequency x-rays
- C. The x-rays absorbed by the aluminum filter
- D. Short-wavelength, high-energy x-rays
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Short-wavelength, high-energy x-rays
Wavelength determines the energy and penetrating power of radiation, and shorter wavelengths penetrate more. Long-wavelength, low-energy x-rays are the ones the filter removes because they add patient dose without contributing to the image.
Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 5.1 Radiation characteristics — X-ray beam quality; wavelength; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.1 Radiation protection — Added filtration
Question 39 · RHS-R02
If kilovoltage is increased and nothing else changes, how does the image change?
- A. It becomes lighter, with higher contrast
- B. It becomes darker, with lower contrast (more shades of gray)
- C. It becomes darker, with higher contrast
- D. Nothing changes, because kilovoltage affects only exposure time
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It becomes darker, with lower contrast (more shades of gray)
Increasing kilovoltage produces a higher-energy beam, so the image shows increased density (darker) and lower contrast, with many shades of gray. Low kilovoltage settings produce high contrast.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 5.1 Radiation characteristics — Density and contrast with kilovoltage peak
Question 40 · RHS-R03
The source-to-receptor distance doubles while all exposure settings stay the same. What happens to the beam intensity at the receptor?
- A. It drops to one-half
- B. It drops to one-fourth
- C. It doubles
- D. It increases four times
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It drops to one-fourth
Under the inverse square law, intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. Doubling the distance spreads the same x-rays over four times the area, so intensity falls to 1/2², or one-fourth.
Sources: Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Inverse square law — Theory: doubling distance reduces intensity to one-fourth; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), Chapter 5: Radiation characteristics — Inverse square law (learning objective 5.2)
Question 41 · RHS-R04
What does the aluminum filter in the tubehead do?
- A. Shapes the beam into a rectangle the size of the receptor
- B. Increases the number of x-rays produced
- C. Blocks scatter radiation from reaching the operator
- D. Absorbs longer-wavelength, low-energy x-rays, leaving a more penetrating beam
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Absorbs longer-wavelength, low-energy x-rays, leaving a more penetrating beam
Added filtration is an aluminum disk between the collimator and the tubehead seal that filters out longer-wavelength, lower-energy x-rays, producing a higher-energy, more penetrating useful beam. Shaping the beam is collimation, and filtration does not increase x-ray production or protect the operator from scatter.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.1 Radiation protection — Inherent, added and total filtration
Question 42 · RHS-R05
How does a rectangular collimator reduce patient dose?
- A. It restricts the beam to about the size and shape of the receptor, so less tissue is exposed
- B. It lowers the kilovoltage of the beam
- C. It removes low-energy x-rays from the beam
- D. It doubles the source-to-skin distance
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. It restricts the beam to about the size and shape of the receptor, so less tissue is exposed
Collimation restricts the size and shape of the beam. Rectangular collimation limits exposure to little more than the receptor area, and the ADA's 2024 review notes that collimating to the region of interest consistently reduces dose by more than 40%. Removing low-energy x-rays is filtration's job.
Sources: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Dose reduction and optimization; recommendation 3.1.2; DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.1 Radiation protection — Collimation
Question 43 · RHS-R06
Why is a longer (16-inch) position-indicating device preferred over a short (8-inch) one?
- A. It allows a shorter exposure time at the same distance
- B. It produces more scatter radiation
- C. It produces less divergence of the x-ray beam
- D. It makes the focal spot smaller
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. It produces less divergence of the x-ray beam
A longer PID increases the distance between the source and the patient's skin, so the beam diverges less and a smaller volume of tissue is irradiated. The ADA's 2024 review lists long PIDs among the measures that substantially reduce exposure.
Sources: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 4.1 Radiation protection — PID length and beam divergence; Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Dose reduction and optimization
Question 44 · RHS-R07
According to the ADA's 2024 recommendations, intraoral x-ray units should be configured so the source-to-skin distance is at least:
- A. 10 cm
- B. 2 m
- C. 20 cm
- D. 5 cm
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 20 cm
Recommendation 3.1.3 says the intraoral system shall be configured so the distance from the focal spot to the skin entrance surface is not less than 20 cm. The same recommendations call for operating intraoral units between 60 and 80 kV. Two meters is the operator distance when no barrier is available, not a source-to-skin distance.
Source: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Box 2, recommendations 3.1.3, 3.1.4 and 2.0.1
Question 45 · RHS-R08
Which unit measures absorbed dose, the energy deposited in tissue?
- A. Gray (Gy); the traditional unit is the rad
- B. Sievert (Sv)
- C. Roentgen (R)
- D. Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Gray (Gy); the traditional unit is the rad
Absorbed dose is measured in rad and gray (Gy). The roentgen and coulombs per kilogram measure exposure in air, and the rem and sievert measure dose equivalent, which accounts for the biological effect of the type of radiation.
Source: U.S. NRC — Measuring Radiation — R-E-A-D: exposure, absorbed dose, dose equivalent
Question 46 · RHS-R09
Which pair of units describes radiation exposure in air rather than dose to tissue?
- A. Gray (Gy) and rad
- B. Sievert (Sv) and rem
- C. Becquerel (Bq) and curie (Ci)
- D. Roentgen (R) and coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Roentgen (R) and coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)
Exposure, the amount of radiation traveling through air, is measured in roentgens and coulombs per kilogram. Gray and rad measure absorbed dose, sievert and rem measure dose equivalent, and becquerel and curie measure the radioactivity of a material.
Source: U.S. NRC — Measuring Radiation — R-E-A-D units
Question 47 · RHS-R10
Which action best applies the ALARA principle (as low as reasonably achievable) during intraoral imaging?
- A. Retaking any image that is slightly off-center so the series looks uniform
- B. Taking a full-mouth series at every annual visit for consistency
- C. Using digital receptors, rectangular collimation and careful technique to avoid retakes
- D. Using the highest kilovoltage the unit allows
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Using digital receptors, rectangular collimation and careful technique to avoid retakes
ALARA means getting the clinical benefit at the lowest reasonably achievable dose. The ADA's 2024 priority recommendations include digital receptors and rectangular collimation, and good technique avoids retakes, which add exposure for patient and operator. Routine or cosmetic retakes and calendar-based series do not meet that standard.
Sources: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — ALARA; Box 1 priority recommendations; Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Use good technique to reduce retakes
Question 48 · RHS-R11
What is the time between exposure to ionizing radiation and the appearance of observable effects called?
- A. Latent period
- B. Recovery period
- C. Period of injury
- D. Half-value layer
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Latent period
After exposure, the sequence is the latent period (the time before effects appear), the period of injury, and the recovery period, during which some cellular repair occurs. The half-value layer is a measure of beam quality, not a biological period.
Source: Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Biological radiation hazards — Radiation injury: latent period, period of injury, recovery period
Question 49 · RHS-R12
Radiation damage to reproductive cells that may be passed on to future generations is called:
- A. A genetic effect
- B. A somatic effect
- C. A tissue reaction (deterministic effect)
- D. Acute radiation syndrome
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A genetic effect
Genetic effects are not seen in the irradiated person but can be passed on to future generations. Somatic effects appear in the person who was exposed. Tissue reactions and acute radiation syndrome follow high doses well above anything used in dental imaging.
Sources: Al-Mustaqbal University lecture — Biological radiation hazards — Somatic and genetic effects; Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Tissue reactions vs stochastic effects
Question 50 · RHS-R13
Which statement about typical dental imaging doses matches the ADA's 2024 review?
- A. Dental x-rays commonly cause skin burns and cataracts
- B. Dental doses are usually well below the threshold for tissue reactions, but cumulative low-dose exposure still warrants minimizing dose
- C. Dental imaging carries no radiation risk at all
- D. Only the operator, not the patient, faces any radiation risk
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Dental doses are usually well below the threshold for tissue reactions, but cumulative low-dose exposure still warrants minimizing dose
The review explains that tissue reactions such as skin burns or cataracts follow acute exposures above roughly 100 mGy, and dental imaging is typically well below that. Because patients receive many examinations over a lifetime and low-dose exposure may carry stochastic (random) risk, exposure is still kept as low as reasonably achievable.
Source: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Radiation exposure and use of ionizing radiation in dentistry
Question 51 · RHS-R14
Why do the ADA's 2024 recommendations call for special care when imaging children?
- A. Children's teeth absorb more radiation than adult enamel
- B. Children require higher kilovoltage settings
- C. Children have higher organ radiosensitivity and a longer expected lifespan for effects to accumulate
- D. Thyroid collars work better on children than on adults
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Children have higher organ radiosensitivity and a longer expected lifespan for effects to accumulate
Children and young adults are more susceptible because of higher organ sensitivity and a longer expected lifespan, which allows a greater cumulative effect. The recommendations call for justified imaging, settings optimized for size and age, and careful positioning with rectangular collimation, not routine thyroid collars.
Source: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Special considerations for pediatric patients; recommendations 3.0.4 and 3.3.1
Question 52 · RHS-R15
A patient asks why you are not placing a lead apron or thyroid collar. Which explanation matches the ADA's 2024 recommendations?
- A. Shielding is optional for adults but always required for children
- B. The ADA no longer recommends routine abdominal or thyroid shielding; it can block the beam, and dose is reduced through rectangular collimation, positioning and justified imaging
- C. Digital sensors do not use radiation, so shielding is unnecessary
- D. Lead aprons are only for the operator's protection
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The ADA no longer recommends routine abdominal or thyroid shielding; it can block the beam, and dose is reduced through rectangular collimation, positioning and justified imaging
The 2024 recommendations say abdominal and thyroid shielding during intraoral, panoramic, cephalometric and CBCT imaging is no longer recommended for pediatric or adult patients. Shields can block the primary beam and cause retakes, and they do not protect against internal scatter. Digital imaging still uses x-rays. If a state rule still requires shielding, the office follows that rule.
Sources: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Patient protection and shielding; recommendation 3.0.5; ADA — Updated recommendations to enhance radiography safety in dentistry (Feb 1, 2024) — Press release
Question 53 · RHS-R16
A pregnant patient has a toothache, and the dentist decides a periapical image is needed for diagnosis. Which approach matches the ADA's 2024 recommendations?
- A. Take the justified image with normal dose-reduction measures; the shielding recommendation applies to pregnant patients too
- B. Dental radiographs are prohibited until after delivery
- C. Place both a lead apron and a thyroid collar, as the 2024 recommendations require for pregnancy
- D. Use the bisecting technique to lower the dose
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Take the justified image with normal dose-reduction measures; the shielding recommendation applies to pregnant patients too
Imaging decisions rest on the dentist's judgment of clinical benefit. The ADA noted that its 2024 recommendation to discontinue lead aprons and thyroid collars applies to all patients, including those who are pregnant; dose is minimized with rectangular collimation, digital receptors and good positioning. Follow any state rule that adds requirements.
Sources: ADA — Updated recommendations to enhance radiography safety in dentistry (Feb. 1, 2024) — Shielding recommendation applies regardless of age or health status, including pregnancy; Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Recommendations 3.0.2 and 3.0.5
Question 54 · RHS-R17
After the dentist explains why bitewings are needed, a patient still refuses them. What should happen?
- A. Take the images anyway, because they are standard of care
- B. Have the patient sign a form, then take the images anyway
- C. Proceed without noting anything, because no images were taken
- D. Document the discussion and the patient's refusal in the patient record
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Document the discussion and the patient's refusal in the patient record
Patients may refuse recommended care, including a radiograph. ADA guidance says the dentist should explain the recommendation and potential consequences, then document the refusal and discussion in the record. Whether treatment can safely proceed without the image is the dentist's decision.
Sources: ADA — Informed Consent Refusal — Patient right to refuse; document the discussion and refusal; ADA — Types of Consent — Document informed refusal in the patient record
Question 55 · RHS-R18
The tubehead slowly drifts away from the patient's face after you position it. What is the correct response?
- A. Hold the PID steady with your hand during each exposure
- B. Ask the patient to hold the PID in place
- C. Increase the exposure time to make up for the movement
- D. Do not hold the tubehead or PID; report the drift so the arm can be adjusted or repaired
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Do not hold the tubehead or PID; report the drift so the arm can be adjusted or repaired
A drifting tubehead signals that a mechanical adjustment or repair is needed, and it should be reported right away. Neither the operator nor the patient should hold the tubehead or PID during exposure, because a small potential for leakage radiation exists. A drifting tubehead causes blurred images and retakes.
Source: Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Don't hold the X-ray head or the PID
Question 56 · RHS-R19
A pregnant dental assistant operates the office's x-ray equipment. According to the ADA's 2024 recommendations, what should she do?
- A. Stop all radiography until after delivery
- B. Wear a dosimeter only if the office's average exposure exceeds 1 mSv per year
- C. Follow the facility's radiation safety program, use protective barriers and wear a personal dosimeter regardless of anticipated exposure
- D. Hold receptors only for pediatric patients
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Follow the facility's radiation safety program, use protective barriers and wear a personal dosimeter regardless of anticipated exposure
Recommendation 2.1.2 says pregnant personnel who operate imaging equipment shall follow the facility's radiation safety program, including limiting occupational exposure, using protective barriers and wearing personal dosimeters regardless of anticipated exposure levels. The 1 mSv threshold applies to other staff deciding whether to wear dosimeters. No operator should hold receptors for patients.
Sources: Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293 — Box 2, recommendations 2.1.1 and 2.1.2; Indian Health Service, Dental Digital Imaging — Chapter 1: Radiation Safety and Protection — Never hold a receptor for a patient
Infection Prevention and Control — 19 questions
DANB weight for this domain: 25%.
Question 57 · RHS-I01
When should hand hygiene be performed relative to gloving for intraoral imaging?
- A. Only after removing gloves
- B. Not at all, as long as gloves are worn
- C. Immediately before putting on gloves and again right after removing them
- D. Only when hands look visibly soiled
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Immediately before putting on gloves and again right after removing them
Wearing gloves does not eliminate the need for hand hygiene. CDC says to perform hand hygiene immediately before donning gloves and to wash hands immediately after glove removal, because gloves can have small defects and hands can be contaminated while removing them. OSHA also requires hand washing as soon as feasible after removing gloves.
Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Gloves and gloving; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(2)(v)
Question 58 · RHS-I02
How does OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard classify saliva during dental procedures?
- A. As other potentially infectious material (OPIM)
- B. As non-infectious unless blood is visible
- C. As infectious only during surgical procedures
- D. As regulated waste in every case
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. As other potentially infectious material (OPIM)
OSHA's definition of other potentially infectious materials specifically includes saliva in dental procedures. That is why placing receptors, which involves contact with saliva and mucous membranes, calls for standard precautions and gloves. Whether an item is regulated waste depends on how much material it would release, not on saliva contact alone.
Sources: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (b) Definitions: OPIM; regulated waste; CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Background: standard precautions
Question 59 · RHS-I03
How are the examination gloves you wore during a full-mouth series handled?
- A. Washed with soap and reused for the next patient
- B. Wiped with alcohol and reused for the rest of the day
- C. Discarded after that patient; they are changed between patients and never washed for reuse
- D. Saved and reused on the same patient at the next visit
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Discarded after that patient; they are changed between patients and never washed for reuse
Medical gloves are single-use items used for one patient and then discarded, and they should be changed between patients and when torn or punctured. OSHA prohibits washing or decontaminating disposable gloves for reuse, and all PPE is removed before leaving the work area.
Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Gloves and gloving; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(ix)(A)–(B); (d)(3)(vii)
Question 60 · RHS-I04
When does OSHA require a mask combined with eye protection during radiographic procedures?
- A. Never; radiography is a low-risk procedure
- B. Whenever splashes, spray, spatter or droplets of blood or OPIM may be generated
- C. Only during CBCT scans
- D. Only when the patient has a known infection
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Whenever splashes, spray, spatter or droplets of blood or OPIM may be generated
OSHA requires masks combined with eye protection, such as goggles or glasses with solid side shields, or chin-length face shields, whenever splashes, spray, spatter or droplets of blood or OPIM may be generated. A coughing or gagging patient during receptor placement is a realistic example. Standard precautions apply to every patient, not only those with a known infection.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(x)
Question 61 · RHS-I05
What is CDC's sequence for putting on a gown, mask, protective eyewear and gloves?
- A. Gloves, gown, mask, eyewear
- B. Mask, gloves, eyewear, gown
- C. Eyewear, mask, gloves, gown
- D. Gown, mask, eyewear, gloves
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Gown, mask, eyewear, gloves
CDC's sequence for putting on PPE is gown, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face shield, then gloves, which go on last so they extend over the gown's wrists. Removal follows a different order, starting with the most contaminated items.
Source: CDC — Sequence for Putting On and Removing PPE — Sequence for putting on PPE
Question 62 · RHS-I06
Which description fits a critical patient-care item?
- A. It touches mucous membranes but does not penetrate tissue
- B. It penetrates soft tissue or bone and must be sterilized
- C. It contacts only intact skin
- D. It is any item used near the patient's face
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It penetrates soft tissue or bone and must be sterilized
Critical items penetrate soft tissue or bone, carry the greatest risk of transmitting infection, and must be heat-sterilized. Semicritical items touch mucous membranes or nonintact skin, and noncritical items contact only intact skin. Most items used in routine intraoral imaging, such as receptor holders, are semicritical.
Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization and disinfection of patient-care items
Question 63 · RHS-I07
Under CDC's general rule, how should a heat-sensitive semicritical item be processed between patients, at a minimum?
- A. High-level disinfection, with heat-tolerant or disposable alternatives preferred
- B. Low-level surface disinfection
- C. Rinsing under running water
- D. Changing the barrier only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. High-level disinfection, with heat-tolerant or disposable alternatives preferred
Semicritical items should be heat-sterilized when they tolerate heat; if one is heat-sensitive, it should at minimum receive high-level disinfection, and CDC prefers heat-tolerant or disposable alternatives. Digital sensors are a special case: when they cannot tolerate sterilization or high-level disinfection, CDC calls for an FDA-cleared barrier plus cleaning and disinfection as the manufacturer directs.
Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Sterilization and disinfection of patient-care items; CDC — Summary of Infection Prevention Practices: Sterilization and Disinfection — Digital radiography sensors
Question 64 · RHS-I08
You touch the x-ray control panel and exposure button with gloved hands during each exposure. How should these surfaces be managed?
- A. Leave them alone; they never touch the patient
- B. Clean them once a week
- C. Barrier-protect them and change the barrier between patients, or clean and disinfect them between patients
- D. Heat-sterilize the exposure button
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Barrier-protect them and change the barrier between patients, or clean and disinfect them between patients
Surfaces touched with contaminated gloves become contaminated even though they never touch the patient. CDC notes that disposable barrier protection may be preferable for surfaces that are hard to clean, and contaminated surfaces need cleaning and disinfection with an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant. OSHA requires protective coverings to be replaced when contaminated.
Sources: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Noncritical items and barrier protection; 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(4)(ii)(A)–(B)
Question 65 · RHS-I09
After the last exposure, what order keeps the operatory breakdown and setup aseptic?
- A. Remove gloves first, then pull off the contaminated barriers with bare hands
- B. Place fresh barriers over the used ones to save time
- C. Leave used barriers in place until the end of the day
- D. Remove contaminated barriers while still gloved, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene, then place fresh barriers
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Remove contaminated barriers while still gloved, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene, then place fresh barriers
Contaminated barriers are handled with gloved hands, so they come off before the gloves. Hands are then washed after glove removal, and clean barriers go on with clean hands. Stacking new barriers over contaminated ones or leaving them in place until the end of the day defeats their purpose.
Sources: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(2)(v); (d)(4)(ii)(B); CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Gloves and gloving
Question 66 · RHS-I10
Your office uses disposable bite blocks for receptor holders. How are they handled after a patient?
- A. Wiped with disinfectant and reused
- B. Heat-sterilized and reused
- C. Used once and discarded
- D. Rinsed and reused on the same day only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Used once and discarded
Disposable positioning devices are used once and disposed of. Heat-tolerant reusable positioning devices, by contrast, are cleaned, packaged and heat-sterilized between patients.
Source: Wisconsin DOC Dental Radiation Policy, Attachment C — Infection Control for Digital Radiography — Infection control for radiographic positioning devices
Question 67 · RHS-I11
When you remove the barrier from a digital sensor, you see saliva on the sensor itself. What should you do before the next patient?
- A. Put on a new barrier; the old barrier's job is done
- B. Autoclave the sensor
- C. Rinse the sensor under tap water and air-dry it
- D. Clean and disinfect the sensor according to the manufacturer's instructions
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Clean and disinfect the sensor according to the manufacturer's instructions
Barriers reduce contamination but do not always prevent it, so the sensor is cleaned and disinfected after barrier removal and before use on another patient, using products the manufacturer approves. Most sensors cannot tolerate heat sterilization, and plain water is not disinfection.
Sources: Wisconsin DOC Dental Radiation Policy, Attachment C — Infection Control for Digital Radiography — General considerations; infection control for sensors; CDC — Summary of Infection Prevention Practices: Sterilization and Disinfection — Digital radiography sensors
Question 68 · RHS-I12
What does unit preparation for a panoramic image include?
- A. Clean barriers over the parts the patient will touch and a sterile or disposable bite block
- B. Only turning on the unit and selecting the exposure settings
- C. Reusing the previous patient's bite block if it looks clean
- D. Disinfecting the bite block only at the end of the day
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Clean barriers over the parts the patient will touch and a sterile or disposable bite block
Panoramic unit preparation includes placing clean barriers over components that will contact the patient and inserting a sterile bite block (or a disposable one), in addition to setting exposure factors. A bite block contacts the mouth, so a visually clean used one is not acceptable.
Source: Dentalcare CE 589 — Steps in the panoramic imaging procedure — Unit preparation
Question 69 · RHS-I13
An extraoral unit with a cephalostat is used. What must be done with the ear rods between patients?
- A. Nothing, because they touch only hair
- B. Wipe them with disinfectant
- C. Heat-sterilize them
- D. Replace the whole cephalostat
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Wipe them with disinfectant
Infection control steps must be completed before an extraoral exposure, and when a unit with a cephalostat is used, the ear rods must be wiped with disinfectant between patients because they contact each patient's head.
Source: DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook), 26.1 Extraoral imaging — Step-by-step procedures
Question 70 · RHS-I14
According to CDC's dental infection control guidelines, what is the single most critical measure for reducing the risk of transmitting organisms to patients and personnel?
- A. Wearing a surgical mask
- B. Using surface barriers
- C. Hand hygiene
- D. Wearing a gown
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Hand hygiene
CDC describes hand hygiene as the single most critical measure for reducing the risk of transmitting organisms to patients and health care personnel. Masks, barriers and gowns are important, but they work alongside hand hygiene rather than replacing it.
Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Hand hygiene
Question 71 · RHS-I15
Covering a digital sensor with a barrier mainly interrupts which link in the chain of infection?
- A. The susceptible host
- B. The reservoir
- C. The mode of transmission
- D. The pathogen's virulence
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The mode of transmission
Infection requires a pathogen, a reservoir, a mode of transmission, a portal of entry and a susceptible host. A barrier blocks transfer of saliva from one patient to the next by indirect contact, which is the mode of transmission. Vaccination, by contrast, works on the susceptible host.
Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Background: chain of infection; routes of transmission
Question 72 · RHS-I16
After exposing a series, you want to walk to the front desk to enter notes. What does OSHA require?
- A. Keep gloves on so you do not contaminate the keyboard with your hands
- B. Remove all PPE before leaving the work area
- C. Remove only the gloves and keep the gown on
- D. Wear a second pair of gloves over the first
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Remove all PPE before leaving the work area
OSHA requires all personal protective equipment to be removed before leaving the work area and placed in a designated area or container. Hands are washed after glove removal. Carrying contaminated PPE into clean areas spreads contamination.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens (eCFR text via Cornell LII) — (d)(3)(vii)–(viii); (d)(2)(v)
Question 73 · RHS-I17
An intermediate-level disinfectant is an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant with which additional label claim?
- A. Tuberculocidal
- B. Sporicidal
- C. Effective against HIV only
- D. Sterilant
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Tuberculocidal
CDC defines an intermediate-level disinfectant as a liquid chemical germicide registered with EPA as a hospital disinfectant with a label claim of potency as tuberculocidal. It inactivates mycobacteria and most viruses and fungi but not bacterial spores. Sporicidal chemicals are sterilants or high-level disinfectants.
Source: CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003 (MMWR 52/RR-17) — Selected definitions: intermediate-level disinfectant
Question 74 · RHS-I18
Which product is one type OSHA accepts as an appropriate disinfectant for work surfaces contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material, when used according to its label?
- A. Plain soap and water only
- B. An EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant
- C. Sterile water
- D. Alcohol hand rub
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. An EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant
OSHA requires contaminated work surfaces to be decontaminated with an appropriate disinfectant. OSHA guidance lists EPA-registered tuberculocidal products among the accepted choices, along with certain other EPA-registered products, diluted bleach solutions, and FDA-cleared sterilants/high-level disinfectants when used for their labeled purpose. Plain soap, sterile water and hand rub are not substitutes for an appropriate surface disinfectant.
Sources: OSHA — Hospitals eTool: Biological Hazards, Appropriate disinfectants — Appropriate disinfectants under 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(4)(ii)(A); OSHA — Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030 — 1910.1030(d)(4)(ii)(A)
Question 75 · RHS-I19
Which reprocessing step would damage many direct digital intraoral sensors and therefore should not be used unless the manufacturer specifically permits it?
- A. Steam autoclaving or fully immersing the sensor
- B. Wiping it with a disinfectant the manufacturer approves
- C. Covering it with an FDA-cleared barrier
- D. Storing it clean and dry between patients
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Steam autoclaving or fully immersing the sensor
Digital radiography sensors are semicritical devices, but reprocessing capability varies by manufacturer. CDC says to follow the manufacturer’s instructions; if a sensor cannot tolerate heat sterilization or high-level disinfection, use an FDA-cleared barrier and then clean and disinfect it with an EPA-registered intermediate-level hospital disinfectant between patients. Do not autoclave or immerse a sensor unless its instructions specifically allow that method.
Source: CDC — Sterilization and Disinfection, Dental Infection Prevention and Control — Digital radiography sensors
Answer key
Use this to grade a printed or offline run. The explanations above are where the learning is.
| # | ID | Domain | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | RHS-P01 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 2 | RHS-P02 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 3 | RHS-P03 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 4 | RHS-P04 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 5 | RHS-P05 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 6 | RHS-P06 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 7 | RHS-P07 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 8 | RHS-P08 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 9 | RHS-P09 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 10 | RHS-P10 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 11 | RHS-P11 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 12 | RHS-P12 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 13 | RHS-P13 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 14 | RHS-P14 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 15 | RHS-P15 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 16 | RHS-P16 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 17 | RHS-P17 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 18 | RHS-P18 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 19 | RHS-P19 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 20 | RHS-P20 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 21 | RHS-P21 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 22 | RHS-P22 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 23 | RHS-P23 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 24 | RHS-P24 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 25 | RHS-P25 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 26 | RHS-P26 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 27 | RHS-P27 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 28 | RHS-P28 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 29 | RHS-P29 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 30 | RHS-P30 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 31 | RHS-P31 | Purpose and Technique | B |
| 32 | RHS-P32 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 33 | RHS-P33 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 34 | RHS-P34 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 35 | RHS-P35 | Purpose and Technique | A |
| 36 | RHS-P36 | Purpose and Technique | D |
| 37 | RHS-P37 | Purpose and Technique | C |
| 38 | RHS-R01 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | D |
| 39 | RHS-R02 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | B |
| 40 | RHS-R03 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | B |
| 41 | RHS-R04 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | D |
| 42 | RHS-R05 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | A |
| 43 | RHS-R06 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | C |
| 44 | RHS-R07 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | C |
| 45 | RHS-R08 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | A |
| 46 | RHS-R09 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | D |
| 47 | RHS-R10 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | C |
| 48 | RHS-R11 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | A |
| 49 | RHS-R12 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | A |
| 50 | RHS-R13 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | B |
| 51 | RHS-R14 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | C |
| 52 | RHS-R15 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | B |
| 53 | RHS-R16 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | A |
| 54 | RHS-R17 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | D |
| 55 | RHS-R18 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | D |
| 56 | RHS-R19 | Radiation Characteristics and Protection | C |
| 57 | RHS-I01 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 58 | RHS-I02 | Infection Prevention and Control | A |
| 59 | RHS-I03 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 60 | RHS-I04 | Infection Prevention and Control | B |
| 61 | RHS-I05 | Infection Prevention and Control | D |
| 62 | RHS-I06 | Infection Prevention and Control | B |
| 63 | RHS-I07 | Infection Prevention and Control | A |
| 64 | RHS-I08 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 65 | RHS-I09 | Infection Prevention and Control | D |
| 66 | RHS-I10 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 67 | RHS-I11 | Infection Prevention and Control | D |
| 68 | RHS-I12 | Infection Prevention and Control | A |
| 69 | RHS-I13 | Infection Prevention and Control | B |
| 70 | RHS-I14 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 71 | RHS-I15 | Infection Prevention and Control | C |
| 72 | RHS-I16 | Infection Prevention and Control | B |
| 73 | RHS-I17 | Infection Prevention and Control | A |
| 74 | RHS-I18 | Infection Prevention and Control | B |
| 75 | RHS-I19 | Infection Prevention and Control | A |
What your score here means
Count your misses by domain, not just your total. Purpose and Technique is half of the real exam, so a weak spot there costs the most.
This is a raw score on an unofficial, fixed practice set. It cannot be turned into a DANB score or a chance of passing, for three reasons:
- The real RHS is adaptive. DANB uses computer adaptive testing. It scores you on the difficulty of the questions you answer correctly, and it says the average candidate answers about 50% of questions correctly.
- The real score is scaled. Results run from 100 to 900, and 400 is the minimum passing scaled score. DANB says this is not a number-correct or percent-correct score.
- These are different questions. Memorizing this set will not help on test day. Knowing why each wrong option is wrong will.
How to use this practice test
- Take all 75 questions once. To rehearse the pace, give yourself 60 minutes, the same time the real exam allows. Work without notes.
- Read the explanation for every question you missed or guessed on.
- Write down the idea behind each miss in a few words, such as "chin too low = exaggerated smile."
- Sort your misses by domain. Study the domain with the most misses first, using DANB's outline and the sources linked under each question.
- A couple of days later, retake only the questions you missed. Say out loud why the right answer is right before you check it.
A timed run is a fair rehearsal for time. It is not a rehearsal for difficulty, because the real exam adapts to you and this set does not.
Is film radiography on the DANB RHS exam?
No. DANB's RHS outline says the exam tests digital radiography only and that no conventional film-based concepts have been tested since July 7, 2022. If another practice set asks about developer chemistry, fixer or safelight testing, it is preparing you for a retired version of the exam. This page has no film questions.
Are lead aprons and thyroid collars still required for dental x-rays?
Not under current ADA guidance, and some older practice tests still mark "always place a lead apron" as the right answer. In 2024 the ADA's expert panel recommended no longer using abdominal and thyroid shielding for intraoral, panoramic, cephalometric and CBCT imaging, for adults and children, and the ADA said this includes pregnant patients. Shielding can block the beam and cause retakes. Dose is lowered instead with rectangular collimation, digital receptors, careful positioning and taking images only when the dentist decides they are needed. The RHS outline points to ADA and FDA guidelines for patient exposure. At work, some state rules may still mention shielding, so follow your state's rules until they change.
The DANB RHS exam at a glance
| What | Current rule | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Questions | 75 multiple-choice | DANB RHS outline |
| Time | 60 minutes | DANB RHS outline; DANB RHS exam page |
| Format | Computer adaptive testing | DANB RHS outline |
| Scoring | Scaled score from 100 to 900; 400 passes; not a percent-correct score | DANB RHS outline, Exam Development and Maintenance |
| Domains | Purpose and Technique 50%; Radiation Characteristics and Protection 25%; Infection Prevention and Control 25% | DANB RHS outline (effective 03/12/2025) |
| Content | Digital radiography only; no film-based concepts since July 7, 2022 | DANB RHS outline |
| Eligibility | None | DANB RHS outline |
| Fee | $270; $265 for active military | DANB RHS exam page; 2026 RHS application packet (updated 05/11/2026) |
| Testing window | 60 days | DANB RHS exam page |
| Where you test | Test center or remote online proctoring, your choice | DANB RHS outline |
| During the exam | DANB provides a list of acronyms you may see on the exam | DANB RHS outline, Acronyms |
| Results | Email within 1–3 business days saying results are in your DANB account | DANB RHS outline |
| Spanish | A Spanish-language version is offered | DANB RHS exam page |
| Part of | NELDA (with AMP and ICE) and CDA (with ICE and GC) | DANB RHS outline |
Last verified October 26, 2026: exam format, scoring, domains and digital-only scope against DANB's RHS Exam Outline and References (effective 03/12/2025); fee and window against DANB's RHS exam page and 2026 application packet. Fees and policies change; confirm on DANB's RHS page before you apply.
Passing RHS and taking x-rays at work are two different things. DANB states that passing its exams conveys authority to perform duties only in states that recognize those exams. Check your state on DANB's state requirements page or with your state dental board.
What the RHS exam covers
DANB's outline splits the exam into three domains. Here is what this practice set covers in each, in plain terms.
- Purpose and Technique (50%). Normal anatomy and common conditions on images; how restorations and materials look; which image fits which purpose (bitewing, periapical, occlusal, panoramic, cephalometric, CBCT); what makes an image acceptable; patient preparation and positioning; panoramic errors and how to fix them; positioning devices; mounting and tooth numbering; image ownership, privacy and who orders images.
- Radiation Characteristics and Protection (25%). How x-rays behave; how kVp, distance and filtration change the beam; radiation units; radiation biology; ways to cut patient dose, such as rectangular collimation and ALARA; answering patient questions about shielding and pregnancy; equipment problems; operator safety and dosimeters.
- Infection Prevention and Control (25%). Hand hygiene and PPE; bloodborne pathogens; sorting items as critical, semicritical or noncritical; disinfectant levels; barriers on sensors and equipment; setting up and breaking down the imaging area.
The full list of tested topics, the acronym list and a glossary are in the RHS Exam Outline and References.
How this practice set was built
Each question maps to a line in DANB's RHS outline. The 37/19/19 split is the closest balanced whole-number approximation of the outline's 50/25/25 domain weights on a fixed 75-question set; DANB does not publish fixed item counts for this practice test. Every question was written from scratch for this page; none is a real, recalled or reworded DANB item.
Each answer and explanation is paired with the source used for the underlying fact or principle: DANB's outline, current ADA/AAOMR imaging guidance, CDC dental infection-control guidance, OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens materials, U.S. NRC radiation-unit definitions, the open textbook DE 115: Dental Radiography, and continuing-education material on panoramic errors. No professional-review claim is made for this page. Where clinical decisions are involved, the questions keep diagnosis and the decision to order imaging with the dentist.
More free RHS and DANB practice
- 36 more RHS questions: the free DANB CDA practice test covers all three CDA components, including a separate RHS section with different questions from this page.
- Planning the full CDA: DANB CDA exam prep and DANB CDA exam requirements.
- Choosing a credential: dental assistant certification compares DANB and other dental assisting paths.
- DANB's free material: the RHS Exam Outline and References lists every tested topic, the acronym list you'll have during the exam, and a list of radiography terms. DANB also offers free study guide plans.
DANB RHS practice test FAQ
Is there an official free DANB RHS practice test? DANB publishes free official preparation resources, including the RHS Exam Outline and study-guide plans, but this Castleport set is not an official DANB test. Use DANB's outline as the authority for what the exam covers.
How many questions do I need to get right to pass the RHS? There is no fixed number. The RHS is computer adaptive and reported as a scaled score from 100 to 900, with 400 needed to pass. DANB says the average candidate answers around 50% of the questions correctly.
Is 80% a passing score on the RHS exam? There is no official percent that equals a pass. DANB reports a scaled score, and 400 passes. A percentage on this or any other practice test does not convert to a DANB score.
Is this an official DANB practice test? No. These are Castleport's original practice questions. None is a real, recalled or reworded DANB exam question.
How long is the DANB RHS exam? 60 minutes for 75 multiple-choice questions.
Do I need to finish a dental assisting program before taking the RHS? No. DANB states there are no eligibility requirements for the RHS exam.
Does the RHS exam still include film and darkroom questions? No. DANB says the exam tests digital radiography only and has not tested film-based concepts since July 7, 2022.
Do I have to memorize every acronym? You still need to know what they mean, but DANB provides the acronym list during the exam. The list is in the outline, so you can study from it now.
Can I take dental x-rays once I pass the RHS? Only if your state recognizes the RHS exam for radiography duties and you meet any other state requirements. Check your state dental board.
How much does the RHS exam cost? $270, or $265 for active military, when checked on October 26, 2026. Check DANB's RHS page before you apply, because fees change.
Sources
- DANB RHS Exam Outline and References (effective 03/12/2025) — exam characteristics, domains, digital-only scope, CAT, scoring, acronyms, state regulations
- DANB — Radiation Health and Safety exam page — fee, testing window, time, question count, Spanish version, DALE study materials
- DANB — Free RHS study guide plans and more — free study guide plans
- DANB 2026 RHS Application Packet (updated 05/11/2026) — active military fee
- ADA/AAOMR 2026 patient-selection recommendations (open full text) — current patient-selection guidance, prior-image review and CBCT use
- Benavides E, et al. Optimizing radiation safety in dentistry: clinical recommendations and regulatory considerations. JADA 2024;155(4):280-293
- ADA press release, February 1, 2024
- ADA — X-Rays/Radiographs (Oral Health Topics) — current ADA summary of imaging safety, including shielding
- CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings — 2003
- OSHA — 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne Pathogens
- U.S. NRC — Measuring Radiation
- DE 115: Dental Radiography (open textbook, Confederation College)
- Each question lists the specific source and section it relies on.
By the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. Last verified October 26, 2026.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the Dental Assisting National Board, Inc. (DANB). DANB, RHS and the other exam and credential names on this page identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. The practice questions are original and are not official DANB exam questions. This page is for study and does not predict or guarantee an exam result, certification or state authorization to take dental x-rays.