Castleport Test Prep

Kaplan Nursing Entrance Exam Prep

This Kaplan nursing entrance exam prep guide covers the documented 91-question format: Reading, Math, Writing, and Science. Your program sets the score you need, and some schools publish a different section list, so check yours before you plan.

Start here: one fraction, one useful method

5/6 − 1/4 = ? Rewrite both in twelfths: 10/12 − 3/12 = 7/12. Change the top number when you change the bottom one, and only add or subtract once the denominators match. (OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 4.5)

Now try the 40 questions below, read the explanations, and use your missed skills to choose where to start in the four-week plan.

Free starter check: 40 original questions

Original, unofficial practice written by Castleport Test Prep. These aren't Kaplan questions, and your result here isn't a Kaplan score.

Ten Reading, twelve Math, eight Writing, and ten Science questions—starter practice across the outline's broad skills, including one introductory question for each science area. The mix isn't weighted like the real test, and a single question cannot cover an entire science topic. Use it one of two ways:

  • Study mode: answer a question, then open its explanation right below it.
  • Test-style: use practice budgets of 20, 19, 17, and 15 minutes—71 minutes in all. These are rounded from the documented section averages, not official time limits for this set. Answer every question in order, don't go back, and leave the explanations closed until you finish.

Reading: 10 questions

Suggested time for test-style practice: 20 minutes.

Passage A — The Lamp on Harrow Street

(1) In 1894, the town council of Wexley Ford voted, four to three, to install a single gas lamp where Harrow Street meets the river road. The vote followed two winters of complaints from dock workers who walked home after dark along the river path, which flooded without warning.

(2) Opponents did not argue that the corner was safe. They argued about cost. One council member calculated that the lamp's gas would cost more each year than the town spent repairing its only bridge, and he asked which the town could better do without.

(3) The lamp was lit that November. Within a year, the dock workers' association reported that no member had been injured on the river path, compared with three injuries the winter before. Shopkeepers on Harrow Street began staying open an hour later, and two of them offered to share the cost if the council would add a second lamp.

(4) By 1900, Wexley Ford had eleven lamps. The council minutes from that year record no debate about whether to light a street—only about which street should be next.

Wexley Ford is a fictional town.

R01. What is the author's main purpose in Passage A?

  • A. To show how one disputed decision changed what a town came to treat as normal
  • B. To argue that the town should have repaired its bridge instead of buying a lamp
  • C. To explain how gas lamps were installed and maintained
  • D. To criticize the council members who voted against the lamp

Answer and explanation (R01): The answer is A. The passage runs from a 4–3 vote (paragraph 1) to eleven lamps and a council that no longer debates whether to light a street (paragraph 4). That arc—from argument to routine—is the purpose. B reverses the passage: the bridge appears only in an opponent's cost comparison. C isn't there; nothing describes installing or maintaining lamps. D misreads the tone—paragraph 2 reports the opponents' reasoning without judging it.

Evidence: the passage itself.

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Question 1 · Reading · Identifying the purpose of a passage

What is the author's main purpose in Passage A?

Choose one answer

R02. According to paragraph 3, what did the dock workers' association report after the lamp was lit?

  • A. Three members were injured on the river path that year.
  • B. The river path stopped flooding.
  • C. No member had been injured on the river path within a year.
  • D. The association would pay for a second lamp.

Answer and explanation (R02): The answer is C. Paragraph 3 says that within a year no member had been injured on the river path. A takes the number three from the winter before the lamp. B adds a claim the passage never makes—the lamp lit the path; nothing says the flooding stopped. D swaps actors: two shopkeepers, not the association, offered to share the cost of a second lamp.

Evidence: the passage itself.

R03. Why does the author include the bridge comparison in paragraph 2?

  • A. To show that the bridge was more dangerous than the river path
  • B. To show that the opponents' objection was about competing costs, not safety
  • C. To explain why the council later repaired the bridge
  • D. To prove that the lamp cost more than anyone expected

Answer and explanation (R03): The answer is B. Paragraph 2 opens by saying the opponents didn't argue the corner was safe—they argued about cost. The bridge comparison is that cost argument in action: which expense could the town better do without? A isn't stated; the passage never compares the bridge's danger to the path's. C and D add events the passage doesn't report: no bridge repair, no cost overrun.

Evidence: the passage itself.

R04. What does paragraph 4 suggest about the council by 1900?

  • A. It regretted its 1894 vote.
  • B. It could no longer afford to light new streets.
  • C. It had stopped recording its debates.
  • D. It treated street lighting as a settled public service.

Answer and explanation (R04): The answer is D. By 1900 the minutes record debate only about which street to light next, not whether to light one. Lighting had become routine. A and B aren't supported—eleven lamps and debate about which street to light next point the other way. C contradicts the paragraph, which tells you what the minutes recorded.

Evidence: the passage itself.

R05. The shopkeepers' offer in paragraph 3 most strongly suggests that they

  • A. expected to benefit from the extra hour of evening business.
  • B. wanted the council to remove the first lamp.
  • C. were members of the dock workers' association.
  • D. had opposed the lamp in the 1894 vote.

Answer and explanation (R05): The answer is A. Once the corner was lit, shopkeepers started staying open an hour later, and two of them then offered to help pay for a second lamp. The reasonable inference is that the light helped their business. B is the opposite—they wanted more lamps. C merges two groups the passage keeps separate. D invents a position; the passage never says how shopkeepers felt in 1894.

Evidence: the passage itself.

Passage B — Why Leaves Change Color

(1) A leaf's color comes from pigments, molecules that absorb some kinds of light and reflect others. Three kinds matter most in autumn. Chlorophyll makes leaves green, and a plant needs it for photosynthesis, the process that uses sunlight to make sugars. Carotenoids produce yellow, orange, and brown—the same pigments that color corn and carrots. Anthocyanins give color to cranberries, red apples, and plums, and they dissolve in the watery fluid inside leaf cells.

(2) As autumn nights grow longer, a leaf makes less and less chlorophyll, and eventually the chlorophyll it has is destroyed. Carotenoids are present throughout the growing season; most anthocyanins are produced in autumn. As the green fades, these other pigments show their colors.

(3) Which colors appear depends partly on the kind of tree. Oaks tend toward red, brown, or russet. Hickories turn golden bronze, and aspens turn golden yellow. Maples don't agree with one another: the red maple turns brilliant scarlet, the sugar maple orange-red, and the striped maple almost no color at all.

(4) Autumn color, then, is not paint added from outside. A leaf is revealing carotenoids that its green had been covering, while newly produced anthocyanins can add other colors.

The autumn-color facts come from the U.S. Forest Service's Why Leaves Change Color; pigment absorption and reflection are explained in OpenStax Biology 2e, 8.2.

R06. What is the main purpose of Passage B?

  • A. To teach readers how to identify trees by their leaves
  • B. To explain why many leaves change color in autumn
  • C. To argue that maples are the most colorful trees
  • D. To describe how to press and preserve autumn leaves

Answer and explanation (R06): The answer is B. Every paragraph serves one question—why leaves change color: the pigments (1), what happens as nights lengthen (2), how color varies by tree (3), and a summary (4). A mistakes supporting detail for the purpose; the tree list shows variety, it isn't an identification guide. C isn't argued—maples illustrate variety and aren't ranked. D never appears.

Source: the passage itself; U.S. Forest Service, Why Leaves Change Color.

R07. According to paragraph 2, what happens to chlorophyll as autumn nights grow longer?

  • A. The leaf makes more of it to store for winter.
  • B. It turns into carotenoids.
  • C. It dissolves into the watery fluid inside leaf cells.
  • D. The leaf makes less of it, and eventually it is destroyed.

Answer and explanation (R07): The answer is D. Paragraph 2 says the leaf makes less and less chlorophyll and eventually the chlorophyll is destroyed. A is the opposite. B isn't stated—chlorophyll doesn't become carotenoids; paragraph 2 says carotenoids were already present. C describes anthocyanins, which paragraph 1 says dissolve in the watery fluid of leaf cells.

Source: the passage itself; U.S. Forest Service, Why Leaves Change Color.

R08. Based on the passage, why does an aspen leaf look golden yellow in autumn?

  • A. Cold weather paints the surface of the leaf.
  • B. The tree sends fresh yellow pigment into the leaf.
  • C. Yellow pigment already in the leaf is no longer hidden by green.
  • D. The leaf reflects more green light than it did in summer.

Answer and explanation (R08): The answer is C. Put three sentences together: carotenoids produce yellow (paragraph 1); carotenoids already present show as the green fades (paragraph 2); aspens turn golden yellow (paragraph 3). The yellow was there, covered by green. A contradicts paragraph 4—color isn't "paint added from outside." B conflicts with paragraph 2, which says carotenoids were already present. D is backward; the leaf is losing its green.

Source: the passage itself; U.S. Forest Service, Why Leaves Change Color.

R09. Why does the author describe the red maple, sugar maple, and striped maple in paragraph 3?

  • A. To show that autumn color can differ even among trees of the same general kind
  • B. To prove that maples change color earlier than oaks
  • C. To explain which maple makes the most chlorophyll
  • D. To argue that striped maples are unhealthy

Answer and explanation (R09): The answer is A. Paragraph 3 opens with its claim—color depends partly on the kind of tree—then shows that even maples differ: scarlet, orange-red, almost colorless. The maples are evidence for that claim. B, C, and D each add something the passage never says about timing, chlorophyll amounts, or tree health.

Source: the passage itself; U.S. Forest Service, Why Leaves Change Color.

R10. In paragraph 4, the word "revealing" most nearly means

  • A. creating.
  • B. showing.
  • C. absorbing.
  • D. destroying.

Answer and explanation (R10): The answer is B. Paragraph 4 contrasts paint "added from outside" with pigments the green "had been covering." Revealing means showing what was already there. A confuses revealing existing carotenoids with producing new anthocyanins, which the paragraph distinguishes. C and D don't fit: the carotenoids are being uncovered, not absorbed or destroyed.

Evidence: the passage itself.

Math: 12 questions

Suggested time for test-style practice: 19 minutes. A basic calculator is fine for this practice. Follow your school's rule for the provided or on-screen test-day calculator.

M01. How many grams are in 750 milligrams?

  • A. 7.5 g
  • B. 0.75 g
  • C. 75 g
  • D. 0.075 g

Answer and explanation (M01): The answer is B. Milli- means one-thousandth, so divide milligrams by 1,000: 750 ÷ 1,000 = 0.75 g. A, C, and D move the decimal point the wrong number of places.

Check: 0.75 g × 1,000 = 750 mg ✓

Source: NIST Handbook 44 (2024), Appendix C: General Tables of Units of Measurement.

M02. A person weighs 154 pounds. Using 1 kg = 2.2 lb, what is the person's weight in kilograms?

  • A. 338.8 kg
  • B. 7 kg
  • C. 77 kg
  • D. 70 kg

Answer and explanation (M02): The answer is D. Divide by the factor the question gives: 154 ÷ 2.2 = 70 kg. A kilogram is heavier than a pound, so the kilogram number has to be smaller. A multiplies instead (154 × 2.2). B is a decimal slip. C divides by 2. NIST's more exact value is 1 kg ≈ 2.2046 lb, but always use the factor the problem states.

Check: 70 × 2.2 = 154 ✓

Source: NIST Handbook 44 (2024), Appendix C: General Tables of Units of Measurement.

M03. Convert 104 °F to degrees Celsius. Use °C = (°F − 32) ÷ 1.8.

  • A. 40 °C
  • B. 72 °C
  • C. 57.8 °C
  • D. 219.2 °C

Answer and explanation (M03): The answer is A. Subtract 32 first, then divide: (104 − 32) ÷ 1.8 = 72 ÷ 1.8 = 40 °C. B stops after subtracting. C divides 104 by 1.8 and never subtracts 32. D uses the Celsius-to-Fahrenheit formula (104 × 1.8 + 32).

Check: 40 × 1.8 + 32 = 104 ✓

Source: NIST Handbook 44 (2024), Appendix C: General Tables of Units of Measurement.

M04. What is 2/3 + 3/4 − 1/6?

  • A. 1 7/12
  • B. 7/12
  • C. 1 1/4
  • D. 1 1/3

Answer and explanation (M04): The answer is C. Put everything in twelfths: 2/3 = 8/12, 3/4 = 9/12, 1/6 = 2/12. Then 8/12 + 9/12 − 2/12 = 15/12 = 1 3/12 = 1 1/4. A adds the 1/6 instead of subtracting it (19/12). B drops the 2/3 (9/12 − 2/12). D changes 1/6 to 1/12 without changing the top number (16/12).

Check: 15/12 = 5/4 = 1.25 ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 4.5 Add and Subtract Fractions with Different Denominators.

M05. What is 4.8 ÷ 0.16?

  • A. 3
  • B. 30
  • C. 0.3
  • D. 300

Answer and explanation (M05): The answer is B. Move both decimal points two places right so you divide by a whole number: 480 ÷ 16 = 30. A, C, and D have the right digits with the decimal point in the wrong place. A quick estimate catches this: 0.16 is about 1/6, and 4.8 ÷ (1/6) is about 29.

Check: 30 × 0.16 = 4.8 ✓

Evidence: arithmetic shown above.

M06. If x/4 − 7 = 11, what is x?

  • A. 16
  • B. 18
  • C. 72
  • D. 4.5

Answer and explanation (M06): The answer is C. Undo the steps in reverse order. Add 7 to both sides: x/4 = 18. Multiply both sides by 4: x = 72. A subtracts 7 instead of adding it (x/4 = 4). B stops at x/4. D divides 18 by 4 instead of multiplying.

Check: 72 ÷ 4 − 7 = 18 − 7 = 11 ✓

Evidence: arithmetic shown above.

M07. A ratio of 3 to 5 is equal to what percent?

  • A. 35%
  • B. 53%
  • C. 167%
  • D. 60%

Answer and explanation (M07): The answer is D. A ratio of 3 to 5 is the fraction 3/5 = 0.6 = 60%. A and B just rearrange the digits. C is 5 ÷ 3 expressed as a percentage and rounded to a whole percent—the ratio turned upside down.

Check: 60% of 5 = 3 ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications.

M08. Four identical pens cost $2.60. At the same price per pen, what do 10 pens cost?

  • A. $6.50
  • B. $10.40
  • C. $26.00
  • D. $1.04

Answer and explanation (M08): The answer is A. Find the price of one, then scale: $2.60 ÷ 4 = $0.65 per pen, and 10 × $0.65 = $6.50. B multiplies by 4. C multiplies by 10 without dividing first. D multiplies by 4 and divides by 10—the ratio set up upside down.

Check: $6.50 ÷ 10 × 4 = $2.60 ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications.

M09. A price rises from $40 to $52. What is the percent increase?

  • A. 12%
  • B. 23%
  • C. 30%
  • D. 130%

Answer and explanation (M09): The answer is C. Percent change = amount of change ÷ original amount. The change is $12 and the original is $40: 12 ÷ 40 = 0.30 = 30%. A reports the dollar change as a percent. B divides by the new price (12 ÷ 52 ≈ 23%). D is the new price as a percent of the old one.

Check: $40 × 1.30 = $52 ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 6.2 Solve General Applications of Percent.

M10. A liquid contains 0.06 mg of a substance in every 1 mL. How many milliliters contain 0.15 mg?

  • A. 0.4 mL
  • B. 2.5 mL
  • C. 0.009 mL
  • D. 25 mL

Answer and explanation (M10): The answer is B. Divide the amount you want by the amount in each milliliter: 0.15 ÷ 0.06 = 2.5 mL. A flips the division (0.06 ÷ 0.15). C multiplies instead (0.15 × 0.06). D slips a decimal place.

Check: 2.5 mL × 0.06 mg per mL = 0.15 mg ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications.

M11. A drip line delivers 125 mL of water each hour. How many hours does it take to deliver 1,000 mL?

  • A. 0.125 hours
  • B. 12.5 hours
  • C. 80 hours
  • D. 8 hours

Answer and explanation (M11): The answer is D. Total ÷ rate = time: 1,000 ÷ 125 = 8 hours. A divides the rate by the total (125 ÷ 1,000). B would deliver 12.5 × 125 = 1,562.5 mL, not 1,000 mL. C would deliver 80 × 125 = 10,000 mL.

Check: 8 hours × 125 mL per hour = 1,000 mL ✓

Evidence: arithmetic shown above.

M12. A student reads 18 pages in 45 minutes. At the same rate, how many minutes will 50 pages take?

  • A. 20 minutes
  • B. 112.5 minutes
  • C. 125 minutes
  • D. 150 minutes

Answer and explanation (M12): The answer is C. Find the minutes per page, then multiply: 45 ÷ 18 = 2.5 minutes per page, and 50 × 2.5 = 125 minutes. A divides 50 by 2.5 instead of multiplying. B multiplies the 45 minutes by 2.5. D rounds 2.5 minutes per page up to 3.

Check: 125 ÷ 50 = 2.5, and 45 ÷ 18 = 2.5 ✓

Source: OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications.

Writing: 8 questions

Suggested time for test-style practice: 17 minutes. Answer each question using the passage as written—don't carry a fix from one question into the next.

Writing passage 1

(1) Every spring, volunteers at the Linden Avenue garden assign the plots by lottery. (2) Each gardener receives a plot that measures ten feet by twelve feet. (3) The garden supplies water, tools, and compost. (4) Gardeners supply the work. (5) Must weed the plot at least once a week. (6) Plots that are neglected for a month is reassigned to the next name on the waiting list. (7) Last year, forty names were on that list. (8) Many gardeners donate part of their harvest to the food pantry on Fourth Street.

W01. Which sentence is missing a subject?

  • A. Sentence 2
  • B. Sentence 4
  • C. Sentence 5
  • D. Sentence 7

Answer and explanation (W01): The answer is C. Sentence 5 has a verb ("must weed") but nobody doing the weeding. One fix: "Each gardener must weed the plot at least once a week." A has the subject "Each gardener," B has "Gardeners," and D has "forty names"—"Last year" is an introductory phrase, not the subject.

Source: Purdue OWL, Finding Common Errors.

W02. Which sentence contains an error in subject–verb agreement?

  • A. Sentence 2
  • B. Sentence 3
  • C. Sentence 4
  • D. Sentence 6

Answer and explanation (W02): The answer is D. The subject of sentence 6 is "Plots"—plural—so the verb must be "are reassigned." The clause "that are neglected for a month" sits between the subject and the verb, which is exactly what makes the error easy to miss. A is correct: "each" takes a singular verb, so "Each gardener receives" is right. B ("The garden supplies") and C ("Gardeners supply") agree.

Source: Purdue OWL, Making Subjects and Verbs Agree.

W03. Where is the best place to add this sentence? "The lottery gives every household a chance at the sunniest plots each spring."

  • A. After sentence 1
  • B. After sentence 4
  • C. After sentence 6
  • D. After sentence 8

Answer and explanation (W03): The answer is A. The new sentence explains why the garden uses a lottery, so it belongs right after sentence 1, which introduces the lottery. B, C, and D would separate the reason from the thing it explains, and "The lottery" would point back to something the reader last saw several sentences earlier.

Evidence: the passage itself.

W04. Which word or phrase, added to the start of sentence 4, best connects it to sentence 3?

  • A. For example,
  • B. In return,
  • C. Instead,
  • D. Therefore,

Answer and explanation (W04): The answer is B. Sentence 3 says what the garden gives; sentence 4 says what gardeners give back. That's an exchange, and "In return" names it. A signals an example, but sentence 4 isn't an example of sentence 3. C signals a replacement—nothing is being replaced. D signals a result, but the garden's supplies don't cause gardeners to work.

Evidence: the passage itself.

Writing passage 2

(1) This fall, the Rivergate Public Library will stay open until 9 p.m. on Tuesdays and Thursdays. (2) The change began with a survey of people who use the library. (3) Many said they worked until 6 p.m. and could not reach the building before it closed. (4) Because staff hours are limited the library will open an hour later on those two mornings. (5) The study rooms will stay open during the new evening hours, the computer lab will close at 8 p.m. (6) The library's parking lot was repaved last spring. (7) Volunteers will staff the front desk from 7 p.m. to 9 p.m. on both evenings.

W05. Where should a comma be added in sentence 4?

  • A. After "Because"
  • B. After "limited"
  • C. After "library"
  • D. After "later"

Answer and explanation (W05): The answer is B. "Because staff hours are limited" is an introductory dependent clause, so a comma goes after it, right before the main clause "the library will open…." A would split "Because" from its own clause. C would separate the subject "the library" from its verb. D would break up the rest of the main clause for no reason.

Source: Purdue OWL, Extended Rules for Using Commas.

W06. Which sentence joins two complete sentences with only a comma?

  • A. Sentence 1
  • B. Sentence 3
  • C. Sentence 5
  • D. Sentence 7

Answer and explanation (W06): The answer is C. Sentence 5 joins "The study rooms will stay open during the new evening hours" and "the computer lab will close at 8 p.m."—two complete sentences—with only a comma. That's a comma splice. Fix it with "but" after the comma, or a semicolon. A opens with an introductory phrase ("This fall,"), which correctly takes a comma. B contains "they worked until 6 p.m. and could not reach the building before it closed": "they" is shared by "worked" and "could not reach." It does not join two independent clauses with only a comma. D is one complete sentence.

Source: Purdue OWL, Run-ons, Comma Splices, Fused Sentences.

W07. Which sentence should be removed because it doesn't fit the paragraph's topic?

  • A. Sentence 2
  • B. Sentence 4
  • C. Sentence 5
  • D. Sentence 6

Answer and explanation (W07): The answer is D. The paragraph is about the new evening hours: why they started, what changes, and who staffs them. A repaved parking lot has nothing to do with that. A explains how the change began, B explains a trade-off in the schedule, and C says which rooms stay open—all on topic, even though sentence 5 has a punctuation error.

Evidence: the passage itself.

W08. Which sentence would best conclude the paragraph?

  • A. The library plans to review the new schedule after one semester to see whether evening visits increased.
  • B. Many libraries also lend board games and tools.
  • C. Many people who answered the survey worked until 6 p.m.
  • D. Because of the survey, the library will now close earlier on Tuesdays.

Answer and explanation (W08): The answer is A. A strong conclusion wraps up the paragraph's topic. A returns to the purpose of the change—reaching people who couldn't come earlier—and says what happens next. B starts a new topic. C repeats a detail from sentence 3. D contradicts sentence 1, which says the library will stay open later on Tuesdays.

Evidence: the passage itself.

Science: 10 questions

Suggested time for test-style practice: 15 minutes. One question for each of the ten areas in Kaplan's science outline.

Cardiovascular system

S01. Which vessel receives oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle and carries it toward the lungs?

  • A. Pulmonary trunk
  • B. Aorta
  • C. Pulmonary vein
  • D. Superior vena cava

Answer and explanation (S01): The answer is A. The right ventricle pumps oxygen-poor blood into the pulmonary trunk, which splits into the pulmonary arteries headed for the lungs. Arteries are named for direction—away from the heart—not for how much oxygen they carry. B, the aorta, carries blood from the left ventricle to the body. C, a pulmonary vein, brings oxygen-rich blood back from the lungs to the left atrium. D, the superior vena cava, returns blood from the body to the right atrium.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 19.1 Heart Anatomy; OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 20.5 Circulatory Pathways.

Electrolytes

S02. When blood pressure falls, the adrenal cortex releases more aldosterone. What does aldosterone do in the kidney?

  • A. Decreases sodium reabsorption and decreases potassium excretion
  • B. Increases both sodium reabsorption and potassium reabsorption
  • C. Decreases sodium reabsorption and increases potassium excretion
  • D. Increases sodium reabsorption and increases potassium excretion

Answer and explanation (S02): The answer is D. Aldosterone makes the kidney tubules take back more sodium and push more potassium out into the urine. Water follows the reabsorbed sodium, so blood volume rises—the response falling pressure calls for. A reverses both effects. B gets sodium right but potassium backward. C gets potassium right, but losing sodium would lose water and lower blood volume further.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 26.3 Electrolyte Balance.

Gastrointestinal system

S03. Bile released into the small intestine helps with fat digestion mainly by

  • A. acting as an enzyme that chemically splits fat molecules.
  • B. breaking large fat globules into many tiny droplets.
  • C. producing the enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
  • D. moving food along the intestine with muscle contractions.

Answer and explanation (S03): The answer is B. Bile salts pull large fat globules apart into many tiny droplets—emulsification—which gives fat-digesting enzymes far more surface to work on. A is the classic mix-up: bile carries no digestive enzymes; the pancreas supplies enzymes in pancreatic juice. C describes enzyme production by the pancreas; its juice carries enzymes such as pancreatic amylase. Bile does not produce them. D describes motility, the muscular movement of the digestive tract wall.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 23.6 Accessory Organs in Digestion; OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 23 Chapter Review.

Immune system

S04. A person's second exposure to the same virus triggers a faster, stronger immune response than the first exposure did. What explains the difference?

  • A. Immunological memory in the adaptive immune response
  • B. Intact skin acting as a barrier
  • C. Inflammation, part of the innate immune response
  • D. Innate responses, which react quickly to any pathogen

Answer and explanation (S04): The answer is A. Immunological memory is the adaptive immune response's ability to respond faster and stronger when it meets the same pathogen again. B: barriers like skin keep pathogens out in the first place; they don't explain a stronger response inside the body the second time. C and D are innate responses—rapid but relatively nonspecific. The improvement on re-exposure described here is the adaptive system's hallmark.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 21 Key Terms; OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, Ch. 21 Chapter Review.

Neurology

S05. At the start of an action potential, voltage-gated sodium channels open in a neuron's membrane. What happens next?

  • A. Sodium ions leave the cell, and the inside becomes more negative.
  • B. Potassium ions enter the cell, and the inside becomes more negative.
  • C. Sodium ions enter the cell, and the inside becomes less negative.
  • D. No ions move until the membrane returns to −70 mV.

Answer and explanation (S05): The answer is C. Sodium is far more concentrated outside the cell, so when the channels open it rushes in. Its positive charge makes the inside less negative—that's depolarization. A has sodium moving the wrong way. B is also backward: potassium leaving the cell is what brings the membrane back down (repolarization). D ignores the whole point of opening the channels; about −70 mV is a typical resting potential, not a condition that must be reached before sodium can move.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 12.4 The Action Potential.

Renal system

S06. In the kidney, glucose moves out of the fluid inside a tubule, through the tubule's cells, and into nearby capillaries. What is this process called?

  • A. Glomerular filtration
  • B. Tubular secretion
  • C. Excretion
  • D. Tubular reabsorption

Answer and explanation (S06): The answer is D. Reabsorption returns useful substances—glucose, most sodium, amino acids—from the tubular fluid to the blood. A, filtration, happens earlier and goes the other way: fluid leaves the blood and enters the kidney's filtering unit. B, secretion, also moves substances into the tubular fluid (wastes such as urea, creatinine, and ammonia). C, excretion, means removal from the body in urine—the opposite of what happens to the glucose here.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 25.6 Tubular Reabsorption.

Hematological system

S07. Red blood cell production requires a steady supply of iron. Why?

  • A. Iron forms the red blood cell's outer membrane.
  • B. Iron is part of heme, the part of hemoglobin that binds oxygen.
  • C. Iron lets red blood cells make antibodies.
  • D. Iron is needed to build the red blood cell's nucleus.

Answer and explanation (S07): The answer is B. Each hemoglobin molecule has four heme groups, and each heme holds an iron ion that binds one oxygen molecule. No iron, no working hemoglobin. A isn't iron's role. C belongs to the immune system; antibodies aren't made by red blood cells. D is a trap: a mature human red blood cell has no nucleus at all—it pushes it out as it matures.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 18.3 Erythrocytes.

Homeostasis

S08. Body temperature rises above its normal range. Blood vessels in the skin widen, sweat output increases, and temperature falls back toward the set point. What kind of control is this?

  • A. Negative feedback
  • B. Positive feedback
  • C. The heat-gain response
  • D. Raising the body's set point

Answer and explanation (S08): The answer is A. Negative feedback reverses a change from the set point—here, rising temperature triggers heat loss that brings it back down. "Negative" describes the direction, not harm. B would push the change further. C is the opposite response, which conserves heat by reducing blood flow to the skin. D would keep temperature higher, not bring it down.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 1.5 Homeostasis.

Respiratory system

S09. During a normal breath in, the diaphragm contracts and the chest cavity gets larger. Why does air flow into the lungs?

  • A. Pressure inside the alveoli rises above atmospheric pressure.
  • B. The chest cavity gets smaller and squeezes air inward.
  • C. Pressure inside the alveoli drops below atmospheric pressure.
  • D. Air moves in even though the pressures inside and outside are equal.

Answer and explanation (S09): The answer is C. A bigger chest cavity stretches the lungs, their volume increases, and pressure in the alveoli drops below the air pressure outside. Air flows from higher pressure to lower pressure—inward. A describes breathing out. B has the volume change backward. D removes the pressure difference that drives airflow.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 22.3 The Process of Breathing.

Sensory system

S10. On a dim path at night, a person can make out shapes but can hardly tell colors apart. Which receptors are doing most of the work?

  • A. Cones in the retina
  • B. Hair cells in the cochlea
  • C. Receptors in the nose that detect odors
  • D. Rods in the retina

Answer and explanation (S10): The answer is D. Rods work well in low light but don't provide color vision—exactly what the stem describes. A: cones handle color and sharp detail and need more light. B and C are receptors for hearing and smell, not vision.

Source: OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e, 14.1 Sensory Perception; OpenStax, Psychology 2e, 5.3 Vision.

Score your starter check

Score your starter check table
SectionAnswersYour score
ReadingR01 A · R02 C · R03 B · R04 D · R05 A · R06 B · R07 D · R08 C · R09 A · R10 B___ / 10
MathM01 B · M02 D · M03 A · M04 C · M05 B · M06 C · M07 D · M08 A · M09 C · M10 B · M11 D · M12 C___ / 12
WritingW01 C · W02 D · W03 A · W04 B · W05 B · W06 C · W07 D · W08 A___ / 8
ScienceS01 A · S02 D · S03 B · S04 A · S05 C · S06 D · S07 B · S08 A · S09 C · S10 D___ / 10

If you answered every question, enter correct answers out of the section total above. If you stopped early, record correct / answered and the number left unanswered; an unanswered question is not a wrong answer. A practice percentage, when useful, is correct ÷ answered × 100, with that denominator shown. With nothing answered, there is no percentage.

Use the specific mistakes and your school's requirements to choose what to review—not a claimed meaningful gap between these small, unequal section samples. This is feedback on these 40 questions only. It isn't a Kaplan percentage, and it can't tell you whether you'll meet your school's rule.

Before you move on, put every miss in the error log.

The documented 91-question format

The documented 91-question format table
SectionQuestionsTimeAverage pace per questionWhat it tests
Reading2245 minabout 2 min 3 secFour passages: logic, details, inferences, purpose
Math2845 minabout 1 min 36 secConversions, operations, ratios, word problems
Writing2145 minabout 2 min 9 secNine short passages: development, paragraph logic, mechanics
Science2030 min1 min 30 secPhysiology in ten topic areas
Total91Up to 165 min

Counts and times come from Kaplan's Admissions Test overview and outline posted by Clayton State. Pace per question is our arithmetic: section time ÷ questions. Table order is not a promise of delivery order.

Three things change how you prepare:

  1. You can't skip or go back in the interface described here. Kaplan's student instructions say you answer each question before the next one appears, and you can't return to earlier questions in a section. You get one pass.
  2. Science means physiology. The outline lists ten topic areas and asks how they work. It lists no separate chemistry or general-biology section; the biology and chemistry needed to understand physiology still matter.
  3. Your school owns the rules. A Kaplan minimum, an application-points threshold, and a school that accepts all Kaplan scores are different policies. Use the school-rule examples to see which questions to ask your program.

Pacing for a test with no going back

Kaplan's Admissions Test user guide is blunt about how the test moves: you must answer each question before going to the next, you can't go back to previous questions within a section, and once you end a section you can't return to it. Jackson College tells its applicants the same thing—once an answer is submitted, it can't be changed or viewed again.

That rules out a familiar test tip: skip the hard ones and come back. Here, every question gets one honest attempt and a decision.

The one-pass method (our method, built for that interface):

  1. Read the question before you reread the passage, so you know what you're looking for.
  2. Cross out what you can prove wrong. Use the scratch paper or whiteboard your testing site hands out.
  3. Stuck at about twice the average pace for that section? Choose the best remaining answer and move on. There is no later.
  4. Reread your choice once before you click Next. Make sure the selected option is the one you intended.
  5. Don't click End Exam early. Kaplan's guide says a test ended early is scored at the last question answered. Questions you never reach can't earn credit.

Clock checkpoints (our arithmetic from Kaplan's section times; aim to be at or ahead of these):

Pacing for a test with no going back table
SectionFirst checkpointSecondThirdTime's up
Reading (4 passages)Passage 1 done by 11:15Passage 2 by 22:30Passage 3 by 33:4545:00
Math (28 questions)Question 7 by 11:15Question 14 by 22:30Question 21 by 33:4545:00
Writing (9 passages)Passage 3 done by 15:00Passage 5 by 25:00Passage 7 by 35:0045:00
Science (20 questions)Question 5 by 7:30Question 10 by 15:00Question 15 by 22:3030:00

Passage lengths vary, so treat the Reading and Writing checkpoints as budgets, not rules.

What to expect on test day

  • Calculator. Kaplan's guide shows an on-screen Calculator button. Some sites hand out one instead—Clayton State provides four-function calculators. Follow your site's instructions rather than assuming you may bring one; Rowan-Cabarrus does not allow handheld calculators.
  • Tutorial. A 9-question tutorial comes first. It isn't timed, it doesn't count toward your test time, and the clock starts at your first real question. Take it.
  • Scratch materials. Provided by the site—scratch paper and pencils at Jackson College and Rowan-Cabarrus, a whiteboard at Eastern Mennonite University.
  • Breaks. Ask your proctor whether a break is allowed and when. Kaplan's guide tells students not to click Suspend unless the proctor says to.
  • Appointment length. The four sections add up to 165 minutes at most. Your appointment can be longer: Jackson College allows 4 hours from sign-in, including the tutorial.
  • Results. Kaplan's guide says you can view results after you finish. Some schools send them later—Rowan-Cabarrus emails a PDF within 72 hours.

How to prepare for each section

Reading: make the passage prove the answer

Kaplan's outline names four reading skills. Here's what each one is really asking:

Reading: make the passage prove the answer table
Kaplan's skillThe real questionExample from the starter check
Determining the logic of a passageWhy is this part here? How is the passage built?Why the bridge comparison appears (R03)
Comprehending detailsWhat does the passage actually say?What the association reported (R02)
Drawing basic inferencesWhat is best supported, one small step beyond the words?What the shopkeepers' offer suggests (R05)
Identifying the purpose of a passageWhy did the author write this?The point of Passage A (R01)

Gwinnett Tech's handout also lists vocabulary in context—working out a word from the sentence around it, as in R10.

The prove-it rule. For every answer you choose, point to the sentence or sentences that support it. Check whether a wrong answer adds something the passage never says, contradicts it, or goes too far ("always," "prove," "the most"). For an inference, choose the best-supported step beyond the text, not the most interesting one.

Budget. Four passages in 45 minutes is about 11 minutes each. Kaplan's published samples number the paragraphs. Jot one line per paragraph on your scratch paper as you read—main point only. When a question names paragraph 3, you'll know where to look.

Practice between sessions. Take any short nonfiction piece—a science news article, a museum's history page—and in 11 minutes write its main idea and its purpose in one sentence each. Then find the sentences that support both.

Math: set it up before you calculate

Kaplan's sample document describes the math as basic arithmetic through algebra, written as equations or word problems, across four areas: conversions, operations, ratios, and word problems. Kaplan's overview singles out decimal-to-fraction conversions, ratios, and proportions. Check the setup before doing the arithmetic. These three methods cover a lot of ground.

1. Fractions: match the denominators first. Use the worked example at the top, then apply the same method to M04: rewrite every fraction over a common denominator before following the signs.

2. Want ÷ have: find what one unit holds. A solution has 5 mg in every 2 mL. How many mL hold 12 mg? One mL holds 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5 mg, so 12 ÷ 2.5 = 4.8 mL. Check: 4.8 × 2.5 = 12. The proportion version gives the same answer: 5/2 = 12/x, so 5x = 24 and x = 4.8. Keep the units matched top and bottom. (OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.5)

3. Percent change: divide by the original. A class grows from 25 to 30 students. The change is 5, the original is 25, and 5 ÷ 25 = 0.20 = 20%. Dividing by the new number (5 ÷ 30) is the classic slip. (OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.2)

Conversions worth knowing cold (values from NIST Handbook 44, Appendix C):

Math: set it up before you calculate table
RelationshipNIST valueWhat to do on a problem
Grams and milligrams1 g = 1,000 mgDivide mg by 1,000 to get g
Milligrams and micrograms1 mg = 1,000 mcg (µg)Divide mcg by 1,000 to get mg
Liters and milliliters1 L = 1,000 mLMultiply L by 1,000 to get mL
Pounds and kilograms1 lb = 0.453 592 37 kg exactly; 1 kg ≈ 2.205 lbMany problems say 1 kg = 2.2 lb. Use the factor the question gives
Inches and centimeters1 in = 2.54 cm exactlyMultiply inches by 2.54
U.S. fluid ounces and milliliters1 fl oz ≈ 29.573 mLIf a problem uses 30 mL, it's rounding. Use the factor stated
U.S. teaspoon, tablespoon, cupApproximately 5 mL, 15 mL, 237 mLRounded equivalents, not exact equalities; use the stated factor
Grains (an old apothecary unit)1 gr = 64.798 91 mg exactlyUse the conversion the problem gives
Fahrenheit to Celsius°C = (°F − 32) ÷ 1.8Subtract first, then divide
Celsius to Fahrenheit°F = (°C × 1.8) + 32Multiply first, then add

About the calculator. You'll have one on test day, so practice the way you'll test: set the problem up on paper, then let the calculator do the arithmetic. Estimate first. If you expect "about 30" and the screen says 300, you caught a decimal slip before it cost you.

Writing: edit the paragraph, not just the sentence

Writing isn't an essay. Kaplan's outline describes nine short passages in 45 minutes—about 5 minutes each—and its sample document shows the sentences numbered, with questions pointing to them: which sentence is missing a subject, where a new sentence belongs, which word is unnecessary. The three skills are passage development (what belongs and where), paragraph logic (order and connections), and mechanics (grammar and punctuation).

The eight rules below practice mechanics and paragraph decisions used in the starter set. The examples are ours.

Writing: edit the paragraph, not just the sentence table
RuleWrongRight
A statement needs a subject and a complete verb. (OWL)Checked the chart twice.She checked the chart twice.
In formal prose, a dependent clause starting with because, when, or although needs a main clause. (OWL)Because the bus was late.Because the bus was late, I missed the start.
The verb agrees with the real subject, not the nearest noun. "Each" is singular. (OWL)The list of names are long.The list of names is long.
Put a comma after an introductory clause. (OWL)When the rain stopped the game resumed.When the rain stopped, the game resumed.
Two complete sentences need more than a comma. (OWL)The shop opened early, it closed at noon.The shop opened early, but it closed at noon.
Cut words that repeat a meaning.Please return back the form.Please return the form.
A transition must match the relationship: however (contrast), therefore (result), for example (illustration), in return (exchange).It rained. For example, we stayed inside.It rained. Therefore, we stayed inside.
Keep sentences on topic; place a new sentence where its references and explanation fit.A paragraph about clinic hours that mentions the parking lotCut the parking lot

Habit for test day: read the whole numbered passage once before the first question. Look for incomplete sentences and off-topic details on that first read, then use the whole passage to answer each question.

Science: the ten-area physiology map

Kaplan's outline says the science section tests knowledge of physiology—how body systems work—in the ten areas below, and Kaplan's overview pitches it at a level appropriate for a high school graduate. If you've taken anatomy and physiology (A&P), this is review. If you haven't, or it's been years, give science the most time in your plan. Each row links to the free OpenStax textbook section that explains it.

Science: the ten-area physiology map table
Kaplan areaWhat to knowCommon mix-upRead
Cardiovascular systemThe right ventricle sends oxygen-poor blood into the pulmonary trunk toward the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood returns through the pulmonary veins to the left atrium, and the left ventricle pumps it into the aorta for the body. Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry it toward the heart."Arteries always carry oxygen-rich blood." The pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries carry oxygen-poor blood.19.1, 20.5
ElectrolytesSodium is the main positive ion (cation) outside cells; potassium is the main one inside cells; chloride is the main negative ion outside cells. Aldosterone makes the kidney keep sodium—and water with it—and excrete potassium. Calcium is needed for muscle contraction, clotting, and releasing neurotransmitters.Swapping which side of the cell membrane sodium and potassium dominate.26.3
Gastrointestinal systemThe liver makes bile, the gallbladder stores and concentrates it, and bile salts break fat into tiny droplets (emulsification) so enzymes can work on more surface. The pancreas sends enzyme- and bicarbonate-rich juice to the small intestine, buffering acidic chyme from the stomach."Bile is a fat-digesting enzyme." Bile emulsifies; enzymes chemically split fat molecules.23.6, Ch. 23 review
Immune systemBarriers such as intact skin are the first physical line of defense. Innate responses are fast but relatively nonspecific. Adaptive responses are slower the first time, highly specific, and keep a memory that makes the next response faster and stronger.Confusing a fast first-line response with the antigen-specific adaptive memory practiced in S04.Ch. 21 key terms, Ch. 21 review
NeurologyA typical model neuron rests near −70 mV. When voltage-gated sodium channels open, sodium rushes in and the inside becomes less negative (depolarization); potassium leaving brings it back down (repolarization). Myelinated axons conduct faster because the signal jumps from node to node.Potassium entering during depolarization. It's sodium in, then potassium out.12.4, Ch. 12 review
Renal systemThe kidney first filters blood, then the tubules reabsorb what the body needs—most sodium, glucose, amino acids, calcium—back into the blood and secrete wastes such as urea, creatinine, and ammonia into the filtrate. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) controls how much water the collecting ducts take back.Reversing reabsorption (back to the blood) and secretion (into the filtrate).25.6
Hematological systemRed blood cells are packed with hemoglobin. Each hemoglobin has four heme groups, and the iron in each heme binds one oxygen molecule. Mature human red blood cells have no nucleus and live about 120 days, so the body must keep making them.Giving red blood cells an immune job. White blood cells defend; red cells carry gases.18.3, Ch. 18 review
HomeostasisA regulated variable has a set point and a normal range. Negative feedback reverses a change: when you overheat, skin blood vessels widen and sweating increases. Positive feedback pushes a change further; childbirth is the standard example.Reading "negative" as harmful. It means the response opposes the change.1.5
Respiratory systemBreathing in: the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, the chest cavity enlarges, pressure in the alveoli drops below atmospheric pressure, and air flows in. Quiet breathing out is passive—the lungs recoil.Thinking air enters because pressure inside the lungs rises.22.3
Sensory systemRods and cones are the retina's photoreceptors. Rods work well in dim light but don't give color; cones give color and sharp detail. Vision is sharpest at the fovea, the center of the retina.Crediting cones with night vision.14.1, Psychology 2e 5.3

How to study each row: read the OpenStax section, close it, and explain the process out loud as a sequence—"contract, bigger, lower pressure, air in." If you can't say it in order without looking, you don't have it yet. Then answer the chapter's review questions, which OpenStax publishes free with each chapter.

Your 4-week Kaplan study plan

Time assumption: five sessions a week for four weeks: eighteen 60-minute sessions and two 90-minute sessions—21 hours in all. That fits someone who has taken A&P and needs to refresh. If the science is new to you or it's been years since you worked with fractions, add sessions rather than cramming more into each one. This is our editorial plan, not a Kaplan requirement.

Every one-hour session has the same shape:

  • 10 minutes: recall. Without notes, write what you remember from the last session.
  • 30 minutes: learn. Work through the named section of this guide and its linked source.
  • 15 minutes: practice. Redo the named starter questions on paper without looking at the explanations, or work new problems from the linked source.
  • 5 minutes: log. Add every miss to your error log.
Your 4-week Kaplan study plan table
Week · SessionWhat to doWhat you should have at the end
Week 1 · 1 (90 min)Take the starter check test-style (71 minutes). Score it. Send your program the questions in What your school decides.Four section scores and a started error log
Week 1 · 2Math: fractions and decimals (method 1 above; Prealgebra 4.5). Redo M04–M05.Each fraction step written out, no skipped lines
Week 1 · 3Science: Cardiovascular and Hematological rows. Redo S01 and S07.The path of blood from the right ventricle back to the body, drawn from memory
Week 1 · 4Reading: the prove-it rule. Reread Passages A and B and point to the supporting sentence or sentences for each answer.Supporting evidence for each question, R01–R10
Week 1 · 5Math: conversions. Learn the NIST table both directions. Redo M01–M03.The conversion table rewritten from memory
Week 2 · 6Science: Respiratory and Homeostasis rows. Redo S08–S09.A breathing sequence and a feedback loop, each in four steps
Week 2 · 7Writing: subjects, agreement, introductory commas, comma splices (the first five rules). Redo W01, W02, W05, W06.Your own wrong/right example for each rule
Week 2 · 8Math: ratios, percents, percent change (methods 2 and 3). Redo M07–M09.Three setups with units and the "original" labeled
Week 2 · 9Science: Renal and Electrolytes rows. Redo S02 and S06.Arrows showing filtration, reabsorption, and secretion directions
Week 2 · 10Reading: return to Passage B without viewing the explanations. In 11 minutes, write its main idea and purpose, then support R06–R10 from the text.One timed rereading with notes per paragraph
Week 3 · 11Science: Gastrointestinal and Immune rows. Redo S03–S04.One sentence each on bile, pancreatic juice, and immune memory
Week 3 · 12Writing: placement, relevance, transitions, conclusions (the last three rules). Redo W03, W04, W07, W08.A reason for each placement choice, in your words
Week 3 · 13Math: word problems with want ÷ have. Redo M01–M12 in 19 minutes without viewing the explanations. Use the rest of the session to check each setup, then explain M10–M12 in your own words.A timed set, checked, with misses logged
Week 3 · 14Science: Neurology and Sensory rows. Redo S05 and S10.The action-potential sequence; rods vs. cones in two lines
Week 3 · 15Science review: cover the "What to know" column and explain every row out loud. Reread the OpenStax sections for any row you stall on.A short list of rows you still can't explain
Week 4 · 16Redo every starter question you missed, cold, and explain the rule or evidence.Error log entries marked "fixed" or "still shaky"
Week 4 · 17The section containing your most persistent mistakes: review its lesson, then repeat its starter questions under the suggested time budget.One timed repeat, with reasons for each choice
Week 4 · 18 (90 min)Timed repeat: use the supplied 40 questions for 71 minutes, then spend 19 minutes reviewing. Answer in order and don't go back.A record of pacing and mistakes on a familiar set—not a full-length simulation
Week 4 · 19Repair: choose two recurring skill errors from session 18. Revisit their lessons and matching item IDs; explain the correct and rejected options without reading the answers.Two corrected error-log entries with worked reasoning
Week 4 · 20Light review and logistics: ID, Kaplan login, receipt, test location and arrival time, calculator rule.Nothing left to figure out on test day

Our 40 questions aren't a full-length test. Repeating them can help you check your method, but remembered answers make the repeat easier. Do not treat a higher repeat score as proof that you are ready for unfamiliar exam questions. The schedule can be completed with the lessons and questions on this page; the linked textbook chapters provide optional depth.

If you have two weeks

Plan on twelve study days of about 90 minutes—18 hours in all. This is a compressed version, not the full 21-hour schedule; pair the named topics and spend less time on material you can already explain:

If you have two weeks table
DaySessionsFocus
11Starter check and score it; email your program
22 + 5Fractions, decimals, and conversions
33 + 6Cardiovascular, hematological, respiratory, homeostasis
47 + 12All eight writing rules
58 + 13Ratios, percents, and word problems
69 + 11Renal, electrolytes, gastrointestinal, immune
714 + 4Neurology, sensory, and the prove-it rule for reading
816Redo every miss cold
917The section with your most persistent mistakes
1018Timed 40-question repeat and review
1119Repair the two weakest skills
1220Light review and logistics

If you have seven days

  • Day 1: Take the starter check test-style and send your program the questions below.
  • Days 2–5: Focus on recurring mistakes and any section minimum your school requires, using the lessons above.
  • Day 6: Timed practice with the one-pass method.
  • Day 7: Light review and logistics.

Use the week to refresh the highest-priority skills. If the science is largely new to you and your school allows a later test date, ask whether more study time is available.

Keep an error log

One line per miss. The "why" column matters most: not knowing the concept, misreading the question, a setup error, and an arithmetic slip each need a different fix.

Keep an error log table
QuestionWhat went wrongThe rule or evidence I should have usedFixed?
Example: M04Added the 1/6 instead of subtractingRewrite all three in twelfths, then follow the signsRedid cold on day 9 ✓

What your school decides

Kaplan writes the test. Your program decides which version you take, what score counts, how often you can test, and how long a score lasts.

Which Kaplan test and sections you take

Several schools document the four-section, 91-question test on this page, including Montana State University Billings (summer 2026) and Gwinnett Tech (December 2025). But Kaplan tells schools it offers a variety of admissions assessments tailored to each program, and some list different sections. Columbia College in Missouri, for example, publishes Math, Reading, Vocabulary, and Anatomy and Physiology for its Associate in Science in Nursing applicants; its Bachelor of Science in Nursing applicants do not require Kaplan. That different published list is a reason to request the assigned outline, not evidence of a nationwide exam change.

Which Kaplan test and sections you take table
Your school's instructions say…What to do
Reading, Math, Writing, and Science (91 questions)Use this whole page.
Different sections—Vocabulary, Anatomy and Physiology, or a different question countUse the reading, math, and physiology work here, and ask the school for that test's outline before you build a plan.
Just "the Kaplan"Ask which test and sections you'll take. Meanwhile, start on reading and math, which appear on every Kaplan section list we found.

What score you need

Here's how eight programs publish their Kaplan rules. We chose them to illustrate differences, not to rank them or establish national ranges. ADN, ASN, and AAS-N are associate-degree nursing routes; BSN is a bachelor's route, and PN means practical nursing. These are Kaplan-related rules, not every admission requirement.

What score you need table
ProgramPublished score ruleAttemptsScore validity and transferCost to you
Connors State College, OK — ADN (revised 3/25/2026)At least 59% Reading, 50% Math, and 50% Science; section scores also earn admission pointsTwice per application period; only the latest test countsValid up to 2 yearsNo fee
Eastern Mennonite University, VA — BSN clinical level66% overall and 50% ScienceRetake until you reach the passing scoreValidity period not stated on this page$100 to Kaplan; transfer students testing through Career Services also pay $25 proctoring: $125 total
Gwinnett Technical College, GA (handouts dated 10/31/2025 and 12/8/2025)75 for Nursing (ADN); 60 for Practical NursingUp to 2 per application cycle, at least 30 days apart; the highest score in the cycle countsMust test at Gwinnett$50 Kaplan fee (covers one retake) plus $28.50 proctoring per session: $78.50 first sitting; $107 for both sittings (fee sheet)
Jackson College, MI — AAS-N/PN62% for ADN or 52% for PN earns extra application points; lower scores may still be eligible to apply; only the overall score countsAt least 30 days before a second attempt. Confirm later attempts: the same page states a 2-attempt maximum and also describes one-year waits for further attempts.Not stated$50
MSU Billings City College, MT — ASN (summer 2026 testing for the August 2026 application; past cycle)65 for that cycleTwice per application process, at least a month apartValid 6 monthsFree
Clayton State University, GA — BSNAll scores accepted; results may shape student support1 per application period; leaving early counts as an attemptValid 2 application periods; outside scores not accepted$25 testing fee
Rowan-Cabarrus Community College, NCNot stated on the testing page1 test and 1 retest per admission cycleNot stated$110 per test
Parkland College, IL (document dated 6/24/2024)No Kaplan minimum is stated in this document. A separate GPA-based Admissions Score must be at least 2.75; Kaplan section, critical-thinking, and overall scores then contribute to ranking. In-district applicants receive priority.Twice a semester; the highest total countsGood for 2 yearsNot stated

Checked September 22, 2026, on each program's own page or document. “Not stated” means the cited source does not supply that detail, not that no rule exists. MSU Billings' row is a past-cycle example; use its current nursing admissions page for your application cycle.

Read across the rows and the pattern is clear. Some schools set section floors—Connors asks more of Reading than of Math or Science, and its cited document does not list a Writing minimum. Clayton accepts all Kaplan scores; that is different from guaranteed admission. Jackson's extra-points threshold is different again. Costs include free testing at Connors, $25 at Clayton, $110 per sitting at Rowan-Cabarrus, and $125 for the specified EMU transfer-student arrangement. Some programs count your highest score; others count only your latest. A number you read on a prep site or hear from a classmate may be accurate for their school and wrong for yours.

Questions to send your program

Copy these into an email to your admissions or testing office:

  1. Which Kaplan test and which sections will I take, and is there a current content outline?
  2. Is there a minimum score—overall, by section, or both? Is it a hard floor, a source of points, or part of a ranking?
  3. How many attempts do I get, how long must I wait between them, and which score counts: highest or latest?
  4. How long is a score valid, and do you accept scores from another school or testing site?
  5. What's the total cost, who do I pay, and is there a separate proctoring fee?
  6. What calculator and scratch materials are provided?
  7. How do I request testing accommodations, and by when?

Kaplan vs. TEAS, HESI A2, and NLN NEX

They're different entrance exams, and your program names the one it wants. Basic skills overlap—fractions, grammar, reading for evidence—but the outlines don't. On the Kaplan outline, science is physiology across ten areas; Kaplan's published Writing samples use numbered-sentence editing questions. If you're preparing for a different entrance exam, our HESI A2 guide and NLN NEX guide cover those tests on their own terms.

Frequently asked questions

Is there a critical-thinking section? Not a separate timed section in the documented format—Kaplan lists four. Its Admissions Test overview reports an overall percentage plus subscores for reading, writing, math, science, and critical thinking. Virginia Western's June 2024 guide, page 7, describes critical thinking as selected questions within the other sections rather than an additional active section. Practice reasoning within those subjects, and ask your school which scores it uses; Parkland includes critical thinking in its ranking formula.

Where can I get more practice? Free options: Kaplan's own sample questions, posted by Clayton State; the review questions at the end of each OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology 2e chapter; and Purdue OWL's comma rules with examples. These are additional learning resources, not a claim that any one is a full-length Kaplan simulation.

Can I use TEAS or HESI prep materials? For the overlapping basics, yes. Match your priorities to the Kaplan outline rather than another exam's topic weights. It has no separate chemistry or general-biology section, but those foundations can help you understand physiology. Practice the numbered-sentence editing format shown in Kaplan's samples as well.

Do scores transfer between schools? Do not assume they transfer. Clayton State doesn't accept outside scores, Delgado Community College says its scores won't transfer to other schools or programs, and Columbia College and Gwinnett Tech require you to take the test on their campus. Plan to test through the program you're applying to unless it tells you otherwise.

When do I get my score? Kaplan's guide says results are viewable right after you finish, and Jackson College hands applicants a summary report before they leave. Some schools send scores later; Rowan-Cabarrus emails them within 72 hours.

Sources and how we checked them

Kaplan's test documents

  1. Kaplan, Admissions Test User Guide (marked "Rev. 200831"), as currently linked by Clayton State University — student instructions, pages 1–2: no skipping, no going back, the Calculator button, the untimed tutorial, End Exam scoring, and viewing results. The revision code is retained; it is not a new 2026 interface specification.
  2. Kaplan, Outline of the Admission Test, as posted by Clayton State University — sections, question counts, times, skills, and the ten science areas.
  3. Kaplan, Admission Test sample questions, as posted by Clayton State University — question formats, including numbered paragraphs and sentences. We describe the formats; we don't reproduce the questions.
  4. Kaplan, Nursing Admissions Testing — the four skill areas and the "variety of assessments" offered to schools.
  5. Kaplan, Admissions Test overview, hosted by Kaplan (undated) — the four-section format, score reporting including critical thinking, and the level of the math and science content.

School rules and test-day details (each program's own page or document)

  1. Connors State College advisement material, revised 3/25/2026.
  2. Eastern Mennonite University, Kaplan Admissions Test.
  3. Gwinnett Technical College, Kaplan handout (revised 10/31/2025) and registration update (12/8/2025).
  4. Jackson College, Kaplan Assessment.
  5. MSU Billings City College, Kaplan Admission Test Information, summer 2026 testing for the August application — a past-cycle example.
  6. Clayton State University, Kaplan Nursing Admissions Test.
  7. Rowan-Cabarrus Community College, KAPLAN Testing.
  8. Parkland College, Kaplan Nursing Admission Test, dated 6/24/2024.
  9. Columbia College, Kaplan Nursing Entrance Test Dates.
  10. Delgado Community College, Kaplan Nursing School Admissions Test.
  11. Virginia Western Community College, Kaplan Prep Guide, June 2024.

Teaching sources behind the lessons and explanations

  1. OpenStax, Anatomy and Physiology 2e — sections linked in the science map and beside each science explanation.
  2. OpenStax, Psychology 2e, 5.3 Vision.
  3. OpenStax, Prealgebra 2e — sections 4.5, 6.2, and 6.5.
  4. NIST Handbook 44 (2024), Appendix C — unit conversions and temperature equations.
  5. Purdue OWL — subject–verb agreement, commas, run-ons and comma splices, and common errors.
  6. U.S. Forest Service, Why Leaves Change Color — facts in Reading Passage B.

How we made this page. This resource was developed and checked with AI assistance. The source check compared the exam and school-policy claims with the documents listed above, and the teaching explanations with the references linked beside them. The pace figures and clock checkpoints are arithmetic from Kaplan's section times. The 40 questions, the reading and writing passages, the study plans, and the one-pass method are original, unofficial study material. They are not live or recalled exam questions. Source checking is not credentialed subject-matter review; no such review is claimed here. How we verify exam claims · Corrections

Last verified: September 22, 2026 — the cited Kaplan documents, school-policy passages, and teaching sources. Older documents retain their stated dates; MSU Billings' summer 2026 example is not a rule for a later cycle. Your program's current written instructions govern your application.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by Kaplan, Inc. or any school named on this page. Exam and organization names identify the test and programs discussed; trademarks belong to their respective owners. Nothing on this page guarantees a score or admission.

Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team