Free LEED AP O+M Practice Test (LEED v5)
This free LEED AP O+M practice test has 40 original, unofficial questions based on the July 2026 LEED v5 O+M rating system. It is a sample, not a full-length exam or a prediction of passing; choose one answer before revealing its explanation.
Practice questions
Question 1 of 40
LEED Process · Prerequisites versus credits · OMV5-001
An existing office building's team has identified enough optional credits to reach its target certification level. One required prerequisite is still not met. What must the team do before the project can be certified?
- A. Earn extra optional credits to make up for the missing prerequisite.
- B. Target a lower certification level so the prerequisite no longer applies.
- C. Have a LEED AP on the team sign an exception.
- D. Meet the prerequisite. Optional credit points cannot replace it.
Show answer and explanation, question 1
Answer: D. Every project must meet all required prerequisites and then earn enough optional credit points for its level. The two are checked separately, so a points surplus never covers a missing prerequisite.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Extra points don't waive a prerequisite. A project with a missing prerequisite can't certify at any point total.
- B. Prerequisites apply at every level, including Certified.
- C. A credential holder has no authority to waive a project requirement.
Source: USGBC: LEED certification process overview (How do projects earn LEED certification?).
Question 2 of 40
LEED Process · Minimum Program Requirements · OMV5-002
A small retail building wants LEED v5 O+M certification. What is the minimum gross floor area the project must have?
- A. 250 sq ft (22 m²)
- B. 1,000 sq ft (93 m²)
- C. 5,000 sq ft (465 m²)
- D. 25,000 sq ft (2,323 m²)
Show answer and explanation, question 2
Answer: B. The project-size Minimum Program Requirement sets 1,000 sq ft (93 m²) of gross floor area for O+M (and BD+C) projects.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. That is the minimum for an ID+C (interiors) project, not O+M.
- C. 5,000 sq ft shows up in O+M as a size break in the air-leakage option of EAc6, not as a minimum project size.
- D. There is no 25,000 sq ft minimum.
Source: USGBC: Minimum program requirements (MPR 3: project size requirements); USGBC: Minimum Program Requirements FAQ (Is there guidance for LEED v5 MPRs?); USGBC: EAc6 air-leakage size categories (Printed p. 53, EAc6 Option 2).
Question 3 of 40
LEED Process · LEED Platinum requirements · OMV5-003
An O+M project has 84 points and meets every prerequisite. It earned 5 points in EAc2 Optimized Energy Performance, 5 points in EAc1 Greenhouse Gas Emissions Reduction Performance (3 from Option 1 and 2 from Option 2), and 2 points in EAc5 Decarbonization and Efficiency Plans. Can it certify Platinum?
- A. No. Platinum requires at least 7 points (or equivalent) in EAc2.
- B. Yes. It has more than 80 points and meets all prerequisites.
- C. No. Platinum requires at least 4 points in EAc1 Option 1.
- D. No. Platinum requires all 4 points in EAc5.
Show answer and explanation, question 3
Answer: A. In LEED v5 O+M, 80 points is not enough on its own for Platinum. Three energy and decarbonization credits carry Platinum minimums: EAc1 needs at least 2 points in Option 1 (or equivalent) and at least 2 in Option 2 and/or Option 3; EAc2 needs 7 points (or equivalent); and EAc5 needs 2 points. This project meets the EAc1 and EAc5 minimums but falls short in EAc2.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. The point total and prerequisites alone do not satisfy v5 O+M's credit-level conditions for Platinum.
- C. Option 1 needs 2 points, not 4. A separate minimum of 2 points comes from Option 2 and/or Option 3.
- D. EAc5 needs 2 points for Platinum, which this project has.
Source: USGBC: Appendix I: LEED Platinum Requirements (Printed p. 84).
Question 4 of 40
LEED Process · Project Priorities: innovation · OMV5-004
A property team has an operations strategy that LEED v5 doesn't address anywhere, and it produces significant, measurable environmental benefits. Which Project Priorities pathway fits it best?
- A. Exemplary performance
- B. Regional priority
- C. A pilot credit
- D. An innovative strategy
Show answer and explanation, question 4
Answer: D. PRc1's innovation pathway is for significant, measurable environmental performance from a strategy the rating system doesn't already address.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Exemplary performance means going well beyond an existing prerequisite or credit. This strategy has no existing requirement.
- B. Regional priority credits are existing credits that USGBC has flagged as important for the project's region.
- C. Pilot credits come from USGBC's published pilot credit library. A team's own new strategy isn't one.
Source: USGBC: PRc1 Project Priorities (Printed pp. 82–83).
Question 5 of 40
LEED Process · Project Priorities: LEED AP · OMV5-005
A team wants to use the LEED AP pathway in Project Priorities. Which person satisfies it?
- A. The architect who designed the building and holds the LEED AP BD+C credential
- B. A facility manager who holds the LEED Green Associate credential
- C. An off-site consultant with the LEED AP O+M credential who only reviews the paperwork
- D. The building's on-site facility manager, who holds the LEED AP O+M credential
Show answer and explanation, question 5
Answer: D. The pathway needs at least one on-site principal participant of the property team (such as the owner, owner's representative, or facility manager) who is a LEED AP O+M.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Wrong specialty: the pathway requires LEED AP O+M.
- B. A Green Associate isn't a LEED AP O+M.
- C. The pathway asks for an on-site principal participant of the property team, not an outside document reviewer.
Source: USGBC: PRc1 LEED AP pathway (Printed p. 83).
Question 6 of 40
Integrative Process Planning and Assessments · Climate resilience assessment · OMV5-006
Under IPp1 Climate Resilience Assessment, at least how many priority hazards must the team assess in detail, each with an emissions scenario and a service life?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Every hazard listed for the region
Show answer and explanation, question 6
Answer: B. IPp1 requires at least two priority hazards, each assessed against a climate scenario over the building's service life.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. One hazard is below the minimum.
- C. Teams can assess more, but the minimum is two.
- D. The team screens hazards and then prioritizes. It doesn't have to assess every listed hazard in detail.
Source: USGBC: IPp1 Climate Resilience Assessment (Printed pp. 6–7).
Question 7 of 40
Integrative Process Planning and Assessments · Human impact assessment · OMV5-007
A team's draft IPp2 Human Impact Assessment contains only an equipment inventory and utility bills. Which addition best addresses what the prerequisite is about?
- A. Demographic data, vulnerable populations, and conditions for occupants, workers, and the surrounding community
- B. More detailed equipment nameplate data
- C. A 25-year carbon projection
- D. A map of the site's flood and heat hazards
Show answer and explanation, question 7
Answer: A. The human impact assessment looks at people: working conditions, health, equity, community impacts, vulnerable populations, demographic data, and occupant experience. Equipment and energy data alone do not satisfy the human impact assessment.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. That deepens the equipment inventory but still says nothing about people.
- C. That belongs to EAp1 Carbon Projection from Energy Use.
- D. That belongs to IPp1 Climate Resilience Assessment.
Source: USGBC: IPp2 Human Impact Assessment (Printed pp. 8–9).
Question 8 of 40
Integrative Process Planning and Assessments · Worker safety and training · OMV5-008
An office building with 140 full-time employees is pursuing IPc2 Worker Safety and Training. Beyond the annual safety review of building systems, what training must the program include?
- A. OSHA 30-hour training for every occupant
- B. A third-party ISO 45001 certification
- C. First aid, CPR, and AED training for at least one O+M staff member
- D. Nothing more, because the training trigger is 250 employees
Show answer and explanation, question 8
Answer: C. IPc2 requires first aid, CPR, and AED training for at least one O+M staff member in projects with more than 100 full-time employees. At 140 employees, this building is above that trigger.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. The credit doesn't require that.
- B. The credit doesn't require an outside management-system certification.
- D. The trigger is more than 100 full-time employees, not 250.
Source: USGBC: IPc2 Worker Safety and Training (Printed pp. 14–15).
Question 9 of 40
Integrative Process Planning and Assessments · Operational planning for resilience · OMV5-009
For IPc1 Operational Planning for Resilience, the team writes an emergency response plan. Which hazards must the plan address?
- A. Only the hazards named in the local fire code
- B. Hazards chosen by occupant survey
- C. Only hazards that have caused damage at the site in the last 10 years
- D. The priority hazards identified in the IPp1 Climate Resilience Assessment
Show answer and explanation, question 9
Answer: D. IPc1 builds on IPp1. The assessment identifies the hazards, and the plan prepares operations to respond to them.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. The credit is tied to the project's own assessment, not just a code list.
- B. Occupant surveys belong to other credits. They don't define this plan's hazards.
- C. The assessment looks forward at present and future hazards, not just recent history.
Source: USGBC: IPc1 Operational Planning for Resilience (Printed p. 13).
Question 10 of 40
Integrative Process Planning and Assessments · Current Facilities Requirements and O+M plan · OMV5-010
IPp4 Current Facilities Requirements and O+M Plan requires ventilation system maintenance to follow which standard?
- A. ASHRAE 62.1-2022
- B. ASHRAE 90.1
- C. ASHRAE 55
- D. ASHRAE 52.2
Show answer and explanation, question 10
Answer: A. IPp4 points to the ventilation maintenance requirements in ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2022.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. 90.1 is the energy standard.
- C. Standard 55 covers thermal comfort.
- D. 52.2 is the filter test method referenced in EQc5 Air Filtration.
Source: USGBC: IPp4 Current Facilities Requirements and O+M Plan (Printed p. 12); ASHRAE: Standard 90.1 (About Standard 90.1); ASHRAE: Standard 55 (Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy); USGBC: EQc5 Air Filtration (Printed p. 75).
Question 11 of 40
Location and Transportation · Sustainable transportation performance · OMV5-011
An LTc1 commuter survey with an acceptable response rate reports a sustainable transportation rate of 45%, including working from home and carpools. How many points does the survey option earn?
- A. 3
- B. 4
- C. 5
- D. 6
Show answer and explanation, question 11
Answer: B. The survey thresholds are greater than 0% for 1 point, then at least 10%, 25%, 40%, 65%, and 80% for 2 through 6 points. 45% clears 40% but not 65%, so the project earns 4 points.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 3 points is the 25% tier. 45% reaches the next one.
- C. 5 points needs 65%.
- D. 6 points needs 80%.
Source: USGBC: LTc1 Sustainable Transportation Performance (Printed pp. 16–17).
Question 12 of 40
Location and Transportation · Sustainable transportation modes · OMV5-012
Which commute does NOT count toward the sustainable transportation rate in LTc1?
- A. Working from home
- B. A three-person vanpool
- C. Taking the city bus
- D. Driving alone in an electric car
Show answer and explanation, question 12
Answer: D. LTc1 counts active and shared modes: walking, cycling, public transit, carpools and vanpools of two or more, and working from home. A clean vehicle with one person in it is still a solo car trip.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Working from home is counted.
- B. Carpools and vanpools of two or more people count.
- C. Public transit counts.
Source: USGBC: LTc1 sustainable transportation modes (Printed pp. 16–17).
Question 13 of 40
Location and Transportation · Transportation survey scope · OMV5-013
A building has 100 regular occupants. It averages 80 visitors a day, and typical peak visitor counts reach 140. Does the LTc1 survey have to include visitors?
- A. Yes, because typical peak visitors exceed the number of regular occupants
- B. No, because the daily average is below the number of regular occupants
- C. No, because surveying visitors is always optional
- D. Yes, but only because daily visitors are more than half the occupant count
Show answer and explanation, question 13
Answer: A. LTc1 requires surveying visitors if either the typical peak or the daily average is greater than the number of regular occupants. The peak of 140 is above 100.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. Either measure can trigger the visitor survey, and the peak does here.
- C. That's the rule in EQc3's occupant experience survey, not in LTc1.
- D. There's no 50% rule. The test is whether peak or average visitors exceed regular occupants.
Source: USGBC: LTc1 required survey methodology (Printed p. 16); USGBC: EQc3 visitor-survey comparison (Printed p. 72, required survey methodology).
Question 14 of 40
Location and Transportation · Electric vehicles · OMV5-014
A commercial building has 120 parking spaces and meets all other LTc3 Electric Vehicles conditions. What is the minimum number of spaces that need EV charging?
- A. 2
- B. 5
- C. 6
- D. 12
Show answer and explanation, question 14
Answer: C. Commercial projects need EV charging at 5% of spaces or 2 spaces, whichever is greater. 5% × 120 = 6.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 2 is the floor, which applies only when 5% works out lower.
- B. This uses the residential minimum count instead of 5% of 120.
- D. 12 uses the residential 10% rate.
Calculation: 5% × 120 spaces = 6 spaces; 6 is greater than the 2-space minimum.
Source: USGBC: LTc3 Electric Vehicles (Printed p. 21).
Question 15 of 40
Sustainable Sites · Heat island reduction · OMV5-015
For SSc1 Heat Island Reduction, what is the minimum aged solar reflectance index (SRI) for a low-slope roof (2:12 or less)?
- A. 32
- B. 39
- C. 64
- D. 82
Show answer and explanation, question 15
Answer: C. Low-slope roofs need an aged SRI of at least 64. Use the initial SRI threshold of 82 only when an aged value is unavailable.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 32 is the aged SRI for steep-slope roofs.
- B. 39 is the initial SRI for steep-slope roofs.
- D. 82 is the initial value for low-slope roofs, not the aged value.
Source: USGBC: SSc1 Heat Island Reduction, Table 2 (Printed p. 23).
Question 16 of 40
Sustainable Sites · Bird collision reduction · OMV5-016
SSc2's bird-collision option limits the threat factor of glazing from grade up to 50 ft to what maximum?
- A. 15
- B. 30
- C. 45
- D. 75
Show answer and explanation, question 16
Answer: B. The bird-collision option requires a threat factor of 30 or less for glazing up to 50 ft above grade (and up to 20 ft above a green roof).
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 15 is stricter than the credit requires.
- C. 45 is above the allowed maximum.
- D. 75 is far above the allowed maximum.
Source: USGBC: SSc2 Bird Collision Reduction (Printed p. 25).
Question 17 of 40
Water Efficiency · Water metering and reporting · OMV5-017
Which of these is part of the WEp1 Water Metering and Reporting prerequisite?
- A. A 20% cut in water use below baseline
- B. Submeters on at least two water subsystems
- C. Permanent water meters, with alternative water sources metered separately and data shared with USGBC every year
- D. WaterSense-labeled fixtures throughout the building
Show answer and explanation, question 17
Answer: C. WEp1 is about measuring and reporting: permanent meters, separate metering of alternative water, 12 months of data, and annual sharing after certification.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Reductions earn points in WEc1 Water Efficiency Performance. The prerequisite sets no performance target.
- B. That's WEc2 Advanced Water Metering.
- D. WEp1 doesn't require specific fixtures.
Source: USGBC: WEp1 Water Metering and Reporting (Printed p. 26).
Question 18 of 40
Water Efficiency · Advanced water metering · OMV5-018
Which metering setup meets WEc2 Advanced Water Metering? Assume permanent meters are calibrated as required and used to analyze trends; the stated reading frequency also applies to the whole-building meter.
- A. One irrigation submeter serving 100% of the irrigated landscaped area, read daily
- B. Irrigation and domestic hot water submeters serving 90% of the irrigated area and 90% of installed hot-water heating capacity, read monthly
- C. Irrigation submeters serving 85% of the irrigated landscaped area and meters for replacement water use of all cooling towers, read daily
- D. Irrigation and domestic hot water submeters serving 60% of the irrigated area and 60% of installed hot-water heating capacity, read weekly
Show answer and explanation, question 18
Answer: C. WEc2 needs at least two water subsystems. Irrigation metering must serve at least 80% of the irrigated landscaped area; cooling-tower metering must capture replacement water use of all cooling towers. All meters must be read at least weekly. This setup meets those conditions.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Only one subsystem is metered.
- B. Monthly readings are too infrequent. The minimum is weekly.
- D. 60% is below the 80% minimum for both the irrigated area and installed domestic hot-water heating capacity.
Source: USGBC: WEc2 Advanced Water Metering (Printed p. 29).
Question 19 of 40
Water Efficiency · Water efficiency performance · OMV5-019
A 50,000 sq ft office used 610,000 gallons of potable water over its 12-month reporting period. The WEc1 baseline for offices is 13 gallons per sq ft per year. Which statement is correct?
- A. Its water use intensity is 0.08 gal/sq ft/yr, far below the baseline.
- B. Its water use intensity is about 1.0 gal/sq ft/yr after dividing by 12 months.
- C. WEc1 can't be scored without a fixture inventory.
- D. Its water use intensity is 12.2 gal/sq ft/yr, below the baseline, so it earns at least the baseline point.
Show answer and explanation, question 19
Answer: D. Divide water use by floor area: 610,000 ÷ 50,000 = 12.2 gal/sq ft/yr. WEc1 awards 1 point for meeting the space-type baseline, with more points for deeper reductions.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. This flips the division (floor area ÷ water use).
- B. The baseline is annual, so don't divide by months.
- C. WEc1 is based on measured performance, comparing metered use with the space-type baseline. It doesn't need a fixture inventory.
Calculation: 610,000 gal ÷ 50,000 sq ft = 12.2 gal/sq ft/yr; 12.2 < 13 (office baseline).
Source: USGBC: WEc1 Water Efficiency Performance, Tables 1–2 (Printed pp. 27–28).
Question 20 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Minimum energy performance · OMV5-020
A U.S. office building that is eligible for an ENERGY STAR score has a score of 58 for the reporting period. Where does that leave it under EAp3 Minimum Energy Performance?
- A. It does not meet the prerequisite. Eligible U.S. and Canadian buildings must use the ENERGY STAR option and score at least 60.
- B. It meets the prerequisite because it scores above 50.
- C. It can switch to the historical-baseline option instead.
- D. It meets the prerequisite but earns no EAc2 points.
Show answer and explanation, question 20
Answer: A. EAp3 Option 1 requires a score of 60 or higher. Buildings of an ENERGY STAR-eligible type in the U.S. or Canada must use that option.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. 50 is the national median. LEED's prerequisite is 60.
- C. An ENERGY STAR-eligible U.S. office must use Option 1; it cannot choose a different path just to avoid the 60-point minimum.
- D. At 58 it fails the prerequisite, so the project can't certify until performance improves.
Source: USGBC: EAp3 Minimum Energy Performance, Option 1 (Printed p. 33); EPA: How the ENERGY STAR score is calculated (Opening explanation: score of 50 represents median performance).
Question 21 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Optimized energy performance · OMV5-021
An ENERGY STAR-eligible U.S. office building raises its ENERGY STAR score to 80. How many EAc2 Optimized Energy Performance points does Option 1 award?
- A. 6
- B. 7
- C. 8
- D. 12
Show answer and explanation, question 21
Answer: B. The EAc2 table awards 7 points at a score of 79 and 8 points at 81. A score of 80 reaches 79 but not 81. Seven points also meets EAc2's Platinum minimum.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 6 points is the score-77 tier. 80 reaches the next one.
- C. 8 points needs a score of 81.
- D. 12 points needs a score of 92.
Source: USGBC: EAc2 Optimized Energy Performance, Table 1 (Printed pp. 42–43); USGBC: Platinum energy minimum (Printed p. 84, Appendix I).
Question 22 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Enhanced refrigerant management · OMV5-022
For the 12-month reporting period, a building's Refrigerant Leakage Emissions Ratio is 30. This is the EAc3 metric: global-warming-potential (GWP)-weighted refrigerant leakage divided by total refrigerant charge. How many points does EAc3 award?
- A. 1 point
- B. 0 points, because any leakage disqualifies the credit
- C. 2 points
- D. 0 points, because the ratio must be 25 or less for any points
Show answer and explanation, question 22
Answer: A. A ratio of 50 or less earns 1 point. A ratio of 25 or less earns 2. A ratio of 30 lands in the 1-point band.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. The credit allows some leakage and scores the ratio.
- C. 2 points needs a ratio of 25 or less.
- D. 25 is the 2-point threshold. The 1-point threshold is 50.
Source: USGBC: EAc3 Enhanced Refrigerant Management Performance (Printed pp. 45–46).
Question 23 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Fundamental refrigerant management · OMV5-023
For initial certification, how much of the 12-month reporting period must EAp4 refrigerant leak and recharge tracking cover, at minimum?
- A. The last 3 months
- B. The last 6 months
- C. All 12 months
- D. 24 months
Show answer and explanation, question 23
Answer: A. EAp4 requires tracking for at least the last three months of the 12-month reporting period for initial certification. Report all recharge occurring during the required leakage inspection and recharge.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. Six months is more than the minimum.
- C. A full year isn't required for initial certification.
- D. That's longer than the reporting period.
Source: USGBC: EAp4 Fundamental Refrigerant Management (Printed pp. 35–36).
Question 24 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · GHG emissions from on-site combustion · OMV5-024
An all-electric building with no district heating runs a diesel emergency generator 40 hours in total during the reporting year, including testing. What does EAc1 Option 1 (on-site combustion) award?
- A. 0 points, because the generator is on-site combustion
- B. 1 point, scaled by the generator's runtime
- C. Nothing; the project must use Option 3 instead
- D. 5 points, because emergency systems running under 200 hours a year aren't counted
Show answer and explanation, question 24
Answer: D. A project with no on-site combustion and no district heating receives the full 5 points in Option 1. Emergency equipment that runs less than 200 hours a year is excluded.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Emergency systems under 200 hours a year are excluded.
- B. There's no runtime-scaled award. Excluded equipment doesn't count at all.
- C. Option 1 applies, and the project earns its maximum there.
Source: USGBC: EAc1 Option 1 (Printed p. 37).
Question 25 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Commissioning · OMV5-025
A building's retro-commissioning was finished four years before the end of its reporting period. What does the retro-commissioning path in EAc7 Commissioning award?
- A. 2 points
- B. 1 point, prorated for age
- C. No points. Retro-commissioning must be finished within 3 years of the end of the reporting period.
- D. 2 points if the commissioning provider has two similar projects
Show answer and explanation, question 25
Answer: C. EAc7 counts retro-commissioning only if it was completed no more than three years before the end of the reporting period. Four years is too old.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. That's the award for timely retro-commissioning. This work is outside the window.
- B. The credit doesn't prorate for age.
- D. Provider experience is a separate requirement. It doesn't extend the time window.
Source: USGBC: EAc7 Commissioning, Option 1 (Printed p. 54).
Question 26 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Peak load management: envelope · OMV5-026
A building with 60,000 sq ft of conditioned floor area tested at 0.42 cfm per square foot of building envelope at 50 Pa before air sealing and 0.31 afterward. Both tests meet the credit's test-method and timing requirements. Does it meet the envelope option of EAc6 Peak Load Management?
- A. No. 0.31 is above the 0.27 limit.
- B. Yes. Any measured reduction qualifies.
- C. Yes. The 26% before-and-after reduction meets the 25% improvement path.
- D. No. Buildings over 5,000 sq ft must use air changes per hour.
Show answer and explanation, question 26
Answer: C. The envelope option accepts either an absolute leakage limit (0.27 cfm per square foot of building envelope at 50 Pa for buildings with at least 5,000 sq ft of conditioned floor area) or a reduction of at least 25% between the before and after tests. Here (0.42 − 0.31) ÷ 0.42 × 100 = 26.2%.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. This ignores the improvement path, which the building meets.
- B. The reduction must be at least 25%.
- D. It's the reverse. Below 5,000 sq ft of conditioned floor area, the absolute-limit path uses air changes per hour (ACH); at or above that size it uses cfm per square foot of envelope.
Calculation: (0.42 − 0.31) ÷ 0.42 × 100 = 26.190476…% → 26.2% reduction ≥ 25%.
Source: USGBC: EAc6 Peak Load Management, Option 2 (Printed pp. 52–53).
Question 27 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Peak load reduction performance · OMV5-027
In the preceding baseline year, the building's two highest-demand months peaked at 820 kW and 780 kW. This year, its two highest months peaked at 760 kW and 700 kW. Does the electric option of EAc4 Peak Load Reduction Performance earn its point? All other metering and reporting conditions are met.
- A. No. The reduction is 8.75%, below the required 10%.
- B. Yes. 8.75% rounds up to 10%.
- C. Yes. One month dropped by more than 10%.
- D. No. Only the single highest month counts, and it fell just 7.3%.
Show answer and explanation, question 27
Answer: A. The credit compares the sum of the two highest monthly peaks: (820 + 780) − (760 + 700) = 140 kW, and 140 ÷ 1,600 = 8.75%. That is short of 10%.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. Thresholds aren't rounded up.
- C. Comparing 780 with 700 gives a drop of about 10.3%, but an individual month's change is not the test. The credit uses the summed two-month peaks.
- D. The answer (no) is right but the reason is wrong. The credit sums the two highest months.
Calculation: Baseline 820 + 780 = 1,600 kW; current 760 + 700 = 1,460 kW; (1,600 − 1,460) ÷ 1,600 = 8.75%.
Source: USGBC: EAc4 Peak Load Reduction Performance, Option 1 (Printed p. 47).
Question 28 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Decarbonization and efficiency plans · OMV5-028
A strategic decarbonization plan with a five-year capital plan targets a 75% cut in on-site combustion emissions and a 22% cut in site energy over 20 years. It meets the 10% combined five-year reduction requirement and all other plan requirements. The project has 4 points in EAc2, and process loads are 20% of site energy. How many points does EAc5 Option 1 award?
- A. 0
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Show answer and explanation, question 28
Answer: B. Option 1's standard table awards 2 points for 50% combustion and 20% site-energy reductions, 3 points for 75% and 25%, and 4 points for 100% and 30%. Each also needs the sum of five-year combustion-emissions and site-energy percentage reductions to reach at least 10%. The plan meets the 75% combustion target, but its 22% site-energy cut only reaches the 2-point row.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. The plan clears the 2-point row.
- C. 3 points also needs a 25% site-energy reduction.
- D. 4 points needs 100% combustion and 30% site-energy reductions. The other route to 4 points is earning 12 points in both EAc1 and EAc2.
Source: USGBC: EAc5 Decarbonization and Efficiency Plans, Tables 1–3 and Option 2 (Printed pp. 49–51).
Question 29 of 40
Energy and Atmosphere · Carbon projection from energy use · OMV5-029
Who generates the main 25-year business-as-usual carbon projection for EAp1 Carbon Projection from Energy Use?
- A. The commissioning provider
- B. The local building performance standard (BPS) agency
- C. The project's energy modeler, using the original design model
- D. USGBC, from the project's submitted energy data. The owner reviews it and attests.
Show answer and explanation, question 29
Answer: D. USGBC produces the 25-year projection and compares it with a straight-line reduction path. The team provides an estimated end-use breakdown, and the owner attests to reviewing it.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. Commissioning is a separate activity.
- B. Projects under a BPS add a projection against the ordinance's caps, but USGBC still generates the main projection.
- C. O+M uses measured operating data, not a design-phase model.
Source: USGBC: EAp1 Carbon Projection from Energy Use (Printed pp. 30–31).
Question 30 of 40
Materials and Resources · Waste reduction performance · OMV5-030
Over three consecutive months within the 12-month reporting period, a building's ongoing operations produce 1,000 kg of recycling, 200 kg of compost, and 800 kg of nonhazardous waste sent to landfill. There are no other waste streams and no waste-prevention estimates. What is the MRc1 diversion rate, and how many points does it earn? The totals include all seasonal and intermittent streams applicable to the calculation.
- A. 50%, which earns 8 points
- B. 150%, which earns 12 points
- C. 60%, which earns 10 points
- D. 60%, which earns 11 points
Show answer and explanation, question 30
Answer: C. Divide the weight diverted by the total weight generated: (1,000 + 200) ÷ (1,000 + 200 + 800) = 1,200 ÷ 2,000 = 60%. In the MRc1 table, 60% is the 10-point threshold.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. This counts recycling but leaves out compost. Composting is diversion.
- B. This divides diverted weight by landfill weight. The denominator must be the total generated.
- D. The rate is right, but 11 points needs 70%.
Calculation: (1,000 + 200) ÷ 2,000 = 0.60 → 60% → 10 points.
Source: USGBC: MRc1 Waste Reduction Performance, Table 1 and calculation (Printed pp. 58–59).
Question 31 of 40
Materials and Resources · Waste tracking period · OMV5-031
What is the minimum waste-tracking period for MRc1 Waste Reduction Performance?
- A. A single audit day
- B. Three consecutive months within the 12-month reporting period, tracked monthly
- C. One month
- D. The full 12 months
Show answer and explanation, question 31
Answer: B. MRc1 requires tracking waste generation for at least three consecutive months within the reporting period, recorded by material type and weight.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. MRc2 has a separate zero-waste audit pathway. It doesn't replace MRc1's tracking requirement.
- C. One month is shorter than the minimum.
- D. A full year is allowed but not required.
Source: USGBC: MRc1 tracking and MRc2 audit pathway (Printed pp. 58–61).
Question 32 of 40
Materials and Resources · Waste reduction strategies · OMV5-032
Which of these can earn MRc2 Waste Reduction Strategies?
- A. Signing a corporate zero-waste pledge with no audit or program behind it
- B. Reporting a higher diversion rate in MRc1
- C. Buying recycled-content janitorial paper
- D. Completing and analyzing a zero-waste audit of all inbound and outbound materials during the 12-month reporting period
Show answer and explanation, question 32
Answer: D. MRc2's options are organics recycling, waste collection management with education, and a zero-waste audit.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. A pledge alone isn't one of the strategies.
- B. Diversion performance is scored in MRc1. It isn't an MRc2 strategy.
- C. Recycled-content janitorial paper falls under EQc7 Green Cleaning.
Source: USGBC: MRc2 Waste Reduction Strategies (Printed pp. 60–61); USGBC: EQc7 janitorial paper (Printed pp. 78–79).
Question 33 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · No smoking · OMV5-033
A non-school project has no local-code restriction on locating an outdoor smoking area. Under EQp2 No Smoking, what is the minimum separation from entries, outdoor air intakes, and operable windows?
- A. At least 25 ft (7.5 m)
- B. At least 10 ft (3 m)
- C. At least 50 ft (15 m)
- D. Smoking must be banned on the entire site for every project
Show answer and explanation, question 33
Answer: A. EQp2 requires designated outdoor smoking areas to be at least 25 ft from entries, outdoor air intakes, and operable windows. The prerequisite also addresses local-code constraints; the stem excludes that exception.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. 10 ft is too close.
- C. 50 ft is more than the prerequisite requires.
- D. A whole-site ban applies to schools, not to every project type.
Source: USGBC: EQp2 No Smoking (Printed p. 65).
Question 34 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Occupant experience performance · OMV5-034
An EQc3 survey with an acceptable response rate uses the required 7-point scale. All 100 regular occupants respond: 80 choose 5, 6, or 7, and 20 choose 1 through 4. How many points does the satisfaction result support?
- A. 0 points
- B. 1 point
- C. 2 points
- D. 3 points
Show answer and explanation, question 34
Answer: B. Responses of 5 to 7 count as satisfied, so 80% are satisfied. The table awards points when satisfaction is greater than 60%, 80%, or 90%. Exactly 80% is not greater than 80%, so this stays in the 1-point band.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 80% is above the 60% threshold, so at least 1 point is earned.
- C. 2 points needs more than 80%. Exactly 80% doesn't qualify.
- D. 3 points needs more than 90%.
Calculation: 80 ÷ 100 = 80% satisfied; 80% > 60% but not > 80% → 1 point.
Source: USGBC: EQc3 Occupant Experience Performance, Table 1 (Printed p. 72).
Question 35 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Ventilation performance · OMV5-035
Measurements reported under EQp1 show outdoor air at least meets ASHRAE 62.1-2022 minimums in all occupied spaces and is 30% above those minimums in 96% of regularly occupied spaces. How many points does EQc2 Ventilation Performance award?
- A. 3
- B. 5
- C. 4
- D. 0, because the exceedance must cover 100% of spaces
Show answer and explanation, question 35
Answer: B. EQc2 awards 3 points for meeting ASHRAE 62.1-2022, 4 points for exceeding it by 15%, and 5 points for exceeding it by 30%. The exceedance must cover at least 95% of regularly occupied spaces, and 96% does.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 3 points is for just meeting the standard.
- C. 4 points is the 15% tier.
- D. The increased-airflow coverage requirement is 95%, not 100%; all occupied spaces must still meet the referenced minimum.
Source: USGBC: EQc2 Ventilation Performance (Printed p. 71).
Question 36 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Air filtration · OMV5-036
Which minimum filter rating is specified by EQc5 Air Filtration?
- A. MERV 8
- B. MERV 11
- C. MERV 13 (or ISO 16890 ePM1 50%)
- D. HEPA only
Show answer and explanation, question 36
Answer: C. EQc5 requires filters rated at least MERV 13 under ASHRAE 52.2, or ePM1 50% under ISO 16890.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. MERV 8 is below the requirement.
- B. MERV 11 is still below the requirement.
- D. HEPA-only filtration is not the requirement. MERV 13 or the listed ISO equivalent is sufficient for this rating criterion.
Source: USGBC: EQc5 Air Filtration (Printed p. 75).
Question 37 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Green cleaning · OMV5-037
Over four months of purchases in the reporting period, a property spent $12,000 on cleaning products and materials, and $9,000 of that was on products that meet the listed standards. Does it meet the EQc7 Option 2 purchasing threshold?
- A. Yes. 75% by cost meets the 'at least 75%' threshold.
- B. No. The share must be more than 75%.
- C. No. A full 12 months of purchases is required.
- D. Yes, but only because more than half the product count complies.
Show answer and explanation, question 37
Answer: A. $9,000 ÷ $12,000 = 75%. Option 2 requires at least 75% of cleaning products and materials, by cost, to comply, and at least three months of purchases. Both conditions are met.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- B. The wording is 'at least 75%', so exactly 75% qualifies.
- C. The minimum is three months of purchases.
- D. The threshold is measured by cost, not product count.
Calculation: $9,000 ÷ $12,000 = 0.75 → 75% (meets 'at least 75%').
Source: USGBC: EQc7 Green Cleaning, Option 2 (Printed pp. 77–79).
Question 38 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Integrated pest management: application-site notice · OMV5-038
Under EQc8 Option 1, what information must the pesticide application-site sign include?
- A. Only the pest-control contractor's phone number
- B. Only the date of the next routine inspection
- C. The pesticide name, EPA registration number or local equivalent, and application date
- D. Only a statement that the building has a pest-management plan
Show answer and explanation, question 38
Answer: C. EQc8 specifies identifying the pesticide and its registration number or local equivalent, together with the application date. A generic service notice does not supply those details.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. A phone number does not identify the pesticide, registration number, or application date.
- B. An inspection date is not the application date and does not identify the pesticide.
- D. The existence of a plan does not identify this application.
Source: USGBC: EQc8 Integrated Pest Management, communication protocol (Printed pp. 80–81).
Question 39 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Indoor air quality performance · OMV5-039
A team uses EQc1 Option 2, one-time air testing during the 12-month reporting period, with compliant testing methods and outdoor comparison measurements. CO, PM10, PM2.5, and ozone meet their limits. The project claims no points for other parameters or monitoring paths. How many points do these four qualifying parameters earn?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Show answer and explanation, question 39
Answer: B. Option 2 awards 1 point for every two passing parameters, up to 3 points. Four passing parameters earn 2 points.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. 1 point is for two passing parameters.
- C. 3 points needs three qualifying pairs. This scenario has only two.
- D. Option 2 doesn't award a point per parameter, and it caps at 3.
Source: USGBC: EQc1 Indoor Air Quality Performance, Option 2 and Table 2 (Printed pp. 68–69).
Question 40 of 40
Indoor Environmental Quality · Resilient spaces · OMV5-040
A team earns EQc6 Resilient Spaces by setting up a management mode for wildfire smoke and other poor outdoor-air events. Where must that mode also be documented?
- A. In the EAp1 carbon projection
- B. In the IPp1 climate resilience assessment
- C. In the LTc1 transportation survey
- D. In the IPp4 Current Facilities Requirements and O+M Plan
Show answer and explanation, question 40
Answer: D. EQc6 requires the management mode to be written into the project's current facilities requirements and O+M plan. That gives building operators a documented response to follow.
Why the other choices are wrong:
- A. The carbon projection is about energy and emissions.
- B. IPp1 identifies hazards. The operating response belongs in the O+M plan.
- C. The transportation survey is unrelated.
Source: USGBC: EQc6 Resilient Spaces, Option 1 (Printed p. 76).
Answer key
| Question | Item ID | Domain | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | OMV5-001 | LEED Process | D |
| 2 | OMV5-002 | LEED Process | B |
| 3 | OMV5-003 | LEED Process | A |
| 4 | OMV5-004 | LEED Process | D |
| 5 | OMV5-005 | LEED Process | D |
| 6 | OMV5-006 | Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | B |
| 7 | OMV5-007 | Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | A |
| 8 | OMV5-008 | Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | C |
| 9 | OMV5-009 | Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | D |
| 10 | OMV5-010 | Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | A |
| 11 | OMV5-011 | Location and Transportation | B |
| 12 | OMV5-012 | Location and Transportation | D |
| 13 | OMV5-013 | Location and Transportation | A |
| 14 | OMV5-014 | Location and Transportation | C |
| 15 | OMV5-015 | Sustainable Sites | C |
| 16 | OMV5-016 | Sustainable Sites | B |
| 17 | OMV5-017 | Water Efficiency | C |
| 18 | OMV5-018 | Water Efficiency | C |
| 19 | OMV5-019 | Water Efficiency | D |
| 20 | OMV5-020 | Energy and Atmosphere | A |
| 21 | OMV5-021 | Energy and Atmosphere | B |
| 22 | OMV5-022 | Energy and Atmosphere | A |
| 23 | OMV5-023 | Energy and Atmosphere | A |
| 24 | OMV5-024 | Energy and Atmosphere | D |
| 25 | OMV5-025 | Energy and Atmosphere | C |
| 26 | OMV5-026 | Energy and Atmosphere | C |
| 27 | OMV5-027 | Energy and Atmosphere | A |
| 28 | OMV5-028 | Energy and Atmosphere | B |
| 29 | OMV5-029 | Energy and Atmosphere | D |
| 30 | OMV5-030 | Materials and Resources | C |
| 31 | OMV5-031 | Materials and Resources | B |
| 32 | OMV5-032 | Materials and Resources | D |
| 33 | OMV5-033 | Indoor Environmental Quality | A |
| 34 | OMV5-034 | Indoor Environmental Quality | B |
| 35 | OMV5-035 | Indoor Environmental Quality | B |
| 36 | OMV5-036 | Indoor Environmental Quality | C |
| 37 | OMV5-037 | Indoor Environmental Quality | A |
| 38 | OMV5-038 | Indoor Environmental Quality | C |
| 39 | OMV5-039 | Indoor Environmental Quality | B |
| 40 | OMV5-040 | Indoor Environmental Quality | D |
How to read your result
There's nothing to sign up for. The questions are unofficial and written by Castleport Test Prep, not taken from GBCI's exam.
Count your correct answers out of 40 only after answering all 40 without looking at the explanations first. For a partial attempt, record correct out of attempted and keep unanswered or previously revealed items separate. That number describes this set only. Your result tells you how you did on these 40 questions; it isn't a scaled score or a prediction of passing. Each domain here has between 2 and 10 questions, which is too few to measure a domain precisely. Treat a miss as a pointer to a credit worth rereading, not as a verdict on the whole category.
| Domain | Questions in this set | Questions in GBCI's published outline | Item IDs |
|---|---|---|---|
| LEED Process | 5 | 10 | OMV5-001 to 005 |
| Integrative Process Planning and Assessments | 5 | 10 | OMV5-006 to 010 |
| Location and Transportation | 4 | 8 | OMV5-011 to 014 |
| Sustainable Sites | 2 | 5 | OMV5-015 to 016 |
| Water Efficiency | 3 | 7 | OMV5-017 to 019 |
| Energy and Atmosphere | 10 | 21 | OMV5-020 to 029 |
| Materials and Resources | 3 | 7 | OMV5-030 to 032 |
| Indoor Environmental Quality | 8 | 17 | OMV5-033 to 040 |
| Total | 40 | 85 | Blank |
The outline counts come from the LEED AP O+M v5 exam specifications in GBCI's candidate handbook. They add up to 85, and the exam itself has 100 questions. The handbook says some questions are scored and some aren't, but it doesn't say how many of each, so don't read the 85 as a scored-question count. We sampled each domain at roughly half its published count. These are exam-domain question counts, not LEED project-credit points.
What to do with your misses:
- Open the source linked under each missed question.
- Read the full requirement for that credit in the LEED v5 O+M rating system, and pay attention to the condition that changed the answer. That might be a threshold, a "greater than" versus "at least," or what goes in a denominator.
- A day or two later, retry those questions without looking at the key.
Energy and Atmosphere and Indoor Environmental Quality make up 38 of the 85 questions in the published outline. If your misses are spread out, start with those two.
Want to practice under time pressure? The real exam gives you 2 hours for 100 questions, or 1.2 minutes per question. At that pace, these 40 questions take 48 minutes. That's our own calculation, not an official time limit.
About the real LEED AP O+M v5 exam
| Topic | What the official sources say |
|---|---|
| Who runs it | GBCI runs the LEED professional credentials. You register through your USGBC credentials dashboard, and Prometric delivers the exam at a test center or online. |
| Version | LEED v5. The last LEED AP O+M v4 exam date was June 28, 2026. The v5 AP beta began June 30, 2026. |
| Format | 100 multiple-choice questions with one correct answer each, in 2 hours. It's closed book. Questions test recall, application, and analysis. During the beta, you can also take an optional 10-minute tutorial. |
| Content | Eight domains, from LEED Process to Indoor Environmental Quality (see the table above). |
| Passing score | 170 on a scale of 125 to 200. This is a scaled score, not a percentage correct. Scoring source. |
| Standard exam fee | $350, or $250 for eligible employees of a USGBC member company. Beta opt-in benefits are separate, below. Fee source. |
| Basic eligibility | You must be 18 or older and hold an active LEED Green Associate credential (from v4 or v5) or an active LEED AP with specialty credential when you register, maintaining its active status through the exam date. Follow the other application policies in the candidate handbook. |
Format, delivery, and eligibility: candidate handbook and USGBC exam guidance. Version dates: LEED v5 exam information.
Where the beta stands (as of October 15, 2026): The LEED AP v5 exams are still in beta. If you opt in to the beta's data-collection phase, you get 50% off registration. You also get 50% off a second attempt, and CE hours if you pass. The last day to opt in is October 21, 2026, and testing under that opt-in must be done by October 27, 2026 (U.S. Eastern time). After that, the beta stays open as a testing-only phase, which USGBC estimates will run through January 2027. Beta takers get a notice of completion instead of an on-screen score. Scores are tentatively expected in February 2027, when the final exam is also expected to launch. USGBC says all of these dates may shift, so check its LEED v5 exam information page before you book.
Quick answers
Does the current candidate handbook include O+M v5 sample questions? The candidate handbook publishes the O+M v5 exam specifications and reference list, but its sample questions cover only the v4 Homes and ND exams. This Castleport set is unofficial; it is not a GBCI practice exam.
Do old v4 O+M questions still help? They help with basic ideas, but v5 reorganized O+M. This set tests the v5 assessment prerequisites, the 25-year carbon projection, current performance thresholds, and Platinum-specific minimums in the July 2026 O+M rating system. A v4 answer can be wrong under v5, so check anything you learned from older material against the v5 credit language.
What should I study from? Use the references GBCI lists for the O+M v5 exam: the LEED v5 Reference Guide for Operations and Maintenance (July 2026 edition in the current handbook), Foundations of LEED (January 2023), the Guide to LEED Certification: Commercial, and the LEED Addenda Database. The LEED v5 O+M rating system is a free download from USGBC and holds the credit thresholds used in these questions. It is the rating-system document, not the full reference guide.
Can I take the Green Associate and O+M exams together? Not right now. The combined exam isn't offered during the v5 beta, and beta exams are in English only. USGBC beta rules.
If I already hold LEED AP O+M, do I need to retest on v5? No. Credential holders in good standing keep their credential through the normal continuing-education cycle. USGBC credential-maintenance guidance.
Sources
Exam facts
- GBCI, LEED AP with Specialty Candidate Handbook (updated September 2026). Used for: eligibility, exam format, exam development, LEED AP O+M v5 exam specifications, O+M exam references, and the minimum passing score.
- USGBC Help Center, LEED v5 exam information (updated October 9, 2026). Used for: v4 and v5 dates, beta windows, beta benefits, score timing, the final-exam estimate, and the English-only and no-combined-exam rules.
- USGBC Help Center, About the LEED AP with specialty exam (updated August 6, 2026). Used for: eligibility, fees, the closed-book rule, and delivery options.
- USGBC Help Center, Exam Results (updated March 21, 2025). Used for: the 125–200 score scale and the 170 passing score.
Credit requirements used in the questions
- USGBC, LEED v5 Operations and Maintenance rating system, July 2026. Page numbers in the question sources refer to this document's printed pages.
- USGBC Help Center, LEED certification process overview and Minimum Program Requirements FAQ, together with the official project-size requirements.
Last verified: October 15, 2026. The exam facts were checked against the GBCI and USGBC sources above, and the question requirements were checked against the July 2026 O+M rating-system document at the linked pages, including relevant table images. LEED addenda can change credit requirements, so check the Addenda Database for anything that matters to your project.
Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.
Editorial method: AI tools assisted with drafting and source checking. No credentialed subject-matter review is claimed. The scenarios are hypothetical, not reports of actual projects; these questions teach the cited certification requirements, not site-specific engineering or safety procedures. See our editorial standards.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by GBCI or the U.S. Green Building Council. LEED and the names of LEED credentials are used only to identify the subjects discussed, and all trademarks belong to their respective owners. The practice questions on this page are original and unofficial; they are not GBCI exam questions. Using them does not guarantee an exam result or a project's certification.