Castleport Test Prep

Free Kaplan Nursing Entrance Exam Practice Test

This free Kaplan nursing entrance exam practice test has 91 original questions: 28 math, 22 reading, 21 writing, and 20 science. The questions are unofficial; matching the published section sizes does not make this a Kaplan test or a prediction of your score.

Math: 28 questions

M01 · Conversions

A nurse records a patient's fluid intake for one morning: 240 mL of juice, 0.5 L of water, and 180 mL of broth. What is the total intake in milliliters?

  • A. 420.5 mL
  • B. 470 mL
  • C. 920 mL
  • D. 5,420 mL

Answer: C. 920 mL

Convert first, then add. 0.5 L × 1,000 mL per liter = 500 mL. Then 240 + 500 + 180 = 920 mL.

Why not the others:

  • A (420.5 mL) adds 0.5 as if it were already milliliters. Liters and milliliters have to match before you add.
  • B (470 mL) treats 0.5 L as 50 mL. The decimal moved one place instead of three.
  • D (5,420 mL) treats 0.5 L as 5,000 mL. The decimal moved four places instead of three.

Source: NIST: Metric (SI) Prefixes (prefix table: kilo = 1,000; milli = one-thousandth)

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Question 1 · Math · Conversions

A nurse records a patient's fluid intake for one morning: 240 mL of juice, 0.5 L of water, and 180 mL of broth. What is the total intake in milliliters?

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Reviewed explanations do not earn first-attempt credit. Section percentages use fixed published denominators only after completion. No official Kaplan score conversion or readiness label is implied.

Reading · Writing · Science · Score your practice test · Answer key

Answer as you go and open each explanation when you're ready, or use the timed-practice instructions after the set. For the published four-section format, math allows 45 minutes; every question here can be worked by hand or with a basic calculator (Kaplan’s admission-test outline). The healthcare examples are arithmetic exercises, not instructions for patient care.

M02 · Conversions

How many milligrams are in 0.75 gram?

  • A. 0.00075 mg
  • B. 7.5 mg
  • C. 75 mg
  • D. 750 mg

Answer: D. 750 mg

One gram is 1,000 milligrams, so 0.75 × 1,000 = 750 mg. Going to a smaller unit makes the number bigger.

Why not the others:

  • A (0.00075 mg) divides by 1,000 instead of multiplying. That's the move for going from milligrams to grams.
  • B (7.5 mg) multiplies by 10 instead of 1,000.
  • C (75 mg) multiplies by 100 instead of 1,000.

Source: NIST: Metric (SI) Prefixes (prefix table: kilo = 1,000; milli = one-thousandth)

M03 · Conversions

Using the approximate conversion 1 kg ≈ 2.2 lb, convert 143 lb to kilograms.

  • A. 65 kg
  • B. 71.5 kg
  • C. 145.2 kg
  • D. 314.6 kg

Answer: A. 65 kg

Divide by 2.2: 143 ÷ 2.2 = 65 kg using the stated approximation. For a positive weight, the number in kilograms is smaller than the number in pounds.

Why not the others:

  • B (71.5 kg) divides by 2 instead of 2.2.
  • C (145.2 kg) adds 2.2 instead of dividing by it.
  • D (314.6 kg) multiplies by 2.2. That converts kilograms to pounds, the wrong direction.

Basis: Conversion factor stated in the question.

M04 · Conversions

What is 3/8 written as an exact percent?

  • A. 0.375%
  • B. 3.8%
  • C. 37.5%
  • D. 38%

Answer: C. 37.5%

3 ÷ 8 = 0.375, and 0.375 × 100 = 37.5%.

Why not the others:

  • A (0.375%) stops at the decimal. To turn a decimal into a percent, multiply by 100.
  • B (3.8%) just writes the two digits of the fraction side by side. A fraction bar means divide.
  • D (38%) rounds. The question asks for the exact value, which is 37.5%.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M05 · Conversions

A patient's temperature is 102.2°F. Using °C = (°F − 32) × 5/9, what is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

  • A. 24.8°C
  • B. 39°C
  • C. 56.8°C
  • D. 126.4°C

Answer: B. 39°C

Work inside the parentheses first: 102.2 − 32 = 70.2. Then 70.2 × 5 ÷ 9 = 39.

Why not the others:

  • A (24.8°C) multiplies by 5/9 before subtracting 32. The parentheses say subtract first.
  • C (56.8°C) never subtracts the 32.
  • D (126.4°C) subtracts correctly but multiplies by 9/5 instead of 5/9.

Basis: Formula stated in the question.

M06 · Conversions

A patient is 5 feet 4 inches tall. Using 1 foot = 12 inches and 1 inch = 2.54 cm, what is the patient's height in centimeters?

  • A. 25.20 cm
  • B. 137.16 cm
  • C. 162.56 cm
  • D. 164.59 cm

Answer: C. 162.56 cm

First get total inches: 5 × 12 + 4 = 64 inches. Then 64 × 2.54 = 162.56 cm.

Why not the others:

  • A (25.20 cm) divides 64 by 2.54. Centimeters are smaller than inches, so the number should get bigger.
  • B (137.16 cm) treats 5 feet 4 inches as 54 inches.
  • D (164.59 cm) treats 5 feet 4 inches as 5.4 feet. Four inches is 4/12 of a foot, not 0.4.

Basis: Conversion factors stated in the question.

M07 · Conversions

A lab machine uses 1.2 L of cleaning solution, spread evenly over an 8-hour shift. How many milliliters does it use per hour?

  • A. 0.15 mL/hour
  • B. 9.6 mL/hour
  • C. 15 mL/hour
  • D. 150 mL/hour

Answer: D. 150 mL/hour

1.2 L = 1,200 mL, and 1,200 ÷ 8 = 150 mL per hour.

Why not the others:

  • A (0.15 mL/hour) divides 1.2 by 8 without converting. The result, 0.15, is in liters per hour, not milliliters per hour.
  • B (9.6 mL/hour) multiplies 1.2 by 8 instead of dividing.
  • C (15 mL/hour) treats 1.2 L as 120 mL. One liter is 1,000 mL, not 100.

Source: NIST: Metric (SI) Prefixes (prefix table: kilo = 1,000; milli = one-thousandth)

M08 · Operations

What is 2/3 + 3/4?

  • A. 1/12
  • B. 1/2
  • C. 5/7
  • D. 1 5/12

Answer: D. 1 5/12

Use a common denominator of 12: 2/3 = 8/12 and 3/4 = 9/12. Then 8/12 + 9/12 = 17/12 = 1 5/12.

Why not the others:

  • A (1/12) subtracts instead of adding (9/12 − 8/12).
  • B (1/2) multiplies the fractions (6/12) instead of adding them.
  • C (5/7) adds the tops and the bottoms separately. Fractions need a common denominator first.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M09 · Operations

What is 5 1/4 − 2 2/3?

  • A. 2 5/12
  • B. 2 7/12
  • C. 3 5/12
  • D. 3 7/12

Answer: B. 2 7/12

Write both with twelfths: 5 3/12 − 2 8/12. You can't take 8/12 from 3/12, so borrow 1 (which is 12/12): 4 15/12 − 2 8/12 = 2 7/12. Check: 21/4 − 8/3 = 63/12 − 32/12 = 31/12.

Why not the others:

  • A (2 5/12) borrows 10/12 instead of 12/12, as if this were a decimal.
  • C (3 5/12) subtracts the fractions backward (2/3 − 1/4) to avoid borrowing.
  • D (3 7/12) borrows for the fraction but forgets to reduce the 5 to 4.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M10 · Operations

What is 3/5 × 10/9 in simplest form?

  • A. 27/50
  • B. 2/3
  • C. 13/14
  • D. 1 1/2

Answer: B. 2/3

Multiply across: 30/45, which simplifies to 2/3. Canceling first is faster: 3 goes into 9 three times, and 5 goes into 10 twice, leaving 1/1 × 2/3.

Why not the others:

  • A (27/50) divides instead of multiplying (3/5 × 9/10).
  • C (13/14) adds the numerators and the denominators.
  • D (1 1/2) flips the answer (45/30).

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M11 · Operations

What is 3/4 ÷ 3/8?

  • A. 9/32
  • B. 1/2
  • C. 1 1/8
  • D. 2

Answer: D. 2

Multiply by the reciprocal of the second fraction: 3/4 × 8/3 = 24/12 = 2. Sanity check: there are two 3/8s in 6/8.

Why not the others:

  • A (9/32) multiplies the fractions instead of dividing.
  • B (1/2) flips the first fraction instead of the second (4/3 × 3/8).
  • C (1 1/8) adds the fractions.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M12 · Operations

What is 12.6 − 4.85 + 0.3?

  • A. 7.45
  • B. 7.78
  • C. 8.05
  • D. 17.75

Answer: C. 8.05

Work left to right with the decimals lined up: 12.60 − 4.85 = 7.75, then 7.75 + 0.30 = 8.05.

Why not the others:

  • A (7.45) subtracts 0.3 as well, as if the problem were 12.6 − (4.85 + 0.3).
  • B (7.78) adds 0.03 instead of 0.3. Line up the decimal points.
  • D (17.75) adds 4.85 instead of subtracting it.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M13 · Operations

What is 18 − 3 × (4 − 2)² ÷ 6?

  • A. 10
  • B. 12
  • C. 16
  • D. 17

Answer: C. 16

Parentheses first: 4 − 2 = 2. Exponent next: 2² = 4. Then multiply and divide left to right: 3 × 4 = 12, and 12 ÷ 6 = 2. Last, subtract: 18 − 2 = 16.

Why not the others:

  • A (10) subtracts first (18 − 3 = 15), then multiplies and divides.
  • B (12) multiplies before squaring: 3 × 2 = 6, then 6² = 36, 36 ÷ 6 = 6, and 18 − 6 = 12.
  • D (17) forgets to square: 3 × 2 ÷ 6 = 1, and 18 − 1 = 17.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M14 · Operations

Which statement is true?

  • A. 0.06 = 6%
  • B. 3/5 = 0.35
  • C. 1/8 = 0.18
  • D. 250/1,000 = 1/3

Answer: A. 0.06 = 6%

To change a decimal to a percent, multiply by 100: 0.06 × 100 = 6%.

Why not the others:

  • B (3/5 = 0.35) 3 ÷ 5 = 0.6, not 0.35.
  • C (1/8 = 0.18) 1 ÷ 8 = 0.125.
  • D (250/1,000 = 1/3) 250/1,000 simplifies to 1/4.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M15 · Operations

What is 15% of 240?

  • A. 3.6
  • B. 16
  • C. 36
  • D. 360

Answer: C. 36

0.15 × 240 = 36. Mental shortcut: 10% of 240 is 24, 5% is 12, and 24 + 12 = 36.

Why not the others:

  • A (3.6) uses 0.015 instead of 0.15.
  • B (16) divides 240 by 15.
  • D (360) uses 1.5 instead of 0.15.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M16 · Ratios

What is the ratio 18:24 in simplest form?

  • A. 3:4
  • B. 4:3
  • C. 6:8
  • D. 2:3

Answer: A. 3:4

The greatest common factor of 18 and 24 is 6. Divide both terms by 6: 18 ÷ 6 = 3 and 24 ÷ 6 = 4.

Why not the others:

  • B (4:3) reverses the order. The first term must stay with 18.
  • C (6:8) is equal to 18:24 but not in simplest form. Both terms still share a factor of 2.
  • D (2:3) divides the two terms by different numbers (18 ÷ 9 and 24 ÷ 8), which changes the ratio.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M17 · Ratios

Solve for x: 4/x = 10/25

  • A. 10
  • B. 19
  • C. 40
  • D. 62.5

Answer: A. 10

Cross-multiply: 10x = 4 × 25 = 100, so x = 10. Check: 4/10 = 0.4 and 10/25 = 0.4.

Why not the others:

  • B (19) uses subtraction instead of a ratio: 10 is 6 more than 4, so it subtracts 6 from 25.
  • C (40) multiplies 4 × 10 and never divides by 25.
  • D (62.5) computes 25 × 10 ÷ 4, which pairs the wrong terms.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M18 · Ratios

A liquid supplement contains 125 mg of an ingredient in every 5 mL. How many milliliters contain 300 mg?

  • A. 2.08 mL
  • B. 2.4 mL
  • C. 12 mL
  • D. 60 mL

Answer: C. 12 mL

Set up the proportion 125 mg / 5 mL = 300 mg / x. Then 125x = 1,500, so x = 12 mL. Or: 300 ÷ 125 = 2.4 portions of 5 mL, and 2.4 × 5 = 12.

Why not the others:

  • A (2.08 mL) flips the ratio: 125 ÷ 300 × 5 is about 2.08.
  • B (2.4 mL) stops at 300 ÷ 125 and forgets that each portion is 5 mL.
  • D (60 mL) divides 300 by 5 and ignores the 125 mg.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M19 · Ratios

A cleaning solution is mixed at a ratio of 1 part concentrate to 4 parts water. How much concentrate is in 750 mL of the finished solution? Assume the volumes add.

  • A. 150 mL
  • B. 187.5 mL
  • C. 600 mL
  • D. 3,000 mL

Answer: A. 150 mL

1 + 4 = 5 parts in all. 750 ÷ 5 = 150 mL per part, and the concentrate is 1 part.

Why not the others:

  • B (187.5 mL) divides by 4, forgetting that the concentrate is also part of the total.
  • C (600 mL) is the amount of water (4 parts), not concentrate.
  • D (3,000 mL) multiplies 750 by 4.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M20 · Ratios

The price of a notebook rises from $1.60 to $2.00. What is the percent increase?

  • A. 20%
  • B. 25%
  • C. 40%
  • D. 80%

Answer: B. 25%

The increase is $0.40. Divide by the original price: 0.40 ÷ 1.60 = 0.25 = 25%.

Why not the others:

  • A (20%) divides the increase by the new price ($2.00). Percent change uses the original amount.
  • C (40%) treats a 40-cent increase as 40%.
  • D (80%) divides the old price by the new price.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M21 · Ratios

A person's weight drops from 180 lb to 171 lb. What is the percent decrease?

  • A. 5%
  • B. 5.3%
  • C. 9%
  • D. 95%

Answer: A. 5%

The decrease is 9 lb. Divide by the original weight: 9 ÷ 180 = 0.05 = 5%.

Why not the others:

  • B (5.3%) divides by the new weight, 171.
  • C (9%) treats 9 pounds as 9%.
  • D (95%) is the new weight as a percent of the old one, not the decrease.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M22 · Word problems

Solve for x: 3x − 7 = 20

  • A. 4 1/3
  • B. 9
  • C. 27
  • D. 81

Answer: B. 9

Add 7 to both sides: 3x = 27. Divide by 3: x = 9. Check: 3 × 9 − 7 = 20.

Why not the others:

  • A (4 1/3) subtracts 7 instead of adding it (3x = 13, so x = 13/3).
  • C (27) stops before dividing by 3.
  • D (81) multiplies by 3 instead of dividing.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M23 · Word problems

Solve for x: x/4 + 6 = 15

  • A. 2.25
  • B. 36
  • C. 54
  • D. 84

Answer: B. 36

Subtract 6: x/4 = 9. Multiply by 4: x = 36. Check: 36 ÷ 4 + 6 = 15.

Why not the others:

  • A (2.25) divides 9 by 4 instead of multiplying.
  • C (54) multiplies 15 by 4 but fails to multiply the 6 by 4. Multiplying the whole equation by 4 is valid: x + 24 = 60, so x = 36.
  • D (84) adds 6 instead of subtracting it (x/4 = 21).

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M24 · Word problems

A student's first three quiz scores are 82, 76, and 91. What score on the fourth quiz would make the average of all four scores exactly 85?

  • A. 6
  • B. 83
  • C. 85
  • D. 91

Answer: D. 91

Four scores averaging 85 must total 85 × 4 = 340. The first three total 82 + 76 + 91 = 249. So the fourth must be 340 − 249 = 91.

Why not the others:

  • A (6) uses 85 × 3 = 255 as the target total, but there are four scores.
  • B (83) is the average of the first three scores.
  • C (85) assumes the missing score equals the target average.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M25 · Word problems

A printer prints 45 pages in 3 minutes. At the same rate, how many minutes will it take to print 330 pages?

  • A. 7 1/3 minutes
  • B. 22 minutes
  • C. 66 minutes
  • D. 110 minutes

Answer: B. 22 minutes

The rate is 45 ÷ 3 = 15 pages per minute. Then 330 ÷ 15 = 22 minutes.

Why not the others:

  • A (7 1/3 minutes) divides 330 by 45. That counts 3-minute blocks, not minutes.
  • C (66 minutes) multiplies the correct answer by 3 again.
  • D (110 minutes) divides 330 by 3 and ignores the 45 pages.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M26 · Word problems

After a 30% discount, a textbook costs $84. What was the original price?

  • A. $58.80
  • B. $109.20
  • C. $114
  • D. $120

Answer: D. $120

The sale price is 70% of the original, so the original is 84 ÷ 0.70 = $120. Check: 30% of $120 is $36, and $120 − $36 = $84.

Why not the others:

  • A ($58.80) takes 30% off $84 again.
  • B ($109.20) adds 30% of $84. The discount was taken from the original price, not from $84.
  • C ($114) adds $30, treating the percent as dollars.

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M27 · Word problems

A hospital unit uses 1.5 boxes of exam gloves per shift and runs 3 shifts a day. How many full days will a supply of 60 boxes last?

  • A. 13 days
  • B. 14 days
  • C. 20 days
  • D. 40 days

Answer: A. 13 days

Daily use is 1.5 × 3 = 4.5 boxes. 60 ÷ 4.5 = 13.33…, so the supply covers 13 full days. On day 14 it runs out partway through.

Why not the others:

  • B (14 days) rounds up. The question asks for full days, and the 14th day would come up short.
  • C (20 days) ignores the 1.5 boxes per shift (60 ÷ 3).
  • D (40 days) ignores the 3 shifts per day (60 ÷ 1.5).

Basis: Arithmetic from the numbers stated in the question.

M28 · Word problems

A lab needs 2.4 L of saline solution. The solution comes in 300 mL bottles. How many bottles are needed?

  • A. 0.008 bottles
  • B. 8 bottles
  • C. 80 bottles
  • D. 720 bottles

Answer: B. 8 bottles

Convert first: 2.4 L = 2,400 mL. Then 2,400 ÷ 300 = 8 bottles.

Why not the others:

  • A (0.008 bottles) divides 2.4 by 300 without converting liters to milliliters.
  • C (80 bottles) converts 2.4 L to 24,000 mL.
  • D (720 bottles) multiplies 2.4 by 300.

Source: NIST: Metric (SI) Prefixes (prefix table: kilo = 1,000; milli = one-thousandth)

Reading: 22 questions

In the published four-section format: four passages, 22 questions, 45 minutes (Kaplan’s outline). Paragraphs are numbered so each explanation can point you to its evidence.

Reading passage 1: Florence Nightingale's picture of preventable death

History · Questions R01–R06

(1) When Florence Nightingale arrived at the British army's hospital at Scutari in November 1854, leading a team of 38 nurses, she found wards without beds or blankets. Rats and fleas were everywhere. Record keeping was so poor that hundreds of soldiers had been buried without any note of how they died.

(2) Nightingale began collecting numbers, and she organized a team of helpers to gather them. Over time, the figures pointed to a disturbing conclusion. More soldiers were dying from preventable diseases, spread by unsanitary conditions, than from wounds received in battle.

(3) Knowing this was not enough. She also had to convince the people who could change the system. After returning to London in 1856, she set out to reach members of Parliament, government officials, and army officers, few of whom had any training in statistics. Most statisticians of her day presented findings as tables of numbers. Nightingale turned to a picture instead.

(4) Her best-known diagram set two years of the war side by side. Each wedge stood for one month, and the colored areas showed annualized death rates per 1,000 soldiers for that month, allowing for changes in army size. Blue marked deaths from preventable disease, red marked deaths from wounds, and black marked other causes. At a glance, readers could see that the blue areas were far larger than the red ones, and that death rates fell in the second year, after reforms to hospital care took hold.

(5) Nightingale wanted busy officials to grasp the size of the problem quickly and to question a belief that was deeply entrenched among them: that soldiers died mainly from their wounds. In 1858, she became the first woman elected to the Statistical Society, known today as the Royal Statistical Society.

Facts in this passage come from Science Museum: Florence Nightingale, the pioneer statistician; HistData: Nightingale mortality data. The passage wording is original to Castleport.

R01 · Logic of the passage: main idea

Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • A. Nightingale's most important achievement at Scutari was bringing a team of 38 nurses to wards that had no beds or blankets.
  • B. Because statisticians of the 1850s refused to use tables, Nightingale was forced to invent a new kind of diagram.
  • C. Nightingale's diagram proved that the British army lost the war because its hospitals had too few nurses.
  • D. Nightingale turned her death statistics into a picture meant to show officials that disease, not wounds, was the main killer.

Answer: D. Nightingale turned her death statistics into a picture meant to show officials that disease, not wounds, was the main killer.

Every paragraph builds toward this: she gathers the numbers (paragraph 2), needs to persuade people without statistical training (paragraph 3), designs the diagram (paragraph 4), and aims it at a belief officials held (paragraph 5).

Why not the others:

  • A builds on a detail from paragraph 1. The passage never ranks her achievements, and the rest of it is about her statistics and how she presented them.
  • B contradicts paragraph 3, which says most statisticians of her day presented findings as tables.
  • C is never stated. The diagram compared causes of death; it said nothing about who won the war or about nurse staffing.

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraphs 2–5.

Back to passage

R02 · Details: stated detail

According to paragraph 4, what did the area of each wedge in the diagram show?

  • A. The number of wounded soldiers treated in the hospital that month
  • B. The annualized death rates per 1,000 soldiers for that month
  • C. The number of hospital beds available
  • D. The number of battles fought that month

Answer: B. The annualized death rates per 1,000 soldiers for that month

Paragraph 4 says the colored areas showed annualized death rates per 1,000 soldiers for each month, allowing for changes in army size.

Why not the others:

  • A confuses deaths with patients treated. The colored areas represented death rates.
  • C mixes in a detail from paragraph 1. Beds were a problem at Scutari, but the diagram didn't measure them.
  • D is not in the passage. Red areas showed deaths from wounds, not a count of battles.

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraph 4.

Back to passage

R03 · Details: vocabulary in context

As used in paragraph 5, the word “entrenched” most nearly means

  • A. recently invented
  • B. firmly established
  • C. openly rejected
  • D. carefully measured

Answer: B. firmly established

The belief was so settled among officials that Nightingale needed a striking picture to shake it. “Deeply entrenched” means firmly fixed.

Why not the others:

  • A (recently invented) doesn't fit “deeply,” and nothing suggests the belief was new.
  • C (openly rejected) is the opposite. If officials had already rejected the belief, she wouldn't need to challenge it.
  • D (carefully measured) confuses the belief with Nightingale's own careful counting.

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraph 5.

Back to passage

R04 · Inferences: inference

Based on the passage, why did Nightingale most likely present her findings as a picture rather than a table?

  • A. Government reports of the time were not allowed to include tables of numbers.
  • B. She had collected too little data to fill a table, so a picture was her only option.
  • C. Pictures were cheaper to print than tables, and her budget was limited.
  • D. Few in her audience knew statistics, and she wanted them to grasp the problem quickly.

Answer: D. Few in her audience knew statistics, and she wanted them to grasp the problem quickly.

Paragraph 3 says few of the people she needed to reach had statistical training, and paragraph 5 says she wanted them to grasp the problem quickly. A picture serves both needs.

Why not the others:

  • A is never suggested.
  • B conflicts with paragraph 2, which describes her collecting numbers with a team of helpers.
  • C is outside information. The passage never mentions printing costs or budgets.

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraphs 3 and 5.

Back to passage

R05 · Purpose of the passage: function of a paragraph

What is the main function of paragraph 4?

  • A. It explains how the diagram presented the death data.
  • B. It describes the conditions Nightingale found at Scutari.
  • C. It argues that the hospital reforms did not work.
  • D. It lists honors Nightingale received later in life.

Answer: A. It explains how the diagram presented the death data.

Paragraph 4 walks through the diagram: wedges for months, colored areas for death rates, and colors for causes.

Why not the others:

  • B is the job of paragraph 1.
  • C contradicts paragraph 4, which says death rates fell after the reforms.
  • D points to paragraph 5, which mentions a single honor.

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraph 4.

Back to passage

R06 · Purpose of the passage: purpose of a detail

Why does the author mention in paragraph 1 that hundreds of soldiers had been buried without any note of how they died?

  • A. To argue that the families of dead soldiers were treated unfairly by the army
  • B. To explain why the war lasted as long as it did
  • C. To suggest that most soldiers had died from wounds received in battle
  • D. To show that reliable records were missing before Nightingale began counting

Answer: D. To show that reliable records were missing before Nightingale began counting

The detail sets up paragraph 2. Without records, no one could see the pattern until Nightingale started gathering numbers.

Why not the others:

  • A goes beyond the passage, which never discusses families.
  • B is not connected to anything in the passage.
  • C is the opposite of what Nightingale's numbers showed (paragraph 2).

Where to look: Reading passage 1, paragraphs 1–2.

Back to passage

Reading passage 2: How honeybees give directions

Nature · Questions R07–R11

(1) A honeybee that finds a rich patch of flowers faces a problem: how can she tell her nestmates where it is? The inside of a hive is dark, so the bees cannot simply point. Through a long series of experiments, the Austrian scientist Karl von Frisch showed that returning foragers share this information by dancing.

(2) If the food is close to the hive, the forager performs what von Frisch called a round dance. It alerts other bees that food is near, and they fly out and search the area around the hive. If the food is farther away, she performs a waggle dance instead. She runs a short, straight line while wagging her abdomen, circles back to her starting point, and runs the same straight line again, circling back on the opposite side each time.

(3) The straight run carries the message. The dance usually takes place on the vertical surface of the honeycomb, and the bees treat “straight up” as the direction of the sun. If the straight run points to the right of vertical, the other bees fly at that same angle to the right of the sun. How long the straight waggle run lasts carries information about distance: longer runs generally signal food farther away.

(4) The dance is not entirely an inherited behavior. A 2023 study found that young bees made more errors in their first dances when they had not first followed experienced dancers. Learning therefore helps shape the accuracy of this communication. In 1973, von Frisch shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine with two other scientists who studied animal behavior, Konrad Lorenz and Nikolaas Tinbergen.

Facts in this passage come from Linda Hall Library: Karl von Frisch, Scientist of the Day; Wario et al. (2017): Automatic detection and decoding of honey bee waggle dances; Dong et al. (2023): A Method for Studying Social Signal Learning of the Waggle Dance in Honey Bees. The passage wording is original to Castleport.

R07 · Logic of the passage: main idea

Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • A. Honeybees learn their dances by watching and copying older bees in the hive.
  • B. Von Frisch found that foraging honeybees dance to tell other bees where food is.
  • C. Honeybees can find food only when it is within about 50 meters of the hive.
  • D. Von Frisch won a Nobel Prize for showing that honeybees can see ultraviolet colors.

Answer: B. Von Frisch found that foraging honeybees dance to tell other bees where food is.

The passage opens with the problem (how to share a location), then explains von Frisch's discovery of the round and waggle dances and what they communicate.

Why not the others:

  • A describes the learning discussed in paragraph 4, but it is too narrow to express the whole passage, which explains how dances communicate food locations.
  • C adds a limit the passage does not give. Paragraph 2 describes communication about both nearby and more distant food.
  • D is not supported. The passage mentions the prize but does not say it was awarded for ultraviolet color vision.

Where to look: Reading passage 2, paragraphs 1–4.

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R08 · Details: stated detail

According to the passage, when does a forager perform a waggle dance instead of a round dance?

  • A. When the food is farther from the hive rather than nearby
  • B. When clouds hide the sun, so the bees must rely on other light
  • C. When the food is directly above the hive
  • D. When the hive is too crowded for a round dance

Answer: A. When the food is farther from the hive rather than nearby

Paragraph 2 contrasts a round dance for nearby food with a waggle dance for food farther away.

Why not the others:

  • B adds a weather condition the passage does not give as the reason for choosing between the two dances.
  • C confuses “straight up” on the honeycomb (a code for the sun's direction) with the food's location.
  • D is never mentioned.

Where to look: Reading passage 2, paragraph 2.

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R09 · Inferences: inference

Suppose a forager's straight runs point straight down the honeycomb. Based on paragraph 3, which way should the other bees fly?

  • A. Directly toward the sun
  • B. Directly away from the sun
  • C. In circles close to the hive
  • D. Straight up, above the hive

Answer: B. Directly away from the sun

“Straight up” stands for the sun's direction, and the angle of the run matches the flight angle. Straight down is the opposite of straight up, so the bees should fly directly away from the sun.

Why not the others:

  • A (Directly toward the sun) would be signaled by a run pointing straight up.
  • C (In circles close to the hive) describes the searching that follows a round dance, not a waggle dance.
  • D (Straight up, above the hive) takes “up” on the honeycomb literally. It's a code for the sun's direction, not an instruction to fly upward.

Where to look: Reading passage 2, paragraph 3.

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R10 · Logic of the passage: relationship between paragraphs

How does paragraph 3 relate to paragraph 2?

  • A. It presents evidence that contradicts the description of the dances in paragraph 2.
  • B. It shifts from bee behavior to a short history of beekeeping and honey.
  • C. It explains how the waggle dance from paragraph 2 signals direction and distance.
  • D. It describes a second kind of insect that communicates in a similar way.

Answer: C. It explains how the waggle dance from paragraph 2 signals direction and distance.

Paragraph 2 describes the movements; paragraph 3 decodes them (angle for direction, waggle-run duration for distance).

Why not the others:

  • A misreads the relationship. Paragraph 3 builds on paragraph 2; it doesn't dispute it.
  • B is not in the passage.
  • D is wrong. Both paragraphs are about honeybees.

Where to look: Reading passage 2, paragraphs 2–3.

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R11 · Details: vocabulary in context

As used in paragraph 4, the word “inherited” most nearly means

  • A. received as money or property after a relative dies
  • B. copied from bees in nearby hives
  • C. invented by each bee on its own
  • D. passed down biologically rather than taught

Answer: D. passed down biologically rather than taught

Here, “inherited” means passed down biologically. The paragraph says the behavior is not entirely inherited because learning also affects its accuracy.

Why not the others:

  • A is a real meaning of “inherited,” but not the one that fits a sentence about behavior.
  • B describes learning from other bees, not biological inheritance. The paragraph distinguishes the two without ruling out learning.
  • C doesn't match “inherited,” which means passed down, not created fresh.

Where to look: Reading passage 2, paragraph 4.

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Reading passage 3: The body's daily clock

Science · Questions R12–R17

(1) Most people notice that they feel sleepy at some hours and alert at others. These daily shifts are part of circadian rhythms: physical, mental, and behavioral changes that follow a 24-hour cycle. Humans are not the only living things with circadian rhythms. Animals, plants, and many microorganisms have them too.

(2) In the human body, nearly every tissue and organ keeps its own daily rhythm, and a master clock in the brain keeps those rhythms coordinated. This master clock is a group of nerve cells called the suprachiasmatic nucleus, or SCN. The SCN adjusts the body's production of the hormone melatonin according to how much light the eyes receive. In the evening, the brain makes more melatonin, and a person begins to feel sleepy.

(3) Light and darkness have the strongest influence on circadian rhythms, but they are not the only influences. Meals, stress, physical activity, social surroundings, and temperature also play a part. In turn, circadian rhythms affect sleep patterns, hormone release, appetite and digestion, and body temperature.

(4) Problems can begin when the internal clock falls out of step with the outside world. Flying across time zones causes jet lag. Night-shift work pushes people to sleep and wake against their usual schedule, and light from screens late at night can confuse the body's clock. In the short term, people whose rhythms are out of sync may feel drowsy and have trouble with coordination, learning, and focus. Over the long term, sleep loss and continually shifting rhythms can raise the risk of health problems such as obesity, diabetes, and heart and blood pressure problems.

Facts in this passage come from NIGMS: Circadian Rhythms fact sheet. The passage wording is original to Castleport.

R12 · Purpose of the passage: author's purpose

What is the author's main purpose in this passage?

  • A. To explain how the body's daily clock works and what can throw it off
  • B. To persuade readers that night-shift jobs are too harmful to accept
  • C. To compare the daily rhythms of plants, animals, and microorganisms
  • D. To describe how scientists first discovered the body's master clock

Answer: A. To explain how the body's daily clock works and what can throw it off

Paragraph 1 defines them, paragraphs 2–3 explain control and influences, and paragraph 4 covers disruption. The tone is informative throughout.

Why not the others:

  • B overstates paragraph 4. Night shifts are mentioned as one cause of disruption, but the author never argues against them.
  • C is not attempted. Plants and microorganisms get one mention.
  • D doesn't fit. The passage explains how the clock works, not who discovered what and when.

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraphs 1–4.

Back to passage

R13 · Details: stated detail

According to paragraph 2, what does the SCN do?

  • A. It adjusts melatonin production based on how much light the eyes receive.
  • B. It produces every hormone the body needs to stay alert and to sleep.
  • C. It sits inside every organ and sets that organ's rhythm on its own.
  • D. It digests food at night, when the body is least active.

Answer: A. It adjusts melatonin production based on how much light the eyes receive.

Paragraph 2 says the SCN adjusts the body's production of melatonin according to how much light the eyes receive.

Why not the others:

  • B overstates the passage, which mentions only melatonin.
  • C mixes up two ideas. Every organ has its own rhythm, but the SCN is a single group of nerve cells in the brain.
  • D is not stated. Digestion is listed as something circadian rhythms affect (paragraph 3).

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraph 2.

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R14 · Inferences: inference

Based on paragraph 4, a nurse who has just switched from day shifts to night shifts would most likely

  • A. stop producing melatonin for the rest of their career
  • B. develop diabetes within the first week of night work
  • C. no longer be affected by light from screens or the sun
  • D. feel drowsy or have trouble focusing at times

Answer: D. feel drowsy or have trouble focusing at times

Paragraph 4 says night-shift work pushes people against their usual schedule and that short-term effects include drowsiness and trouble with focus.

Why not the others:

  • A goes far beyond the passage. Nothing says melatonin production stops.
  • B twists a long-term risk from paragraph 4 into an immediate, certain result.
  • C contradicts paragraphs 2–4, which describe light as the strongest influence on the clock.

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraph 4.

Back to passage

R15 · Logic of the passage: organization

Which choice best describes how the passage is organized?

  • A. It tells the story of one scientist's discovery in the order events happened.
  • B. It presents a popular belief about sleep and then argues that the belief is false.
  • C. It defines a concept, explains how it is controlled, then describes what disrupts it.
  • D. It compares humans with other species, one paragraph for each kind of living thing.

Answer: C. It defines a concept, explains how it is controlled, then describes what disrupts it.

That's the sequence of the four paragraphs: definition, control, influences and effects, then disruption.

Why not the others:

  • A doesn't fit. There's no timeline or narrative.
  • B doesn't fit. No argument is knocked down.
  • D doesn't fit. The passage is mostly about humans.

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraphs 1–4.

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R16 · Details: vocabulary in context

As used in paragraph 4, the phrase “out of step” most nearly means

  • A. out of breath
  • B. in the wrong location
  • C. not matched in timing
  • D. moving too slowly

Answer: C. not matched in timing

The paragraph's examples (jet lag, night shifts) are all cases where the body's schedule and the outside world's schedule don't line up.

Why not the others:

  • A (out of breath) confuses the phrase with physical effort.
  • B (in the wrong location) is about place, but the paragraph is about timing.
  • D (moving too slowly) is too narrow. A clock can be out of step by running early or late.

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraph 4.

Back to passage

R17 · Inferences: author's view

With which statement would the author most likely agree?

  • A. Only humans and other animals have rhythms that follow a 24-hour cycle.
  • B. Light matters most to circadian rhythms, but other factors matter too.
  • C. Circadian rhythms affect when people sleep but have no other effects.
  • D. Jet lag disturbs sleep but has no effect on focus or coordination.

Answer: B. Light matters most to circadian rhythms, but other factors matter too.

Paragraph 3 says light and darkness have the strongest influence and then lists meals, stress, activity, social surroundings, and temperature.

Why not the others:

  • A contradicts paragraph 1, which includes plants and microorganisms.
  • C contradicts paragraph 3, which also lists hormones, appetite and digestion, and temperature.
  • D contradicts paragraph 4.

Where to look: Reading passage 3, paragraphs 1, 3, and 4.

Back to passage

Reading passage 4: The monarch's two-way journey

Nature · Questions R18–R22

(1) Each fall, monarch butterflies from eastern North America begin a journey that can stretch up to 3,000 miles, ending in the mountains of central Mexico. It travels south because it cannot survive the cold winters of northern climates.

(2) The butterflies that fly south are unusual. Monarchs born in summer typically live two to six weeks, but members of the overwintering generation can live eight or nine months. They put off reproducing until spring, which saves energy, and the cool air of their winter forests slows their metabolism. Together, these two differences help them last through the winter.

(3) The trip north works differently. In spring, the overwintering butterflies begin to reproduce and lay eggs in the southern United States. Their offspring continue north, and each new generation travels farther. It takes three or four generations to reach the northern United States and Canada.

(4) Perhaps the most puzzling fact is that the monarchs flying south in the fall have never been to Mexico. They were born in the north, yet each year they find the same small group of mountain forests. How they navigate is still being studied. Researchers think the butterflies rely on a combination of cues, such as the position of the sun and Earth's magnetic field, rather than on any single one.

Facts in this passage come from U.S. Forest Service: Monarch Butterfly Migration and Overwintering; U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service: Monarch Butterflies Emerge. The passage wording is original to Castleport.

R18 · Logic of the passage: main idea

Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • A. Eastern monarchs make a long migration across several generations, and how they navigate is still unclear.
  • B. Monarch butterflies spend their entire lives in the same small group of mountain forests in central Mexico.
  • C. Monarchs leave the north each fall mainly because milkweed and other food run out.
  • D. Scientists have now proven that monarchs find their way using only the position of the sun.

Answer: A. Eastern monarchs make a long migration across several generations, and how they navigate is still unclear.

The passage covers the trip south, the multi-generation trip north, and the unsolved question of navigation.

Why not the others:

  • B contradicts paragraphs 3 and 4. Most generations are born in the United States or Canada.
  • C gives a reason the passage doesn't. Paragraph 1 says it's the cold winters.
  • D contradicts paragraph 4, which says researchers think the butterflies use a combination of cues.

Where to look: Reading passage 4, paragraphs 1–4.

Back to passage

R19 · Details: stated detail

According to the passage, why do eastern monarchs travel south each fall?

  • A. They follow older butterflies that already know the route.
  • B. They need to lay their eggs in the forests of Mexico.
  • C. They cannot survive the cold winters of northern climates.
  • D. Strong autumn winds push them south whether they fly or not.

Answer: C. They cannot survive the cold winters of northern climates.

Paragraph 1 states this directly.

Why not the others:

  • A is not stated in the passage. Paragraph 1 gives winter cold, not following a guide, as the reason for the journey.
  • B misreads paragraph 3. They lay eggs in the southern United States in spring.
  • D is not in the passage.

Where to look: Reading passage 4, paragraph 1.

Back to passage

R20 · Inferences: inference

Based on paragraph 2, which monarch would most likely live the longest?

  • A. A monarch that hatches in the northern United States in early summer
  • B. A monarch that flies to Mexico in the fall
  • C. A monarch from a later, short-lived summer generation traveling north
  • D. None of them; all monarchs live about the same length of time

Answer: B. A monarch that flies to Mexico in the fall

Paragraph 2 says the overwintering generation can live eight or nine months, compared with two to six weeks for summer monarchs.

Why not the others:

  • A describes a summer monarch, which typically lives two to six weeks.
  • C explicitly describes a short-lived summer generation, rather than the long-lived overwintering generation.
  • D contradicts paragraph 2, which contrasts weeks with months.

Where to look: Reading passage 4, paragraph 2.

Back to passage

R21 · Purpose of the passage: purpose of a detail

The author points out that the fall migrants have never been to Mexico mainly to

  • A. emphasize why the monarchs' navigation is so puzzling
  • B. show that monarchs learn the route from their parents
  • C. argue that the Mexican forests need protection
  • D. explain why summer monarchs live only a few weeks

Answer: A. emphasize why the monarchs' navigation is so puzzling

The sentence is introduced as “the most puzzling fact.” A butterfly that has never made the trip still finds the same forests, which is why navigation is still being studied.

Why not the others:

  • B adds a parent-guidance claim the passage does not make. The sentence emphasizes the puzzle of reaching an unfamiliar destination.
  • C isn't argued anywhere in the passage.
  • D belongs to paragraph 2 and has nothing to do with navigation.

Where to look: Reading passage 4, paragraph 4.

Back to passage

R22 · Logic of the passage: relationship between paragraphs

How does paragraph 3 relate to paragraph 2?

  • A. Paragraph 3 repeats the facts about the monarchs' life span from paragraph 2, using different words.
  • B. Paragraph 3 presents new evidence showing that the life-span figures in paragraph 2 are mistaken.
  • C. Paragraph 3 contrasts the multi-generation trip north with the single long-lived generation in paragraph 2.
  • D. Paragraph 3 gives a specific example of the cold northern winters described in paragraph 2.

Answer: C. Paragraph 3 contrasts the multi-generation trip north with the single long-lived generation in paragraph 2.

Paragraph 3 opens with “The trip north works differently,” which signals a contrast with the single long-lived generation in paragraph 2.

Why not the others:

  • A misses the new information in paragraph 3 about generations and egg-laying.
  • B misreads the relationship. Paragraph 3 adds to paragraph 2 without contradicting it.
  • D is wrong on two counts: cold winters appear in paragraph 1, and paragraph 3 is about the northward trip.

Where to look: Reading passage 4, paragraphs 2–3.

Back to passage

Writing: 21 questions

The published four-section format gives writing nine passages, 21 questions, and 45 minutes (Kaplan’s admission-test outline). These fictional passages are writing exercises. Sentences are numbered, and each question refers to its passage exactly as printed, not to changes from an earlier question.

Writing passage 1: Preparing for a program interview

Questions W01–W03

(1) Many nursing programs invite applicants to a short interview after reviewing their applications. (2) Preparing ahead of time can make the conversation feel less stressful. (3) Reviewing the program's website to learn about its mission and its clinical partners. (4) It also helps to practice answering common questions out loud. (5) The campus bookstore sells sweatshirts in the school's colors. (6) On the day of the interview, applicants should arrive a few minutes early.

W01 · Mechanics of writing: sentence fragment

Which sentence is not a complete sentence?

  • A. Sentence 1
  • B. Sentence 2
  • C. Sentence 3
  • D. Sentence 4

Answer: C. Sentence 3

“Reviewing the program's website…” names an activity but never says anything about it. There's no main verb, so it's a fragment. One fix: “Applicants can start by reviewing the program's website…”

Why not the others:

  • A (Sentence 1) is complete: “programs” is the subject and “invite” is the verb.
  • B (Sentence 2) looks like sentence 3 but is complete. “Preparing ahead of time” is the subject, and “can make” is the verb.
  • D (Sentence 4) is complete: “It” is the subject and “helps” is the verb.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Identifying Independent and Dependent Clauses (exercise) (“Fix the Sentence Fragment”). Where to look: Writing passage 1, sentence 3.

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W02 · Passage development: irrelevant sentence

Which sentence should be removed because it does not support the paragraph's main idea?

  • A. Sentence 2
  • B. Sentence 4
  • C. Sentence 5
  • D. Sentence 6

Answer: C. Sentence 5

The paragraph is about preparing for an interview. Bookstore sweatshirts have nothing to do with that, which breaks the paragraph's unity.

Why not the others:

  • A (Sentence 2) states the paragraph's point (preparing reduces stress), so it belongs.
  • B (Sentence 4) gives a preparation tip, so it supports the main idea.
  • D (Sentence 6) gives a practical interview tip, so it fits.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 1, sentences 1–6.

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W03 · Paragraph logic: transition

Which word or phrase would best begin sentence 6?

  • A. However,
  • B. Finally,
  • C. For example,
  • D. Instead,

Answer: B. Finally,

Sentence 6 gives the last piece of advice, for the day itself, after tips about preparing beforehand. “Finally” signals the last step in a sequence.

Why not the others:

  • A (However,) signals a contrast, but sentence 6 doesn't contradict anything before it.
  • C (For example,) would mean sentence 6 illustrates what comes before it. Arriving early is not an example of the bookstore detail in sentence 5 or of practicing answers in sentence 4.
  • D (Instead,) would mean arriving early replaces the earlier advice. It adds to that advice.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 1, sentences 2–6.

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Writing passage 2: A campus blood drive

Questions W04–W05

(1) The student nursing association will host a blood drive in the library lobby next Thursday. (2) Each of the volunteers at the check-in table are trained to answer basic questions. (3) Donors can reserve a time slot on the association's website. (4) The drive begins at 9 a.m., it ends at 3 p.m. (5) Walk-in donors are welcome, but reserved times help the staff plan.

W04 · Mechanics of writing: subject–verb agreement

Which revision of sentence 2 is correct?

  • A. Each of the volunteers at the check-in table were trained to answer basic questions.
  • B. Each of the volunteer at the check-in table is trained to answer basic questions.
  • C. Each of the volunteers at the check-in table have been trained to answer basic questions.
  • D. Each of the volunteers at the check-in table is trained to answer basic questions.

Answer: D. Each of the volunteers at the check-in table is trained to answer basic questions.

The subject is “Each,” which is singular, so the verb must be “is.” The phrase “of the volunteers” sits between the subject and the verb but doesn't change the subject.

Why not the others:

  • A uses a plural verb (“were”) with the singular subject “Each.”
  • B fixes the verb but breaks the phrase. “Each of the” needs a plural noun (“volunteers”).
  • C still uses a plural verb (“have”) with “Each.”

Rule: Purdue OWL: Making Subjects and Verbs Agree (rules 1, 5, and 6). Where to look: Writing passage 2, sentence 2.

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W05 · Mechanics of writing: comma splice

Which is the best way to revise sentence 4?

  • A. The drive begins at 9 a.m. and ends at 3 p.m.
  • B. The drive begins at 9 a.m. it ends at 3 p.m.
  • C. The drive begins at 9 a.m., and, it ends at 3 p.m.
  • D. The drive begins, at 9 a.m., it ends at 3 p.m.

Answer: A. The drive begins at 9 a.m. and ends at 3 p.m.

The original joins two complete sentences with only a comma (a comma splice). Dropping the second subject and joining the two verb phrases with “and” turns them into one sentence, so no comma is needed.

Why not the others:

  • B removes the comma and leaves two sentences run together with nothing between them (a fused sentence).
  • C adds a comma after “and.” The comma goes before the conjunction only.
  • D adds commas but still joins two complete sentences with only a comma.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Run-ons, Comma Splices, Fused Sentences (rules 1 and 2). Where to look: Writing passage 2, sentence 4.

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Writing passage 3: A clinic's evening hours

Questions W06–W07

(1) Last spring, the Riverside Community Clinic began staying open until 8 p.m. on Tuesdays and Thursdays. (2) Before the change, many patients had to miss work to see a nurse. (3) Before choosing new hours, the clinic surveyed its patients to find out which times would help most. (4) Now, working parents can bring their children in after school and after their own shifts end. (5) The clinic has kept it's evening schedule for two seasons. (6) Its staff plans to review the schedule again next year.

W06 · Paragraph logic: sentence placement

Where is the best place to add this sentence? “Most of the patients who responded asked for appointments after 5 p.m.”

  • A. After sentence 1
  • B. After sentence 2
  • C. After sentence 3
  • D. After sentence 5

Answer: C. After sentence 3

Sentence 3 introduces the survey, and the new sentence reports what the survey found. It also explains why the clinic chose evening hours.

Why not the others:

  • A (After sentence 1) is too early. “Who responded” refers to a survey that hasn't been mentioned yet.
  • B (After sentence 2) is still before the survey in sentence 3, so “who responded” has nothing to point to.
  • D (After sentence 5) separates the survey result from the survey and interrupts the passage's order.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 3, sentences 1–6.

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W07 · Mechanics of writing: apostrophe: its / it's

Which change should be made to sentence 5?

  • A. Change “it's” to “its'.”
  • B. Change “it's” to “its.”
  • C. Change “has kept” to “have kept.”
  • D. Change “seasons” to “season's.”

Answer: B. Change “it's” to “its.”

“It's” means “it is” or “it has.” The sentence needs the possessive “its,” which takes no apostrophe.

Why not the others:

  • A (Change “it's” to “its'.”) is not the possessive form of “it.” The correct form is “its,” with no apostrophe.
  • C (Change “has kept” to “have kept.”) would break agreement. “The clinic” is singular and takes “has.”
  • D (Change “seasons” to “season's.”) makes a plural into a possessive when nothing is being owned.

Rule: Purdue OWL: The Apostrophe (forming plural possessives; its versus it’s). Where to look: Writing passage 3, sentence 5.

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Writing passage 4: Staying hydrated on long shifts

Questions W08–W10

(1) Long twelve-hour shifts that last for twelve hours can make it easy to forget to drink water. (2) One simple habit is to keep a labeled water bottle in a designated staff break room, away from patient-care and laboratory work areas. (3) Because breaks on a busy unit do not always come at predictable times some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches. (4) Others take a sip in the break room during a break after charting, which is the process of recording patient information.

W08 · Mechanics of writing: unnecessary words

Which sentence contains words that repeat an idea unnecessarily?

  • A. Sentence 1
  • B. Sentence 2
  • C. Sentence 3
  • D. Sentence 4

Answer: A. Sentence 1

“Twelve-hour shifts” and “that last for twelve hours” say the same thing. Cut one: “Long twelve-hour shifts can make it easy to forget to drink water.”

Why not the others:

  • B (Sentence 2) has no repeated ideas. “Labeled” adds information.
  • C (Sentence 3) has a punctuation problem, but no repeated words or ideas.
  • D (Sentence 4) includes a definition of “charting,” which adds meaning for readers who don't know the term.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Eliminating Words (repetitive wording and redundant pairs). Where to look: Writing passage 4, sentence 1.

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W09 · Mechanics of writing: comma after an introductory clause

Which revision of sentence 3 is punctuated correctly?

  • A. Because, breaks on a busy unit do not always come at predictable times some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches.
  • B. Because breaks on a busy unit do not always come at predictable times; some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches.
  • C. Because breaks on a busy unit do not always come, at predictable times some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches.
  • D. Because breaks on a busy unit do not always come at predictable times, some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches.

Answer: D. Because breaks on a busy unit do not always come at predictable times, some staff members set hourly reminders on their watches.

The sentence opens with a dependent clause (“Because… times”). A comma goes at the end of that introductory clause, right before the main clause begins.

Why not the others:

  • A puts the comma after “Because,” splitting the clause instead of ending it.
  • B uses a semicolon, which joins two complete sentences. The first part is a dependent clause, not a sentence.
  • C moves the comma to the wrong spot and changes the meaning.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Commas After Introductions (Introductory Clauses). Where to look: Writing passage 4, sentence 3.

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W10 · Passage development: concluding sentence

Which sentence would best conclude the passage?

  • A. Small, planned habits like these can keep staff drinking water even on the busiest shifts.
  • B. Water bottles come in many sizes, colors, and materials, so staff can pick one they like.
  • C. However, charting is one of the most important parts of patient care on any unit.
  • D. For this reason, staff members should never take breaks during a twelve-hour shift.

Answer: A. Small, planned habits like these can keep staff drinking water even on the busiest shifts.

It sums up the three habits in sentences 2–4 and ties them back to the problem in sentence 1.

Why not the others:

  • B drifts to a side detail instead of wrapping up the main idea.
  • C shifts the topic to charting and adds a contrast word that doesn't fit.
  • D draws a conclusion the passage doesn't support and contradicts its helpful tone.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 4, sentences 1–4.

Back to passage

Writing passage 5: A community health fair

Questions W11–W12

(1) The fair will also offer free blood pressure checks. (2) This year's community health fair will take place on Saturday in the high school gym. (3) Visitors can stop by tables run by local clinics, the fire department, and the public library. (4) The organizers thank the three sponsoring businesses's employees for volunteering their time.

W11 · Mechanics of writing: plural possessive

What is the correct way to write “businesses's” in sentence 4?

  • A. businesses'
  • B. business's
  • C. businesses
  • D. businesse's

Answer: A. businesses'

“Businesses” is a plural noun that already ends in s, so the possessive adds only an apostrophe.

Why not the others:

  • B (business's) is the possessive of one business, but the sentence names three.
  • C (businesses) is plural but not possessive. The employees belong to the businesses.
  • D (businesse's) splits the plural noun incorrectly. Keep “businesses” intact and put the possessive apostrophe after its final s.

Rule: Purdue OWL: The Apostrophe (forming plural possessives; its versus it’s). Where to look: Writing passage 5, sentence 4.

Back to passage

W12 · Paragraph logic: logical order

Which sentence should come first in the passage?

  • A. Sentence 1
  • B. Sentence 2
  • C. Sentence 3
  • D. Sentence 4

Answer: B. Sentence 2

It introduces the event (what, when, and where), which the other sentences depend on. It works as the topic sentence.

Why not the others:

  • A (Sentence 1) can't open the passage. The word “also” assumes the fair and its offerings have already been introduced.
  • C (Sentence 3) describes activities at an event the reader hasn't heard about yet.
  • D (Sentence 4) thanks sponsors, which belongs at the end, not the beginning.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 5, sentences 1–4.

Back to passage

Writing passage 6: Forming a study group

Questions W13–W14

(1) A study group can help students prepare for a difficult exam. (2) Members can quiz one another, compare notes, and they can explain hard ideas in their own words. (3) Groups tend to work best when they meet at a regular time.

W13 · Mechanics of writing: parallel structure

Which revision of sentence 2 is correct?

  • A. Members can quiz one another, comparing notes, and explain hard ideas in their own words.
  • B. Members can quiz one another, compare notes, and explain hard ideas in their own words.
  • C. Members can quizzing one another, compare notes, and they explain hard ideas in their own words.
  • D. Members can quiz one another, compare notes, and explaining hard ideas in their own words.

Answer: B. Members can quiz one another, compare notes, and explain hard ideas in their own words.

All three items now use the same form after “can”: quiz, compare, explain. The original breaks the pattern with “they can explain.”

Why not the others:

  • A switches the middle item to “comparing,” which breaks the pattern.
  • C “can quizzing” is ungrammatical, and “they explain” still breaks the pattern.
  • D switches the last item to “explaining.”

Rule: Purdue OWL: Parallel Structure (words and phrases in a series). Where to look: Writing passage 6, sentence 2.

Back to passage

W14 · Passage development: supporting detail

Which sentence, if added after sentence 3, would best support it?

  • A. A fixed weekly time makes it easier for members to plan around work and family.
  • B. Some students prefer to study alone because a group can be distracting.
  • C. Flashcards made from ordinary index cards are a cheap way to review terms.
  • D. Many colleges have more than one library, and some stay open late.

Answer: A. A fixed weekly time makes it easier for members to plan around work and family.

Sentence 3 says groups work best with a regular meeting time. This sentence explains why, so it develops that exact point.

Why not the others:

  • B shifts away from study groups instead of supporting sentence 3.
  • C is a study tip, but it says nothing about meeting times.
  • D is unrelated to the point about regular meetings.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 6, sentence 3.

Back to passage

Writing passage 7: A volunteer's first day

Questions W15–W17

(1) Maya began her first day as a hospital volunteer at 8 a.m. (2) She spent the morning delivering flowers and mail to patient rooms. (3) After Maya checked in at the front desk, the volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer was waiting to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations. (4) Between deliveries, she helped visitors find the elevators. (5) By noon Maya felt tired she also felt proud of her work.

W15 · Mechanics of writing: compound subject agreement

Which revision of sentence 3 is correct?

  • A. After Maya checked in at the front desk, the volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer is waiting to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations.
  • B. After Maya checked in at the front desk, the volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer has waited to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations.
  • C. After Maya checked in at the front desk, the volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer were waiting to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations.
  • D. After Maya checked in at the front desk the volunteer coordinator, and a senior volunteer, was waiting to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations.

Answer: C. After Maya checked in at the front desk, the volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer were waiting to show her how to use the hand-sanitizer stations.

“The volunteer coordinator and a senior volunteer” is a compound subject joined by “and,” so it takes a plural verb: “were.” Past tense matches the rest of the passage.

Why not the others:

  • A keeps a singular verb and shifts into present tense.
  • B still uses a singular verb (“has”) with a plural subject.
  • D adds commas that don't change the subject. Two people joined by “and” still need “were.” It also drops the comma after the introductory clause.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Making Subjects and Verbs Agree (rules 1, 5, and 6). Where to look: Writing passage 7, sentence 3.

Back to passage

W16 · Paragraph logic: sequence of events

To put the events in a logical order, where should sentence 3 be placed?

  • A. Before sentence 1
  • B. After sentence 1
  • C. After sentence 4
  • D. After sentence 5

Answer: B. After sentence 1

Checking in and learning the sanitizer stations happen right when she arrives, before she spends the morning making deliveries.

Why not the others:

  • A (Before sentence 1) would describe her check-in before the passage says her day began at 8 a.m.
  • C (After sentence 4) would put her training after the deliveries it should come before.
  • D (After sentence 5) would put her arrival tasks after noon.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 7, sentences 1–5.

Back to passage

W17 · Mechanics of writing: fused sentence

Which is the best revision of sentence 5?

  • A. By noon Maya felt tired, she also felt proud of her work.
  • B. By noon, Maya felt tired she also felt proud of her work.
  • C. By noon Maya felt tired but, she also felt proud of her work.
  • D. By noon Maya felt tired, but she also felt proud of her work.

Answer: D. By noon Maya felt tired, but she also felt proud of her work.

The original runs two complete sentences together (a fused sentence). A comma plus the coordinating conjunction “but” joins them correctly and shows the contrast.

Why not the others:

  • A adds only a comma, which creates a comma splice.
  • B adds a comma after the introductory phrase but leaves the two sentences fused.
  • C puts the comma after “but” instead of before it.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Run-ons, Comma Splices, Fused Sentences (rules 1 and 2). Where to look: Writing passage 7, sentence 5.

Back to passage

Writing passage 8: Quiet-study room rules

Questions W18–W19

(1) Phones must be set to silent in these rooms. (2) Group discussions should move to the study rooms on the first floor which can be reserved online. (3) If every quiet room is full, students may use the open tables near the east windows.

W18 · Passage development: topic sentence

Which sentence would best introduce this notice if added before sentence 1?

  • A. The library's second-floor quiet-study rooms have a few simple rules.
  • B. The library also runs a coffee cart in the lobby on weekday mornings.
  • C. Phones are useful tools, but they can also be very distracting.
  • D. Some students find it easier to study while listening to music.

Answer: A. The library's second-floor quiet-study rooms have a few simple rules.

It names the rooms that “these rooms” in sentence 1 refers to and tells readers that rules follow. That's the job of a topic sentence.

Why not the others:

  • B is off topic, and “also” assumes something was already mentioned.
  • C is about phones in general and never identifies the rooms that “these rooms” refers to.
  • D doesn't introduce the rules and never names the rooms.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 8, sentences 1–3.

Back to passage

W19 · Mechanics of writing: commas with a nonessential clause

Which revision of sentence 2 is punctuated correctly? Treat the online-reservation clause as extra information about all the first-floor study rooms.

  • A. Group discussions should move to the study rooms on the first floor which, can be reserved online.
  • B. Group discussions should move to the study rooms, on the first floor which can be reserved online.
  • C. Group discussions should move to the study rooms on the first floor, which can be reserved online.
  • D. Group discussions should move to the study rooms on the first floor; which can be reserved online.

Answer: C. Group discussions should move to the study rooms on the first floor, which can be reserved online.

“Which can be reserved online” adds extra information about rooms already identified, so it's nonessential and gets a comma before it.

Why not the others:

  • A puts the comma after “which,” splitting the clause.
  • B puts the comma in the wrong place and leaves “which” unpunctuated.
  • D uses a semicolon before a clause that can't stand alone as a sentence.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Extended Rules for Using Commas (rules 1 and 3). Where to look: Writing passage 8, sentence 2.

Back to passage

Writing passage 9: Sleeping during the day

Questions W20–W21

(1) Sleeping during the day can be a challenge for people who work at night. (2) Blackout curtains can make a bedroom dark even at noon. (3) Some night-shift workers also run a fan to cover street noise. (4) Family members may not realize that a daytime sleeper needs quiet. (5) A short note on the bedroom door can remind them. (6) Many night-shift workers find it hard to sleep while the sun is up.

W20 · Paragraph logic: choosing a contrast transition

Which word or phrase would best begin sentence 4?

  • A. For example,
  • B. As a result,
  • C. Similarly,
  • D. However,

Answer: D. However,

Sentences 2 and 3 describe fixes the sleeper controls (curtains, a fan). Sentence 4 turns to a problem those fixes can't solve: other people in the house. That shift calls for a contrast word.

Why not the others:

  • A (For example,) would make sentence 4 an example of the fixes in sentences 2 and 3, but it introduces a new problem instead.
  • B (As a result,) would mean the curtains and fan cause family members not to realize the sleeper needs quiet. Nothing in the passage says that.
  • C (Similarly,) would mean sentence 4 makes the same kind of point as sentences 2 and 3. It makes a different kind of point.

Rule: Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 9, sentences 2–4.

Back to passage

W21 · Passage development: redundant sentence

Which sentence repeats an idea already stated and could be deleted?

  • A. Sentence 2
  • B. Sentence 3
  • C. Sentence 5
  • D. Sentence 6

Answer: D. Sentence 6

It restates sentence 1 (daytime sleep is hard for night workers) without adding anything new.

Why not the others:

  • A (Sentence 2) adds a specific fix (blackout curtains).
  • B (Sentence 3) adds a different fix (a fan).
  • C (Sentence 5) adds a solution to the problem in sentence 4.

Rule: Purdue OWL: Eliminating Words (repetitive wording and redundant pairs); Purdue OWL: On Paragraphs (Elements of a paragraph: unity, coherence, topic sentence). Where to look: Writing passage 9, sentences 1 and 6.

Back to passage

Science: 20 questions

The published four-section format gives science 20 questions in 30 minutes, covering human physiology (Kaplan’s admission-test outline). Two questions here cover each of the ten areas in that outline; this even distribution is our practice design, not an official topic weighting.

S01 · Cardiovascular system

When the left ventricle contracts, which vessel receives the blood it pumps out?

  • A. The pulmonary trunk
  • B. The superior vena cava
  • C. The aorta
  • D. The pulmonary veins

Answer: C. The aorta

The left ventricle is the main pumping chamber for the systemic circuit. It ejects oxygen-rich blood into the aorta, which carries it to the rest of the body.

Why not the others:

  • A (The pulmonary trunk) receives blood from the right ventricle and sends it to the lungs.
  • B (The superior vena cava) returns blood from the upper body to the right atrium. It carries blood toward the heart, not away.
  • D (The pulmonary veins) bring oxygen-rich blood from the lungs into the left atrium, a step before the left ventricle.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 19.1 Heart Anatomy (Chambers and circulation; heart valves); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 19 Chapter Review (19.1 summary: atrioventricular valves prevent backflow)

S02 · Cardiovascular system

Which valve keeps blood from flowing back into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts?

  • A. The tricuspid valve
  • B. The aortic semilunar valve
  • C. The pulmonary semilunar valve
  • D. The mitral (bicuspid) valve

Answer: D. The mitral (bicuspid) valve

The mitral valve sits between the left atrium and left ventricle. Like the tricuspid on the right side, it's an atrioventricular valve that prevents backflow into the atrium.

Why not the others:

  • A (The tricuspid valve) sits between the right atrium and right ventricle, on the other side of the heart.
  • B (The aortic semilunar valve) sits between the left ventricle and the aorta. It keeps blood from flowing back into the ventricle, not the atrium.
  • C (The pulmonary semilunar valve) guards the opening from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 19.1 Heart Anatomy (Chambers and circulation; heart valves); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 19 Chapter Review (19.1 summary: atrioventricular valves prevent backflow)

S03 · Electrolytes

Which ion is the major positively charged ion (cation) in the fluid outside the body's cells?

  • A. Potassium (K+)
  • B. Chloride (Cl−)
  • C. Sodium (Na+)
  • D. Calcium (Ca2+)

Answer: C. Sodium (Na+)

Sodium is the major cation of the extracellular fluid. Potassium is the major cation inside cells; chloride is an anion, so it carries a negative charge.

Why not the others:

  • A (Potassium (K+)) is the major cation inside cells, not outside them.
  • B (Chloride (Cl−)) is the main extracellular anion. It carries a negative charge, not a positive one.
  • D (Calcium (Ca2+)) is important for bones, muscles, and nerves, but it isn't the most abundant extracellular cation.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.3 Electrolyte Balance (Sodium; Potassium; Chloride; Calcium)

S04 · Electrolytes

Which hormone acts to raise the level of calcium in the blood?

  • A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • B. Calcitonin
  • C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  • D. Aldosterone

Answer: A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

PTH raises blood calcium, in part by reducing the amount of calcium lost through the kidneys.

Why not the others:

  • B (Calcitonin) does roughly the reverse. The thyroid releases it when blood calcium is high.
  • C (Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)) controls how much water the kidneys reabsorb, not calcium.
  • D (Aldosterone) controls sodium and potassium exchange in the kidneys.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.3 Electrolyte Balance (Sodium; Potassium; Chloride; Calcium); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 26 Chapter Review (26.2 and 26.3 summaries); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.2 Water Balance (Figure 26.11 and ADH text)

S05 · Gastrointestinal system

Where does most absorption of digested nutrients take place?

  • A. The stomach
  • B. The large intestine
  • C. The esophagus
  • D. The small intestine

Answer: D. The small intestine

Most digested nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine, whose villi give it a huge absorptive surface.

Why not the others:

  • A (The stomach) churns food and starts protein digestion. It absorbs only a few substances, such as aspirin and some alcohol.
  • B (The large intestine) receives what's left, which is mostly indigestible residue, some water, and bacteria.
  • C (The esophagus) moves food from the throat to the stomach. It doesn't absorb nutrients.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 23.7 Chemical Digestion and Absorption (Absorption); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 23 Chapter Review (stomach and small intestine summaries)

S06 · Gastrointestinal system

Which statements about bile are correct?

  1. It is produced by the liver.
  2. It is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder.
  3. Its bile salts break proteins down into amino acids.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C. 1 and 2 only

The liver makes bile, and the gallbladder stores, concentrates, and releases it. Statement 3 is wrong: bile salts emulsify fats, breaking large fat globules into tiny droplets. Enzymes do the work of breaking down proteins.

Why not the others:

  • A (1 only) leaves out statement 2, which is also correct.
  • B (3 only) picks the one incorrect statement. Bile salts work on fats, not proteins.
  • D (1, 2, and 3) includes statement 3, which gives bile the wrong job.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 23.6 Accessory Organs in Digestion (opening paragraph; bile and emulsification); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 23.7 Chemical Digestion and Absorption (Absorption); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 23.2 Digestive System Processes and Regulation (Digestive Processes: mechanical digestion versus chemical digestion)

S07 · Immune system

Which cells secrete antibodies?

  • A. Memory B cells
  • B. Plasma cells
  • C. Red blood cells
  • D. Neutrophils

Answer: B. Plasma cells

When a B cell is activated by its antigen, it differentiates into plasma cells, which secrete antibodies.

Why not the others:

  • A (Memory B cells) come from the same B-cell response, but they don't secrete antibodies. They stand ready to launch a faster response the next time.
  • C (Red blood cells) carry oxygen with hemoglobin. They aren't immune cells.
  • D (Neutrophils) are white blood cells that engulf invaders. They don't produce antibodies.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 21.4 B-lymphocytes and Antibodies (B cell differentiation; plasma cells; memory B cells)

S08 · Immune system

A person's second exposure to the same antigen usually produces a faster, stronger antibody response than the first exposure. What best explains this?

  • A. All plasma cells from the first response live for the rest of the person's life
  • B. The antigen is always weaker the second time
  • C. Red blood cells store antibodies between exposures
  • D. Memory B cells formed during the first response

Answer: D. Memory B cells formed during the first response

The first response produces memory B cells along with plasma cells. On a later exposure, memory B cells drive a stronger and faster secondary response.

Why not the others:

  • A overgeneralizes. Some plasma cells are long-lived, but that does not mean all plasma cells survive for a lifetime. Memory B cells explain the faster response to a new exposure; persistent plasma cells help maintain antibodies between exposures.
  • B puts the change in the invader instead of the immune system. Nothing makes the antigen weaker.
  • C is not a job red blood cells do.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 21.4 B-lymphocytes and Antibodies (B cell differentiation; plasma cells; memory B cells); Halliley et al. (2015): Long-Lived Plasma Cells in Human Bone Marrow — research abstract (Author research abstract, mirrored in BioStudies/OmicsDI; study DOI 10.1016/j.immuni.2015.06.016; not a full-text review)

S09 · Neurology

During the rapid depolarization phase of a neuron's action potential, which ion movement mainly occurs?

  • A. Na+ enters the cell through voltage-gated channels.
  • B. K+ leaves the cell through voltage-gated channels.
  • C. Cl− enters the cell.
  • D. Na+ leaves the cell through voltage-gated channels.

Answer: A. Na+ enters the cell through voltage-gated channels.

When the membrane reaches threshold, voltage-gated sodium channels open and Na+ rushes in. The positive charge makes the inside less negative, which is depolarization.

Why not the others:

  • B describes repolarization, which follows depolarization.
  • C would make the inside more negative, the opposite of depolarization.
  • D has the direction backward. Sodium is more concentrated outside, so it flows in.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 12.4 The Action Potential (voltage-gated Na+ channel; depolarization)

S10 · Neurology

Which set of changes is most consistent with sympathetic (“fight-or-flight”) nervous system activity?

  • A. Heart rate increases, pupils dilate, and blood flow to the digestive system decreases.
  • B. Heart rate decreases, pupils constrict, and digestion is favored.
  • C. Heart rate increases, pupils constrict, and blood flow to the digestive system increases.
  • D. Heart rate decreases, pupils dilate, and breathing slows.

Answer: A. Heart rate increases, pupils dilate, and blood flow to the digestive system decreases.

In a threat, the sympathetic system raises heart and breathing rate, dilates the pupils, and shifts blood toward skeletal muscle and away from the digestive system.

Why not the others:

  • B describes the parasympathetic side, which generally plays the opposite role.
  • C mixes sympathetic and parasympathetic effects.
  • D mixes effects. The sympathetic system speeds heart rate and breathing.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 15.1 Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System (sympathetic response to a threat); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 15 Chapter Review (15.1 summary: heart rate and pupil)

S11 · Renal system

Where is blood first filtered to begin forming urine?

  • A. The collecting duct
  • B. The glomerulus
  • C. The ureter
  • D. The urinary bladder

Answer: B. The glomerulus

The glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries that filters blood. Bowman's capsule catches the filtrate and sends it on through the nephron's tubules.

Why not the others:

  • A (The collecting duct) gathers filtrate at the end of the nephron, long after filtration has happened.
  • C (The ureter) carries finished urine from the kidney to the bladder.
  • D (The urinary bladder) stores urine. It doesn't filter blood.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 25.4 Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney (Renal Corpuscle); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 25 Chapter Review (glomerulus filters blood; collecting ducts)

S12 · Renal system

If the level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) rises and other factors stay the same, what happens in the kidneys?

  • A. Less water is reabsorbed, so a larger volume of dilute urine is made.
  • B. More water is reabsorbed into the blood, so less water is lost in urine.
  • C. The glomerulus stops filtering blood.
  • D. The kidneys excrete more sodium to lower blood volume.

Answer: B. More water is reabsorbed into the blood, so less water is lost in urine.

ADH makes the cells lining the collecting tubules insert water channels (aquaporins). Water permeability rises, and more water returns to the bloodstream instead of leaving in urine.

Why not the others:

  • A is the reverse of what ADH does. ADH helps the body retain water.
  • C confuses filtration with reabsorption. ADH acts on the collecting tubules.
  • D is not ADH's main action, which is about water.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.2 Water Balance (Figure 26.11 and ADH text); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 26 Chapter Review (26.2 and 26.3 summaries)

S13 · Hematological system

Which part of the blood carries oxygen to the body's tissues?

  • A. Antibodies dissolved in the plasma
  • B. Platelets
  • C. Hemoglobin inside red blood cells
  • D. White blood cells

Answer: C. Hemoglobin inside red blood cells

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are packed with hemoglobin, whose iron-containing heme groups pick up oxygen in the lungs and drop it off in the tissues.

Why not the others:

  • A (Antibodies dissolved in the plasma) fight specific invaders. They don't carry oxygen.
  • B (Platelets) help form clots. They don't carry oxygen.
  • D (White blood cells) defend the body against infection.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 18 Chapter Review (erythrocytes and hemoglobin summary); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 18.3 Erythrocytes (hemoglobin; erythropoietin and the kidneys)

S14 · Hematological system

When the kidneys detect low oxygen levels in the blood, they release a hormone that increases red blood cell production. Which hormone is it?

  • A. Insulin
  • B. Erythropoietin (EPO)
  • C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  • D. Calcitonin

Answer: B. Erythropoietin (EPO)

Kidney cells monitor oxygen delivery. When it falls, they secrete EPO, which steps up red blood cell production until oxygen levels are restored.

Why not the others:

  • A (Insulin) regulates blood glucose and comes from the pancreas.
  • C (Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)) controls water reabsorption. It's made in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary.
  • D (Calcitonin) is involved in calcium regulation.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 18.3 Erythrocytes (hemoglobin; erythropoietin and the kidneys); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 17.9 The Endocrine Pancreas (Cells and Secretions of the Pancreatic Islets; insulin); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.2 Water Balance (Figure 26.11 and ADH text); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.3 Electrolyte Balance (Sodium; Potassium; Chloride; Calcium)

S15 · Homeostasis

During exercise, body temperature rises. Sweat glands become more active, and as sweat evaporates, body temperature falls back toward normal. This is an example of

  • A. positive feedback
  • B. negative feedback
  • C. osmosis
  • D. a permanently raised set point

Answer: B. negative feedback

The response (sweating) reverses the change (rising temperature) and pushes the value back toward its set point. That's negative feedback.

Why not the others:

  • A (positive feedback) would push temperature even higher instead of bringing it back.
  • C (osmosis) is the movement of water across a membrane. It isn't a control loop.
  • D (a permanently raised set point) doesn't fit. Temperature returns toward normal, which shows the set point hasn't changed.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 1.5 Homeostasis (Negative Feedback; Positive Feedback (Figure 1.11))

S16 · Homeostasis

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

  • A. Rising oxytocin that keeps strengthening labor contractions until birth
  • B. Shivering that raises body temperature on a cold day
  • C. Sweating that brings body temperature back down on a hot day
  • D. EPO release that slows once blood oxygen returns to normal

Answer: A. Rising oxytocin that keeps strengthening labor contractions until birth

Stretching of the cervix triggers oxytocin release, which strengthens contractions, which stretch the cervix more. The loop amplifies the change until the baby is born.

Why not the others:

  • B reverses a drop in temperature, which is negative feedback.
  • C reverses a rise in temperature, which is negative feedback.
  • D shuts off once oxygen recovers, which is negative feedback.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 1.5 Homeostasis (Negative Feedback; Positive Feedback (Figure 1.11)); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 18.3 Erythrocytes (hemoglobin; erythropoietin and the kidneys)

S17 · Respiratory system

Oxygen's partial pressure is higher in an alveolus than in the blood entering the capillary around it. Which process moves oxygen from the alveolus into the blood?

  • A. Diffusion down the partial-pressure gradient
  • B. Active transport that uses ATP
  • C. Bulk airflow through the capillary wall
  • D. Osmosis through water channels

Answer: A. Diffusion down the partial-pressure gradient

Gas exchange in the lungs is simple diffusion. Oxygen moves from higher to lower partial pressure across the thin alveolar and capillary walls, without ATP-driven transport.

Why not the others:

  • B requires ATP-driven transport. Oxygen crosses this barrier by passive diffusion instead.
  • C confuses breathing (moving air through the airways) with gas exchange across membranes.
  • D describes water movement, not oxygen.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 22.4 Gas Exchange (External Respiration)

S18 · Respiratory system

During a normal, quiet inhalation, what happens?

  • A. The diaphragm relaxes, the chest cavity gets smaller, and pressure in the lungs rises, so air flows in.
  • B. The diaphragm contracts, the chest cavity gets smaller, and pressure in the lungs rises.
  • C. The diaphragm contracts, the chest cavity gets larger, and pressure in the lungs drops, so air flows in.
  • D. The diaphragm relaxes, the chest cavity gets larger, and pressure in the lungs rises.

Answer: C. The diaphragm contracts, the chest cavity gets larger, and pressure in the lungs drops, so air flows in.

When the diaphragm contracts, it moves down, enlarging the chest cavity. Larger volume means lower pressure inside the lungs, and air flows in from the higher-pressure atmosphere.

Why not the others:

  • A starts with changes associated with quiet exhalation, then gives the airflow direction backward: higher pressure inside would push air out, not in.
  • B gets the volume change backward. Contraction enlarges the cavity.
  • D has both the muscle action and the pressure change wrong. Larger volume lowers pressure.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 22.3 The Process of Breathing (Pulmonary ventilation; inspiration); OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 22 Chapter Review (22.3 summary)

S19 · Sensory system

Which photoreceptors are most useful for seeing in dim light?

  • A. Cones
  • B. Hair cells of the cochlea
  • C. The lens
  • D. Rods

Answer: D. Rods

Rods are highly sensitive to light, so in a darkened room vision depends on them. They don't provide color.

Why not the others:

  • A (Cones) need brighter light. They handle color and fine detail.
  • B (Hair cells of the cochlea) are receptors for hearing, not light.
  • C (The lens) focuses light onto the retina but isn't a receptor.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 14.1 Sensory Perception (Vision (photoreceptors); Equilibrium (semicircular canals))

S20 · Sensory system

Which structures detect rotation of the head, such as shaking your head “no”?

  • A. The cochlea
  • B. The tympanic membrane (eardrum)
  • C. The retina
  • D. The semicircular canals

Answer: D. The semicircular canals

Hair cells at the base of each semicircular canal respond to rotational movement of the head.

Why not the others:

  • A (The cochlea) is the hearing portion of the inner ear.
  • B (The tympanic membrane (eardrum)) vibrates with sound waves. It doesn't sense head rotation.
  • C (The retina) detects light, not movement of the head.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 14.1 Sensory Perception (Vision (photoreceptors); Equilibrium (semicircular canals))

Score your practice test

Give yourself one point for each question you answered correctly on your first try. If you opened an explanation before choosing, mark that question “reviewed without an attempt”; it earns no point. It's still useful, but it's review now, not a test. Keep unanswered questions separate while working; when you finish and calculate a whole-set result, unanswered questions also earn no points.

Score your practice test table
SectionQuestionsYour scoreOne question is worth
Math28___ / 28about 3.6 percentage points
Reading22___ / 22about 4.5 percentage points
Writing21___ / 21about 4.8 percentage points
Science20___ / 205 percentage points
Total91___ / 91about 1.1 percentage points

While working, record “correct / answered” and the number still unanswered; if you have answered none, record “No answers submitted yet,” not a percentage. After at least one first attempt, you can finish and divide your correct answers by the fixed number of questions and multiply by 100. Figure the overall percentage from your total (correct ÷ 91 × 100). Don't average the four section percentages; the sections are different sizes, so an average gives the smaller sections too much weight.

The last column is the reason to go easy on section scores. With only 20 science questions, one lucky guess or one careless slip moves your science percentage by 5 points. Treat a section result as a signal about where to look, not a precise measure of your skill.

This result describes your performance on these 91 questions only. It is not an official Kaplan score, it doesn't predict your Kaplan result, and it can't tell you whether a program will admit you. Your school sets its own score rules, and they vary a lot (see What score do you need?).

Answer key

Math

Free Kaplan nursing entrance exam practice test table
QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
M01CM02D
M03AM04C
M05BM06C
M07DM08D
M09BM10B
M11DM12C
M13CM14A
M15CM16A
M17AM18C
M19AM20B
M21AM22B
M23BM24D
M25BM26D
M27AM28B

Reading

Free Kaplan nursing entrance exam practice test table
QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
R01DR02B
R03BR04D
R05AR06D
R07BR08A
R09BR10C
R11DR12A
R13AR14D
R15CR16C
R17BR18A
R19CR20B
R21AR22C

Writing

Free Kaplan nursing entrance exam practice test table
QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
W01CW02C
W03BW04D
W05AW06C
W07BW08A
W09DW10A
W11AW12B
W13BW14A
W15CW16B
W17DW18A
W19CW20D
W21D——

Science

Free Kaplan nursing entrance exam practice test table
QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
S01CS02D
S03CS04A
S05DS06C
S07BS08D
S09AS10A
S11BS12B
S13CS14B
S15BS16A
S17AS18C
S19DS20D

Review what you missed

A missed question is most useful when you can name why you missed it. Work through your misses by section:

Review what you missed table
If you missed a…Do this before rereading the explanation
Reading questionGo back to the paragraph under “Where to look” and find the sentence that proves the answer. Then name the slip: missed detail, stretched inference, wrong purpose, or misread structure.
Math questionRework it on paper. Find the step that broke: the operation, the unit conversion, the order of a ratio, or the base of a percent.
Writing questionState the rule in one sentence (for example, “each is singular”) or name the connection between sentences that makes the answer fit.
Science questionExplain the process out loud in two sentences, then say how it differs from the wrong answer you picked. If you can't, open the linked textbook section.

A short error log helps: question ID, the answer you chose and why, the rule or evidence you missed, and what you'll check next time. If you retake this set later, a higher score shows your review worked on these questions. It doesn't mean you'd score higher on new ones.

How this practice test compares with the real Kaplan exam

Kaplan's published outline describes 91 questions across four sections and up to 165 minutes of testing time; Rowan-Cabarrus describes this as an online multiple-choice test (Outline of the Admission Test; Rowan-Cabarrus Community College). This page matches those section and passage counts, not a verified Kaplan test form or difficulty level. Confirm that your program uses this four-section assessment.

How this practice test compares with the real Kaplan exam table
SectionKaplan questionsKaplan timeWhat the outline listsQuestions hereTest-day pace
Reading2245 minLogic of a passage, details, inferences, purpose22 (4 passages)about 2 min 3 sec each
Math2845 minConversions, operations, ratios, word problems28about 1 min 36 sec each
Writing2145 minPassage development, paragraph logic, mechanics of writing21 (9 passages)about 2 min 9 sec each
Science2030 minPhysiology: cardiovascular, electrolytes, gastrointestinal, immune, neurology, renal, hematological, homeostasis, respiratory, sensory201 min 30 sec each
Total91up to 165 min91

The pace column is plain division (section minutes × 60 ÷ questions), not Kaplan guidance. In reading and writing, that time also has to cover the passages.

Where this set matches and where it can't:

  • Matched: the section sizes, the four reading passages and nine writing passages, the four math areas, and the ten physiology areas. The outline does not list separate chemistry or physics domains; physiology can still involve chemistry and physics concepts.
  • Not matched: passage length, question difficulty, and exact question style. These are not actual Kaplan questions, and we don't use recalled or leaked ones. Every passage and question here was written for this page.
  • Order: this page starts with math so you can begin right away. Kaplan's outline lists reading first. For untimed study, you can choose any section; for a timed rehearsal, follow your program’s stated order.
  • Tutorial: before the timed sections, the real test includes a nine-question tutorial that is untimed and doesn't count toward your score (Rowan-Cabarrus; SUNY Canton instructions).
  • Your school's version: Kaplan tells schools they can choose from a variety of assessments (Kaplan). Confirm with your program that you're taking this four-section admissions test.

Is critical thinking a separate section?

Not in this four-section format. Virginia Western's published prep guide says critical thinking is not an active test section; the score comes from selected questions within other sections (Virginia Western, Kaplan Prep Guide, “Science,” printed page 6). There is no separate timed critical-thinking block in that format. The checked public outline does not supply an item-to-score map, and this practice set does not calculate a critical-thinking score.

How to take this as a timed practice test

  1. Set a timer for one section: 45 minutes for math, reading, or writing, and 30 minutes for science.
  2. Write your answers on scratch paper and leave every explanation closed until you finish the section.
  3. Before time runs out, answer every question. If you're unsure, rule out what you can and make your best guess.
  4. When time ends, stop. Mark any unanswered questions as missed for this timed attempt. SUNY Canton's instructions say a section closes when its time runs out and you can't return to a completed section (SUNY Canton instructions). Do not count answers added after the timer ends as timed successes.
  5. Score the section and review your misses before starting the next one. For a stamina check, instead run all four back to back—2 hours 45 minutes—and review only after all four are finished. This is an optional study exercise, not a verified reproduction of your school's testing session.

Test-day rules that vary by school

You take the Kaplan test through your nursing program or its testing center, and each one sets local rules. Here's what current school pages say, so you know what to ask about:

  • Calculator: Rowan-Cabarrus and Jackson College use an on-screen calculator built into the test, and Rowan-Cabarrus doesn't allow handheld calculators (Rowan-Cabarrus; Jackson College). SUNY Canton offers the on-screen calculator or a handheld one it provides (SUNY Canton). Clayton State's testing center provides four-function calculators and asks you not to bring your own (Clayton State).
  • Scratch work: Rowan-Cabarrus and Jackson College provide scratch paper and pencils (Rowan-Cabarrus; Jackson College). Eastern Mennonite University provides a whiteboard, marker, and eraser (EMU).
  • Changing answers: Jackson College says a submitted answer can't be changed or viewed again (Jackson College). SUNY Canton's instructions allow the Back button within the current section but not a return to a completed section (SUNY Canton). Confirm your program's instructions. If yours locks answers, practice committing to each answer before you move on.
  • Guessing: SUNY Canton's instructions say there's no penalty for guessing (SUNY Canton). Rowan-Cabarrus advises a reasoned guess over a random one (Rowan-Cabarrus). Both point to the same habit: eliminate first, then answer every question.
  • Results: Jackson College gives you a summary report before you leave the room (Jackson College). Rowan-Cabarrus emails scores within 72 hours (Rowan-Cabarrus).

What score do you need on the Kaplan nursing entrance exam?

There is no single cutoff shared by the programs below. Each program decides how it uses Kaplan results, and published rules differ in the cutoff, in which scores count, and in retakes. These examples were checked on September 22, 2026. Your own program's current rule is the one that matters.

What score do you need on the Kaplan nursing entrance exam? table
ProgramPublished score ruleRetakes
Gwinnett Technical College (handout revised Oct. 31, 2025)Nursing: minimum 75. Practical Nursing: minimum 60.Up to 2 attempts per admission cycle, at least 30 days apart; highest score in the cycle counts
Eastern Mennonite UniversityAt least 50% in science and 66% overallMay retake until a passing score is reached
Jackson College62.00% overall or higher earns extra application points for the associate nursing programs; 52.00% for Practical Nursing. Only the overall score counts.After an unsuccessful first attempt, wait at least 30 days before a second attempt; later-attempt eligibility needs the college’s confirmation
Virginia Western Community College (posted nursing checklist, p. 5)Composite score of at least 45% required; 45% or above in each section is preferred, not stated as a requirementFollow the checklist’s application-cycle instructions; a general retake allowance is not established by this row
Clayton State UniversityAll scores accepted; results may shape the support the program providesOne attempt per application period; scores valid for two application periods
Rowan-Cabarrus Community CollegeNot stated on the testing pageOne initial test and one retest per admission cycle

These are rules for official Kaplan results, not benchmarks validated for this practice set. A percentage here cannot be read as “passing.” Use your practice mistakes to choose what to review, and compare your official results—not this practice percentage—with your own program’s rule.

Questions to ask your program

  1. Which Kaplan assessment will I take, and does it have all four sections?
  2. What score rule do you use, and does it apply to each section or only to the overall score?
  3. How many attempts do I get, how long must I wait between them, and which score counts?
  4. How long does a score stay valid, and do you accept scores from other schools?
  5. What does the test cost, and how do I register?
  6. What calculator and scratch materials will I have, and can I change an answer after I submit it?
  7. How do I request testing accommodations, and by what date?

Common questions

Is there chemistry or physics on the Kaplan science section?

Kaplan’s outline lists ten physiology areas rather than separate chemistry and physics domains (Outline of the Admission Test). Chemical and physical principles still appear within physiology—for example, electrolytes and gas exchange. Some anatomy comes along for the ride, since you can't explain how the heart pumps without naming its chambers, but the questions are about how body systems work.

How much does the Kaplan nursing entrance exam cost?

Your school sets the price and payment route. Examples from the pages checked for this article: a $25 testing fee at Clayton State, a $50 fee at Jackson College, $100 charged by Kaplan plus a $25 EMU proctoring fee for transfer applicants testing at EMU—$125 in that situation—according to Eastern Mennonite University, and $110 per attempt at Rowan-Cabarrus.

Is the Kaplan test the same as the TEAS or HESI A2?

No. They're separate nursing admission exams with their own sections and timing, so practice for the exam your program names. If your program uses a different one, see our free guides to the HESI A2 and the ATI TEAS.

Can I print this practice test?

Use your browser’s print command. The questions, answer choices, explanations, and answer key are all part of this page. Open any explanations and the complete answer key you want included, then check print preview before printing.

Sources and verification

Last verified: September 22, 2026. On that date we checked the Kaplan and school pages below for the test format, score rules, and test-day policies. Explanations link to the textbook or writing-guide section each one relies on.

Exam format and school rules

Teaching references

Reading passage facts

How this page was made. These original passages, questions, and explanations were prepared for Castleport Test Prep with AI-assisted drafting and source checking. Passage facts come from the sources above, but the wording is ours. Every math answer was recalculated with code, and every science and writing explanation was checked against the section it cites. No outside professional review is claimed. Read how Castleport verifies exam claims and how corrections are logged. If you spot an error, use the corrections process so the question, its explanation, and the answer key can be checked together.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by Kaplan. These are original, unofficial practice questions, not actual exam questions. Exam names are used only to identify the exams, and trademarks belong to their respective owners.

By Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. More free guides: Nursing exam prep.