Free NPTE-PT Practice Test
Sixty original questions with answers and explanations, mapped to FSBPT's current NPTE-PT content outline and ending with four scenario sets, the way real exam sections end. Give yourself 80 minutes to practice real exam pace, or go untimed to learn.
Unofficial practice written by Castleport Test Prep. These are not FSBPT questions, and your percentage here is feedback on these items, not a predicted NPTE score.
Question 1
A 22-year-old fell onto an outstretched hand 2 days ago. He has tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox and pain with wrist ulnar deviation. Wrist radiographs taken yesterday were read as normal. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Snuffbox tenderness after a fall on an outstretched hand is the classic scaphoid fracture picture, and a normal first film doesn't clear it: StatPearls estimates up to 25% of scaphoid fractures aren't visible on initial radiographs. Standard management is thumb spica immobilization with repeat films in about 1–2 weeks, or MRI. A and D load a possible fracture whose blood supply runs distal to proximal, which is why missed fractures risk nonunion and avascular necrosis. B immobilizes the wrist but not the thumb.
Review next: scaphoid blood supply and why proximal pole fractures heal poorly.
Source: StatPearls, Scaphoid Fracture
Question 2
A patient had an ischemic stroke in the territory of the right anterior cerebral artery. Which motor pattern is MOST expected?
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Answer: A. The ACA supplies the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, where the leg is represented on the motor homunculus, so the deficit is contralateral and leg-predominant. B is the classic middle cerebral artery pattern (face and arm more than leg). C puts the deficit on the wrong side. D doesn't fit a unilateral cortical infarct.
Review next: MCA vs. ACA vs. PCA syndromes, including aphasia (dominant MCA) and neglect (nondominant hemisphere).
Source: StatPearls, Anterior Cerebral Artery Stroke
Question 3
Post-bronchodilator spirometry for a 66-year-old former smoker shows FEV1 1.4 L and FVC 2.6 L. How should the FEV1/FVC ratio be interpreted?
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Answer: B. 1.4 ÷ 2.6 ≈ 0.54. The GOLD criterion for persistent airflow limitation is a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70. Restrictive disease (A) typically lowers both FEV1 and FVC with a normal or high ratio. C inverts the ratio. Lung volumes (D) help confirm restriction, but you don't need them to identify obstruction.
Review next: GOLD grades by FEV1 % predicted, and how obstructive and restrictive patterns change exercise prescription.
Source: GOLD Science Committee, pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry for COPD diagnosis
Question 4
A 61-year-old with 3 months of shoulder pain has a positive painful arc, a positive drop-arm sign, and weakness on resisted external rotation with the arm at the side. What is the BEST interpretation?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. In Park et al. (2005), the combination of painful arc, drop-arm sign, and infraspinatus (external rotation) weakness gave the best post-test probability for a full-thickness tear: about 91% when all three were positive, falling to about 9% when all three were negative. External rotation weakness and a positive drop-arm sign point to tendon failure, not just bursitis (A). Adhesive capsulitis (B) presents with loss of passive motion, especially external rotation, not weakness with intact passive range. C ignores what clusters are for.
Review next: the Hawkins-Kennedy + painful arc + infraspinatus cluster for impingement, from the same study.
Question 5
A 68-year-old has a shallow wound with irregular borders just above the medial malleolus. The base is red with granulation tissue, drainage is moderate to heavy, the surrounding skin has brown staining, and the leg is edematous. She says the ache improves when she elevates her leg. Which etiology is MOST likely?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Medial gaiter location, shallow irregular shape, heavy exudate, hemosiderin staining, edema, and relief with elevation are the venous pattern. Arterial ulcers (B) tend to sit on the toes, heels, or lateral malleolus, look punched out with a pale dry base, and hurt more with elevation. Neuropathic ulcers (C) typically form under weight-bearing plantar surfaces. A pressure injury (D) sits over a bony prominence exposed to sustained pressure. Before starting compression for a venous ulcer, an ankle-brachial index is checked to rule out arterial disease.
Review next: why compression helps venous ulcers and can harm arterial ones.
Source: A Persistent Wound: Differentiating Between Arterial and Venous Ulcers, UCLA
Question 6
A 72-year-old with Parkinson disease freezes when approaching doorways and turning in tight spaces at home. Which intervention has the strongest evidence for this problem?
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Answer: C. The APTA clinical practice guideline for Parkinson disease (Osborne et al., 2022) gives external cueing a strong recommendation based on high-quality evidence, for reducing freezing of gait and improving gait outcomes. Strengthening (A) and flexibility (D) have roles in a full program but don't target the cueing deficit behind freezing. Looking down and slowing (B) doesn't address the problem and can worsen posture.
Review next: the other strong recommendations in the PD guideline (aerobic exercise, resistance training, balance training, gait training).
Source: Osborne JA et al. Physical Therapist Management of Parkinson Disease: APTA Clinical Practice Guideline. Phys Ther. 2022
Question 7
A 13-year-old boy with obesity reports 3 weeks of left knee pain and a limp. Knee examination is unremarkable. When the therapist passively flexes his left hip, the thigh rolls into external rotation, and hip internal rotation is limited and painful. What should the therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Obligatory external rotation with passive hip flexion (the Drehmann sign) plus limited, painful internal rotation in an adolescent points to slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Pain is often referred to the knee, so a normal knee exam is a reason to examine the hip, not to treat the knee. Watchful waiting (B, C) risks slip progression and avascular necrosis, and loading exercise (A) treats the wrong joint. Management is protected weight-bearing and prompt orthopedic referral for fixation.
Review next: SCFE vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease by age, sex, and presentation.
Source: StatPearls, Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Question 8
A physical therapist is consulted to evaluate a hospitalized patient with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precautions are required before entering the room?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. TB spreads by airborne droplet nuclei that stay suspended and travel on air currents. CDC guidance calls for airborne precautions: an airborne infection isolation (negative-pressure) room and a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator put on before entry. A surgical mask (A, D) doesn't seal against airborne particles. Contact precautions (C) address organisms spread by touch, such as C. difficile.
Review next: the other classic airborne diseases (measles, varicella, disseminated zoster) and which conditions need droplet or contact precautions.
Source: CDC, TB infection control and respiratory protection
Question 9
A patient with neck and arm pain has a positive Spurling test, a positive upper limb tension test A (median nerve bias), relief of arm symptoms with cervical distraction, and cervical rotation of 50° toward the symptomatic side. How should these findings be interpreted?
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Answer: C. Wainner et al. (2003) found that all four positive (ULTT A, Spurling, distraction, rotation <60° toward the involved side) gave a positive likelihood ratio of about 30, a large shift toward the diagnosis; three of four gave about 6. The rotation cutoff is 60°, not 45° (A). The ULTT is sensitive, so its value lies in a negative result helping rule radiculopathy out (D has it backwards). One caveat worth knowing: the cluster is specific but insensitive, so a patient who doesn't meet all four can still have radiculopathy.
Review next: SnNout and SpPin, and which single cervical tests are best for ruling in versus ruling out.
Question 10
A 40-year-old woke with drooping of the entire right side of her face. She cannot wrinkle her right forehead or fully close her right eye. Strength and sensation in her limbs are normal. Where is the lesion MOST likely?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Weakness of the whole half of the face, forehead included, is a lower motor neuron pattern, as in Bell palsy. The forehead receives upper motor neuron input from both hemispheres, so a cortical lesion (B) typically spares the forehead and weakens the lower face on the opposite side. A right cortical lesion (C) would affect the left face. The trigeminal nerve (D) supplies facial sensation and the muscles of chewing, not facial expression. Forehead-sparing weakness with limb or speech signs is treated as a stroke until proven otherwise.
Review next: eye protection with incomplete closure, and the prognosis of Bell palsy.
Source: Continuum, Bell's Palsy (2017)
Question 11
A 67-year-old in outpatient cardiac rehab had his statin dose increased 3 weeks ago. Today he reports aching and weakness in both thighs that began 2 days ago without new exercise, and says his urine has looked dark, like cola. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Muscle pain, weakness, and tea- or cola-colored urine are the classic presentation of rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious statin effect that can cause acute kidney injury. Statins are a recognized cause, and the timing after a dose increase fits. This needs medical evaluation (typically a creatine kinase level and kidney function), not exercise modification (A, C) or continued exercise (B), which adds muscle damage.
Review next: other medications that change PT management, such as beta-blockers, anticoagulants, and corticosteroids.
Source: Statin-induced rhabdomyolysis: a comprehensive review of case reports. Physiother Can. 2014
Question 12
A 24-year-old recreational runner has 4 months of pain around the patella with squatting, stairs, and prolonged sitting. Tibiofemoral and ligament tests are negative. Which plan is BEST supported by the current clinical practice guideline?
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Answer: B. The 2019 JOSPT patellofemoral pain guideline (Willy et al.) recommends exercise therapy combining hip- and knee-targeted exercise to reduce pain and improve function in the short, medium, and long term. Knee-only work (A) is less effective than the combined approach. The guideline advises against knee orthoses and sleeves (C) and against passive modalities and other nonactive treatments on their own (D). Patellar taping can be added early for pain relief, alongside exercise.
Review next: how PFP is diagnosed (pain reproduced by squatting or other loaded knee flexion) and what must be excluded first.
Question 13
Six weeks after vestibular neuritis, a 50-year-old has a positive head impulse test to the right and reports that her vision bounces when she walks. Which home exercise is MOST appropriate?
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Answer: A. A positive head impulse test and oscillopsia indicate unilateral vestibular hypofunction. The 2022 Academy of Neurologic PT guideline (Hall et al.) supports vestibular rehabilitation with gaze stabilization exercises, which use head movement with visual fixation, and suggests doing them at least 3 times a day for acute and subacute cases. The same guideline recommends against eye-movement exercises without head movement (C). Canalith repositioning (B) treats BPPV. Prolonged suppressants and inactivity (D) slow central compensation.
Review next: how to progress gaze stabilization (busier backgrounds, faster head speed, standing and walking).
Source: Hall CD et al. Vestibular Rehabilitation for Peripheral Vestibular Hypofunction: Updated CPG. J Neurol Phys Ther. 2022
Question 14
A 74-year-old with heart failure arrives for home health PT. His log shows his weight is up 4 lb since yesterday morning, and his ankles are more swollen than last visit. He feels "about the same." Vital signs are stable. What should the therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The American Heart Association's heart failure self-check plan treats a sudden gain of more than 2–3 lb in 24 hours (or 5 lb in a week), especially with new swelling, as a warning sign of fluid retention that warrants prompt contact with the heart-failure team. Feeling fine (A) doesn't rule out early decompensation. Walking farther (B) doesn't remove fluid and adds cardiac load. Fluid restriction (C) is a medical prescription, not a PT instruction.
Review next: other HF warning signs (orthopnea, new cough, reduced exercise tolerance) and how the therapist should respond to each.
Source: American Heart Association, Self-Check Plan for HF Management
Question 15
A 45-year-old reports 2 months of pain and swelling in the MCP and PIP joints of both hands and both wrists, with morning stiffness lasting about 90 minutes. Her DIP joints are spared. Which condition is MOST consistent with this presentation?
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Answer: C. Symmetric involvement of the MCPs, PIPs, and wrists with DIP sparing and prolonged morning stiffness (typically over 30–60 minutes) is the inflammatory pattern of rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoarthritis (A) favors DIPs, PIPs, and the thumb CMC, with brief morning stiffness under about 30 minutes. Gout (B) usually presents as an acute monoarthritis. de Quervain (D) is a single tendon problem at the radial wrist.
Review next: joint protection and exercise during RA flares vs. remission.
Source: MSD Manual Professional Edition, Rheumatoid Arthritis (reviewed May 2026; updated October 2026)
Question 16
A 55-year-old with stage II lymphedema of the left arm after breast cancer treatment is starting complete decongestive therapy (CDT). Which component belongs in the intensive (reduction) phase?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. CDT has two phases. The intensive phase reduces volume with manual lymphatic drainage, multilayer short-stretch bandaging, remedial exercise (done in compression so muscle contraction helps move lymph), and skin care. The maintenance phase uses compression garments and self-care. Garments are measured once maximum reduction is reached (A), not at the start. Deep-tissue massage (C) isn't MLD, which uses light skin-stretching pressure. Heat (D) increases filtration and fluid load.
Review next: how Stemmer sign and limb volume or circumference are used to track response.
Source: Complex decongestive therapy: reduction and maintenance phases
Question 17
A patient 8 months after stroke walks the middle 10 meters of a 10-Meter Walk Test in 16.1 seconds at self-selected speed. Using the classic Perry categories, how is he classified?
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Answer: D. Speed = 10 m ÷ 16.1 s ≈ 0.62 m/s. Perry et al. (1995) categories are household under 0.4 m/s, limited community 0.4–0.8 m/s, and unlimited community over 0.8 m/s. A and B are the wrong bands, and C ignores that the 10MWT exists to produce a speed. Updated cutoffs from later research (0.49–0.93 m/s for limited community) would place him in the same category.
Review next: minimal clinically important difference for gait speed, and timing over the middle 10 m to exclude acceleration and deceleration.
Source: Walking speed and community ambulation after stroke (Perry classification)
Question 18
A 19-year-old was hit in the left upper abdomen during a football game an hour ago. He now has left shoulder-tip pain, feels lightheaded, and has a heart rate of 118 bpm. Shoulder range of motion is full and pain-free. What should the athletic team's PT do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Left shoulder pain after left upper quadrant trauma is the Kehr sign: blood irritating the diaphragm refers pain through the phrenic nerve (C3–C5) to the shoulder. With tachycardia and lightheadedness, splenic rupture with hemorrhage is the concern, and that's an emergency. A pain-free shoulder exam is the clue the pain isn't musculoskeletal (A, C). Waiting (D) delays care for possible hemorrhagic shock.
Review next: other visceral referral patterns (gallbladder to the right scapula, heart to the left arm and jaw, kidney to the flank).
Source: StatPearls, Splenic Rupture
Question 19
A 38-year-old felt a "pop" in the back of his ankle while lunging during tennis. He is lying prone with his feet off the table. When the therapist squeezes his calf, the foot does not plantarflex. What does this finding indicate?
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Answer: A. Squeezing an intact calf passively plantarflexes the foot. No plantarflexion is a positive Thompson (Simmonds-Thompson) test and indicates complete Achilles rupture, typically 2–6 cm above the insertion where blood supply is poorest. Reported sensitivity and specificity are high. Some patients can still weakly plantarflex actively using posterior tibialis and the toe flexors, which is why the squeeze test is more useful than asking him to point his foot. The anterior drawer (C) tests the ATFL.
Review next: risk factors for rupture, including fluoroquinolone and corticosteroid use.
Source: Albertson S, Boysen Osborn M. Thompson Test in Achilles Tendon Rupture. JETem. 2016
Question 20
A therapist plans thermal ultrasound for a patellar tendinopathy. The target tissue lies about 1 cm below the skin. Which setting is MOST appropriate?
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Answer: C. Depth of ultrasound penetration is inversely related to frequency. 3 MHz is absorbed in superficial tissue (roughly 1–2 cm) and heats it faster, while 1 MHz reaches deeper structures (roughly 3–5 cm). A reverses the relationship. Intensity (B) affects how much energy is delivered, not the depth. A 20% duty cycle (D) produces minimal heating and doesn't match a thermal goal.
Review next: contraindications to ultrasound (over a pregnant uterus, active malignancy, the eyes, areas of impaired sensation for thermal use).
Source: Draper DO et al. Rate of temperature increase in human muscle during 1 MHz and 3 MHz continuous ultrasound. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 1995;22(4):304–307; Draper DO et al. Rate of temperature increase in human muscle during 1 MHz and 3 MHz continuous ultrasound. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 1995;22(4):142–150
Question 21
After a stab wound to the right side of the spine at T10, a patient has weakness of the right leg and loss of proprioception and vibration in the right leg. Which additional finding is expected?
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Answer: D. This is Brown-Séquard syndrome, a hemisection of the cord. The corticospinal tract and dorsal columns carry fibers that haven't crossed yet at this level, so motor function and proprioception are lost on the same side. Spinothalamic fibers cross within one or two segments of entry, so pain and temperature are lost on the opposite side, starting a level or two below the injury. A puts the spinothalamic loss on the wrong side. B and C describe complete or cervical lesions.
Review next: central cord and anterior cord syndromes, and which incomplete syndrome has the best walking prognosis.
Source: StatPearls, Brown-Séquard Syndrome
Question 22
A 70-year-old with osteoporosis (no vertebral fracture) asks which exercise in her current home program she should change. Which one?
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Answer: A. The Too Fit To Fracture recommendations emphasize resistance and balance training, back-extensor endurance, and "spine-sparing" movement such as hip hinging, while avoiding repeated or loaded spinal flexion, which raises compressive load on the anterior vertebral bodies. B, C, and D are components the recommendations support.
Review next: how the recommendations change after a vertebral compression fracture.
Source: Giangregorio LM et al. Too Fit To Fracture. Osteoporos Int. 2014; and the 2015 Delphi consensus
Question 23
A 29-year-old with type 1 diabetes checks her glucose before a planned 45-minute run in clinic. It is 290 mg/dL, she hasn't eaten in 4 hours, and her blood ketone meter reads 1.8 mmol/L. What should the therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The international consensus on exercise in type 1 diabetes (Riddell et al., Lancet Diabetes & Endocrinology, 2017) says unexplained glucose above about 270 mg/dL calls for a ketone check, and blood ketones of 1.5 mmol/L or more make exercise contraindicated until the hyperglycemia is managed. With insufficient insulin, exercise can push glucose and ketones higher, toward ketoacidosis, so B and D are unsafe. C treats hypoglycemia, the opposite problem.
Review next: starting glucose targets for exercise, and how to manage a low pre-exercise reading.
Source: Riddell MC et al. Exercise management in type 1 diabetes: a consensus statement. Lancet Diabetes Endocrinol. 2017
Question 24
Two weeks after a traumatic brain injury, a patient is restless, confused, pulls at his IV line, and can't remember the therapist from yesterday. He follows no multistep commands. Which approach is MOST appropriate for his PT sessions?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. He fits Rancho Los Amigos Level IV, confused-agitated: a heightened state of activity driven by internal confusion, with no short-term recall. Management prioritizes reducing stimulation and keeping caregivers and routines consistent, with simple, familiar activity. A busy environment (A) feeds agitation. Arguing with confused content (B) escalates it. He can't yet learn new complex skills (D).
Review next: how management shifts at Levels V and VI as attention and carryover improve.
Source: StatPearls, Rancho Los Amigos; Alberta Health Services, Behavioural Management of Agitation following Brain Injury
Question 25
When a patient stands on her right leg, her left pelvis drops. Which muscle weakness does this indicate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A positive Trendelenburg sign is a drop of the pelvis on the unsupported side during single-leg stance, caused by weakness of the hip abductors (gluteus medius and minimus) on the stance side. Standing on the right with the left pelvis dropping implicates the right abductors. A is the most common mistake: the drop is on the opposite side from the weak muscle. Gluteus maximus weakness (C) produces a backward trunk lurch at initial contact.
Review next: the compensated Trendelenburg gait (trunk lean toward the weak side) and why a cane in the opposite hand helps.
Source: StatPearls, Trendelenburg Sign
Question 26
During a monitored cardiac rehab session, the treadmill grade is increased. The patient's systolic blood pressure falls from 142 to 128 mm Hg and he reports new chest pressure. What should the therapist do?
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Answer: D. Systolic pressure should rise with workload. A drop of more than 10 mm Hg from baseline despite increased workload, with other evidence of ischemia such as chest pressure, is an absolute indication to stop exercise in the AHA exercise standards. A and B keep stressing an ischemic heart. Water (C) doesn't address a cardiac cause.
Review next: the relative indications to stop exercise and the normal BP response to exercise.
Question 27
A physical therapist wants to send a patient's re-evaluation to the orthopedic surgeon who is co-managing his post-operative care. The patient has not signed a written authorization. Under HIPAA, what applies?
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Answer: A. HIPAA permits covered entities to disclose protected health information to another provider for treatment without written authorization. HHS also states that the minimum necessary standard does not apply to disclosures to a health care provider for treatment (C). The medium of communication (D) doesn't change permission, though reasonable safeguards still apply. Some state laws and record types (for example, substance use treatment records) add stricter rules.
Review next: when the minimum necessary standard does apply (payment, operations), and patients' right to access their records.
Source: HHS, Uses and Disclosures for Treatment, Payment, and Health Care Operations; HHS, Minimum Necessary Requirement
Question 28
A 52-year-old assembler has numbness in her right thumb, index, and middle fingers that wakes her at night and improves when she shakes her hand. Examination shows thenar atrophy and weak thumb abduction. Where is the nerve MOST likely compressed?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Sensory symptoms in the median distribution with weakness and wasting of the thenar muscles (abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis) fit carpal tunnel syndrome. Ulnar nerve entrapment (A) affects the little finger, ulnar ring finger, hypothenar muscles, and interossei. A C8 radiculopathy (B) produces neck-related symptoms on the ulnar side of the hand. Radial nerve palsy at the spiral groove (D) causes wrist drop. Thenar atrophy signals more advanced compression.
Review next: the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, which runs over the carpal tunnel and keeps thenar skin sensation intact in CTS.
Source: StatPearls, Thenar Eminence
Question 29
A 46-year-old is 3 weeks into recovery from Guillain-Barré syndrome. He has improving distal weakness and fatigues quickly. Which exercise approach is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. In the recovery phase, nerves are remyelinating and muscles fatigue easily. Rehabilitation guidance stresses pacing: graded exercise with rest breaks, avoiding overwork and exhausting effort, which can cause prolonged fatigue and set back recovery. A and D overload recovering motor units. Bed rest (C) brings deconditioning, contractures, and VTE risk. Watch respiratory function closely in the acute phase, when weakness can involve the breathing muscles.
Review next: orthoses for foot drop, and fatigue as a long-term residual problem after GBS.
Source: UW Medicine, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Exercise
Question 30
A 30-year-old spilled boiling water on his forearm. The area is red, moist, and blistered, blanches with pressure, and is very painful to light touch. How should the burn be classified?
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Answer: D. Blisters, a moist red base that blanches, and severe pain mark a superficial partial-thickness burn involving the epidermis and papillary dermis, which usually heals in 2–3 weeks with minimal scarring. Superficial burns (B) are red and painful but don't blister, like a sunburn. Deep partial-thickness burns (C) blanch sluggishly or not at all and have reduced pain. Full-thickness burns (A) are leathery, white or charred, and insensate.
Review next: which burns are excluded from total body surface area calculations, and when burn center referral is indicated.
Source: StatPearls, Burn Classification
Question 31
A 34-year-old referred for low back pain has had right flank pain for 2 days with a temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C), nausea, and painful urination. Percussion over the right costovertebral angle reproduces sharp pain. Spinal movements don't change her symptoms. What should the therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Fever, flank pain, nausea, urinary symptoms, and costovertebral angle tenderness together suggest acute pyelonephritis, an infection that needs prompt medical treatment with antibiotics. Back pain that no spinal movement changes, plus systemic signs, is a screening red flag. B, C, and D treat a nonmechanical problem as mechanical and delay care.
Review next: how kidney stones differ (colicky pain, often without fever) and other systemic red flags in back pain screening.
Source: StatPearls, Acute Pyelonephritis
Question 32
In a randomized trial, 20% of older adults in the control group fell during follow-up, compared with 15% in the exercise group. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one fall?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Absolute risk reduction = control event rate − experimental event rate = 0.20 − 0.15 = 0.05. NNT = 1 ÷ ARR = 1 ÷ 0.05 = 20, so 20 people need the program to prevent one additional faller. A is 1 ÷ 0.25, which uses the relative risk reduction. B is 1 ÷ 0.15, which uses the treatment group's event rate. D treats the 25% relative risk reduction as the NNT. NNTs are rounded up to whole patients.
Review next: relative vs. absolute risk reduction, and why the same RRR gives very different NNTs at different baseline risks.
Source: Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine, Number Needed to Treat
Question 33
A 32-year-old parent of a newborn reports pain at the radial side of the wrist when lifting the baby. Pain is reproduced over the radial styloid when the thumb is flexed into the palm and the wrist is ulnarly deviated. Which tendons are MOST likely involved?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. This is the Finkelstein-type test for de Quervain tenosynovitis, which stretches the APL and EPB where they pass through the first dorsal compartment at the radial styloid. ECRB (A) is involved in lateral epicondylalgia at the elbow. The EPL (C) runs in the third compartment around Lister's tubercle. FCR (B) is a volar tendon. The thumb-in-fist version is technically Eichhoff's maneuver and produces more false positives than Finkelstein's original method.
Review next: thumb spica orthoses and activity modification for de Quervain.
Source: StatPearls, Finkelstein Sign
Question 34
A patient in inpatient rehab is learning three transfers: bed to wheelchair, wheelchair to toilet, and wheelchair to car seat. To maximize how well he retains and transfers these skills after discharge, how should practice be scheduled once he understands each task?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The contextual interference effect, first shown by Shea and Morgan (1979), is that random practice often looks worse during the session but produces better retention and transfer than blocked practice. Blocked practice (A) gives smoother performance in the session but weaker long-term learning. That gap between performance and learning is exactly what exam items like to test. Blocked practice can still help in the very first stage of learning a new task.
Review next: knowledge of results vs. knowledge of performance, and fading feedback frequency.
Question 35
A patient who is partial weight-bearing on the right leg after an ankle fracture uses two axillary crutches. There is no handrail. How should he go down the stairs?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. "Up with the good, down with the bad": going down, the crutches move first with the injured leg, so the arms and crutches support the injured side, then the stronger leg follows. Going up, the strong leg leads and the crutches and injured leg follow. B and C lead with the strong leg going down, which leaves the injured leg to lower the body. D moves the injured leg without crutch support.
Review next: guarding position on stairs (therapist below the patient) and stair technique with one crutch and a rail.
Source: UPMC, Using crutches on stairs
Question 36
A 44-year-old tennis player has lateral elbow pain. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle while the patient makes a fist, pronates the forearm, and extends the wrist against resistance, which reproduces his pain. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. This is Cozen's test: resisted wrist extension loads the common extensor origin, mainly the ECRB, and reproducing lateral epicondyle pain supports lateral epicondylalgia ("tennis elbow"). Medial epicondylalgia (A) is provoked by resisted wrist flexion and pronation. A fracture (B) follows trauma. Cubital tunnel syndrome (D) involves the ulnar nerve with ulnar-side hand symptoms.
Review next: Mill's test (passive stretch) and Maudsley's test (resisted middle finger extension), and how radial tunnel syndrome can mimic tennis elbow.
Source: Physiotutors, Cozen's Test
Question 37
A 31-year-old at 28 weeks of an uncomplicated pregnancy is doing a home program for low back pain that includes supine bridges and supine core exercises held for several minutes. She occasionally feels lightheaded during them. Which modification is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Later in pregnancy, lying supine can compress the vena cava, reducing venous return and causing hypotension and lightheadedness. ACOG Committee Opinion 804 supports continuing exercise in uncomplicated pregnancy, with position changes for supine activity. Stopping all exercise (A) gives up well-documented benefits. Longer supine holds (B) worsen the problem. Breath-holding (C) and straining are discouraged.
Review next: ACOG warning signs to stop exercise (vaginal bleeding, regular painful contractions, dizziness, chest pain, calf pain or swelling).
Question 38
During August preseason practice, a high school lineman collapses. He is confused and combative, and his rectal temperature is 106°F (41.1°C). The athletic trainer and team PT are on site with a cold-water tub. What should happen FIRST?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Central nervous system dysfunction with a core temperature above 105°F defines exertional heat stroke. The 2015 NATA position statement calls cold-water immersion the most effective treatment and supports "cool first, transport second," because survival depends on how fast core temperature comes down. Transporting without cooling (A) delays the treatment that matters most. Fluids and shade (C) treat heat exhaustion. Ice packs alone (D) cool far more slowly than immersion.
Review next: why rectal temperature is the only reliable field measure, and how heat exhaustion differs from heat stroke.
Source: NATA, Exertional Heat Illnesses Position Statement executive summary (published in full 2015)
Question 39
A 36-year-old has 10 days of low back pain with pain into the right posterior thigh. With repeated prone press-ups, the thigh pain disappears and only central low back pain remains, which then eases. What does this response indicate, and what is the BEST plan?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Centralization is the retreat of referred symptoms toward the spine with repeated movements or positions. It identifies a directional preference and is associated with a favorable prognosis. Guidelines support repeated movements that centralize symptoms in acute low back pain with related leg pain, and the 2021 JOSPT guideline lists Mechanical Diagnosis and Therapy as an option for acute LBP. Peripheralization (B) is symptoms moving farther down the leg. C reverses the prognosis. Nothing here suggests a nonmechanical source (D).
Review next: red flags that override a mechanical exam, and treatment-based classification for acute LBP.
Source: George SZ et al. Interventions for the Management of Acute and Chronic Low Back Pain: Revision 2021; APTA, Pain Centralization
Question 40
A 70-year-old has had aching and tingling in both buttocks and thighs for a year. It starts after he walks about two blocks. Standing still doesn't help, but sitting down or leaning forward on a shopping cart relieves it within a few minutes. Pedal pulses are normal. Which condition is MOST likely?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Leg symptoms that come on with walking and ease with sitting or bending forward, but not with standing still, point to neurogenic claudication. Flexion opens up the spinal canal, which is why leaning on a shopping cart or walking uphill is easier than walking upright. Vascular claudication (A) eases with rest in any position and usually comes with weak pulses or skin changes. Hip osteoarthritis (B) causes groin pain with hip motion and doesn't explain tingling in both legs. An acute disc herniation (C) usually causes one-sided radicular pain, not symptoms set off by walking distance and relieved by sitting.
Review next: how a lower-extremity vascular screen (pulses, skin, ankle-brachial index) separates the two kinds of claudication.
Question 41
A 66-year-old with heart failure is doing a six-minute walk test in outpatient PT. Which development is a reason to stop the test IMMEDIATELY?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The American Thoracic Society's six-minute walk test guideline lists the reasons to stop right away: chest pain, intolerable shortness of breath, leg cramps, staggering, heavy sweating (diaphoresis), and a pale or ashen look. A rise in heart rate (A) is the normal response to walking. Patients are allowed to slow down, or stop and rest, during the test (C); the clock keeps running and the distance is recorded. Protocols that use continuous oximetry also stop for SpO2 below 80%, and 93% (D) is well above that.
Review next: the standard 6MWT instructions (course length, scripted encouragement) and how distance walked is interpreted.
Source: ATS Statement: Guidelines for the Six-Minute Walk Test. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2002;166:111–117; PhenX Toolkit, Six-Minute Walk Test protocol
Question 42
A 52-year-old with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is in PT for neck pain. She says her heartburn is worst at night and asks what she can do at home besides taking her medication. Which advice matches the American College of Gastroenterology guideline?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The ACG GERD guideline (Katz et al., 2022) suggests avoiding meals within 2–3 hours of bedtime and raising the head of the bed for nighttime symptoms, and recommends weight loss for patients with overweight or obesity. A, B, and D each pair a full stomach or a flat position, which makes reflux easier. The same idea carries into the clinic: for a patient with reflux, schedule supine or head-down exercise away from meals.
Review next: symptoms that need medical review rather than reassurance, such as trouble swallowing, unplanned weight loss, or chest pain with exertion.
Source: ACP Gastroenterology summary of the ACG Clinical Guideline for the Diagnosis and Management of GERD
Question 43
A 54-year-old with type 2 diabetes has had right shoulder pain for 5 months. The pain was severe at night early on and has eased, but the shoulder is now very stiff. Active and passive external rotation are both markedly limited, followed by abduction and then internal rotation. Strength within the available range is normal, and radiographs are unremarkable. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Equal loss of active and passive motion, worst in external rotation and then abduction and internal rotation, is the frozen shoulder pattern. Diabetes is a known risk factor, and the course (a painful phase moving into a stiff phase) fits its typical stages. A rotator cuff tear (B) limits active motion while passive motion stays close to full. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis (C) would usually show joint changes on radiographs. Bursitis (D) makes movement painful but doesn't block passive motion in several planes.
Review next: the three phases of adhesive capsulitis and how treatment shifts from pain control to stretching as irritability falls.
Source: StatPearls, Adhesive Capsulitis
Question 44
A 58-year-old with stable, mild lymphedema of the right arm after breast cancer treatment wants to start lifting weights. Years ago she was told never to lift more than 5 pounds with that arm. Which response is BEST supported by evidence?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. In the Physical Activity and Lymphedema (PAL) trial (Schmitz et al., 2009), women with breast cancer-related lymphedema who did slowly progressive weight lifting had no more arm swelling than controls, plus fewer lymphedema flare-ups, fewer symptoms, and more strength. A and C apply an outdated blanket restriction and give up those benefits. D drops the slow progression, which is what the trial actually tested: start light, progress gradually, and watch the arm.
Review next: signs of a lymphedema flare (more swelling, heaviness, redness) and when to pause the program and reassess.
Question 45
A 41-year-old warehouse worker has had low back pain for 8 months. His neurological and red-flag screens are negative. He says an MRI showed "degenerated discs," believes his spine is "crumbling," and avoids bending because he's afraid it will cause damage. He scores high on a fear-avoidance questionnaire. Which plan BEST fits the current guideline?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. His pain is shaped by more than tissue: fear, beliefs about damage, and avoidance are psychological dimensions of pain that affect his prognosis and plan. The 2021 JOSPT low back pain guideline (George et al.) says PTs should deliver pain neuroscience education alongside other treatment, such as exercise, for chronic low back pain, and should favor active treatment over education given on its own (B). Rest and avoidance (A) feed the fear and add deconditioning. More imaging (C) doesn't change management here and can reinforce the idea that something is damaged.
Review next: what fear-avoidance questionnaires measure, and the difference between graded activity and graded exposure.
Question 46
A 60-year-old starting a walking program for general conditioning has a resting heart rate of 70 bpm and takes no medications that affect heart rate. Using the Karvonen method with an age-predicted maximum heart rate, what is his target heart rate at 60% intensity?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Age-predicted maximum = 220 − 60 = 160 bpm. Heart rate reserve = 160 − 70 = 90 bpm. Target = 70 + (0.60 × 90) = 124 bpm. A is 60% of maximum heart rate, a different and lower method. B is 60% of the reserve without adding resting heart rate back. D takes 60% of the maximum and then adds resting heart rate (96 + 70).
Review next: why age-predicted maximums are only estimates, and why ratings of perceived exertion replace heart-rate targets for patients on beta-blockers.
Question 47
While reviewing a handwritten paper note before signing it, a physical therapist notices she recorded the wrong knee flexion measurement. What is the correct way to fix it?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. APTA's documentation guidelines say charting errors are corrected by drawing a single line through the error and initialing and dating the chart, or, in an electronic record, through a method that shows a change was made without deleting the original. The original entry stays readable, which keeps the record honest and defensible. A, B, and C all hide or destroy the original entry.
Review next: what APTA's guidelines require for authenticating entries (ink, signature, and professional designation).
Source: APTA, Guidelines: Physical Therapy Documentation of Patient/Client Management (BOD G03-05-16-41)
Question 48
In a randomized trial comparing supervised exercise with usual care after hip fracture, 15% of the exercise group stopped attending sessions. The researchers analyze every participant in the group they were randomized to, including those who stopped. What is this approach called, and what does it protect?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Intention-to-treat analysis includes everyone who was randomized, in their original groups, whatever happened afterward. That keeps the groups comparable, which is the whole point of randomizing, and gives a cautious, real-world estimate of benefit. Per-protocol analysis (B) uses only participants who finished without major protocol deviations, and people who stick with a treatment often differ from those who don't, so it can overstate benefit. As-treated analysis (C) groups people by what they actually received, which breaks randomization rather than protecting it. Blinding (D) is a different safeguard.
Review next: how missing outcome data complicate intention-to-treat, and where it appears on the PEDro scale.
Source: Gupta SK. Intention-to-treat concept: a review. Perspect Clin Res. 2011;2(3):109–112
Scenario set 1: Questions 49–51
Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management
Question 49
Which term BEST describes her postural behavior?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Pusher syndrome has three features: the body tilts toward the paretic side, the nonparetic limbs push toward that side, and the patient resists passive correction. Karnath and Broetz (2003) tie it to an altered perception of body orientation relative to gravity, while perception of the visual vertical is largely preserved. Cerebellar ataxia (A) causes incoordination without active pushing. A visual field cut (D) doesn't explain active pushing and resistance.
Review next: the Scale for Contraversive Pushing and the typical recovery course (pushing is rarely still present at 6 months).
Source: Karnath HO, Broetz D. Understanding and treating "pusher syndrome." Phys Ther. 2003;83:1119–1125
Question 50
Case recap: Scenario set 1 (Questions 49–51)
Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management
Which intervention is MOST appropriate for her pushing?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Because visual vertical is intact, treatment built on Karnath and Broetz's approach uses visual feedback so she can see that she's tilted, then practices active movements to reach and hold upright, such as reaching toward the nonparetic side. Forcing her to midline (A) triggers more resistance. C tilts her farther toward the paretic side. Avoiding sitting (D) delays recovery.
Review next: why transfers toward the paretic side can be easier when pushing is severe.
Source: Karnath HO, Broetz D. Understanding and treating "pusher syndrome." Phys Ther. 2003;83:1119–1125
Question 51
Case recap: Scenario set 1 (Questions 49–51)
Setting: Inpatient rehabilitation facility
Sex: Female
Age: 74
Presenting problem/current condition: Right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 6 days ago with left hemiparesis
Other information: In sitting, she leans to the left and uses her right arm to push against the mat toward her left side. When the therapist tries to bring her trunk to midline, she resists. Her left shoulder has a palpable inferior subluxation and is painful with movement.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sitting balance, transfers, and upper-extremity management
Which intervention should be AVOIDED for her left shoulder?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The 2026 AHA/ASA Guideline for Adult Stroke Rehabilitation and Recovery says overhead pulley exercises should not be used to increase range of motion or reduce shoulder pain in people with stroke who have glenohumeral subluxation, shoulder weakness, or shoulder pain. The same guideline supports shoulder assessment (C) and patient and caregiver education (B), and positioning and support (A) are standard protection for a subluxed shoulder.
Review next: causes of hemiplegic shoulder pain and why arm support matters during transfers.
Scenario set 2: Questions 52–54
Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies
Question 52
While walking in the hallway on 2 L/min, his SpO2 is 90% and he reports moderate breathlessness. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. For patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, such as many with COPD, the British Thoracic Society guideline sets a target saturation of 88–92%, and his physician ordered that range. 90% is on target. Pushing saturation higher (B) risks CO2 retention and goes beyond the order. Breathlessness at an on-target saturation doesn't require stopping (C). Removing ordered oxygen (D) isn't a PT decision.
Review next: why this population has a lower target than the 94–98% used for most acutely ill patients.
Source: O'Driscoll BR et al. BTS Guideline for oxygen use in adults: summary of recommendations. BMJ Open Respir Res. 2017
Question 53
Case recap: Scenario set 2 (Questions 52–54)
Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies
After 40 feet, his respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and he is breathing rapidly through his mouth. Which breathing strategy should the therapist teach FIRST?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Pursed-lip breathing creates back-pressure that helps keep airways open during exhalation, slows the respiratory rate, increases tidal volume, and reduces dyspnea, with the strongest evidence in moderate to severe COPD. Rapid shallow breathing (B) worsens air trapping. Breath-holding (A) and forceful exhalation (D) increase work of breathing and can promote airway collapse.
Review next: why diaphragmatic breathing has weaker evidence than pursed-lip breathing in COPD.
Source: Gosselink R. Breathing techniques in patients with COPD. Chron Respir Dis. 2004
Question 54
Case recap: Scenario set 2 (Questions 52–54)
Setting: Acute care hospital
Sex: Male
Age: 71
Presenting problem/current condition: Day 2 of hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Medical history: COPD, 45 pack-year smoking history
Other information: Oxygen 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Physician order: titrate oxygen to keep SpO2 88–92%. Dyspnea with walking.
Physical therapy plan of care: Gait training, activity tolerance, breathing strategies
He needs to rest. Which position is MOST likely to ease his dyspnea?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A forward-leaning position with the arms supported improves the length-tension relationship of the flattened diaphragm and lets the accessory muscles work more effectively by stabilizing the shoulder girdle. Gosselink's review of breathing techniques in COPD lists forward leaning among the techniques with supporting evidence. Supine (A) and prone (D) positions are usually poorly tolerated by breathless patients, and standing with the arms unsupported (C) loses the accessory-muscle advantage.
Review next: energy conservation and paced breathing during daily activities.
Source: Gosselink R. Breathing techniques in patients with COPD. Chron Respir Dis. 2004
Scenario set 3: Questions 55–57
Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training
Question 55
Which addition to her program is BEST supported by the APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline for improving quadriceps strength?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. The 2026 APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline says physical therapists should apply NMES to the quadriceps after TKA, beginning early after surgery and using the highest tolerable intensity, to improve quadriceps strength, gait performance, and other performance-based outcomes. Her quadriceps lag and weak voluntary contraction make that recommendation directly relevant. Sensory-level TENS (C) may be used for pain in some patients, but it is not the strengthening intervention asked for here. Ultrasound (A) and moist heat (D) do not address the quadriceps activation deficit.
Review next: why quadriceps weakness after TKA is partly an activation problem, not just muscle size.
Question 56
Case recap: Scenario set 3 (Questions 55–57)
Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training
A friend used a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine at home after her own knee replacement, and the patient asks whether she should rent one. What should the therapist tell her?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The 2026 APTA total knee arthroplasty guideline gives a strong recommendation not to use continuous passive motion (CPM) after a primary, uncomplicated TKA. Evidence still does not show meaningful clinical benefit from routine CPM, while active range of motion, progressive strengthening, gait, and functional training address the outcomes she needs. A, B, and D incorrectly treat CPM as a routine requirement.
Review next: the treatments with the strongest support in the same guideline: preoperative exercise, cryotherapy, and motor function training.
Question 57
Case recap: Scenario set 3 (Questions 55–57)
Setting: Outpatient orthopedic clinic
Sex: Female
Age: 67
Presenting problem/current condition: Primary, uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 days ago
Medical history: Knee osteoarthritis, hypertension
Other information: Walks with a front-wheeled walker. Knee flexion 85°, extension lacks 8°. 15° quadriceps lag on straight-leg raise, with a weak voluntary quadriceps contraction.
Physical therapy plan of care: Range of motion, quadriceps strengthening, gait training
At her next visit, 2 days later, the lower end of the incision is redder than before, warm, and draining cloudy fluid. Her temperature is 100.9°F (38.3°C), and her knee pain has increased both at rest and with activity. What should the therapist do?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Increasing redness, drainage from the wound, a fever over 100°F, and pain at rest and with activity are the warning signs of infection after knee replacement that AAOS lists, with the instruction to tell the surgeon immediately. An infection around the implant threatens the joint replacement, so speed matters. A and C treat symptoms and delay care. More aggressive motion (B) doesn't address the cause.
Review next: other early complications to screen for after joint replacement, including deep vein thrombosis and wound separation.
Scenario set 4: Questions 58–60
Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education
Question 58
Which test is MOST appropriate to assess protective sensation in his feet?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. A 10-g monofilament is one of the standard clinical tests for protective sensation and is used to identify feet at risk for ulceration and amputation. The 2026 American Diabetes Association standards recommend 10-g monofilament testing as part of the neurologic foot examination. For a comprehensive evaluation of loss of protective sensation, the monofilament should be paired with another neurologic assessment such as pinprick, temperature, reflexes, or vibration. Two-point discrimination on the fingertips (B) tests the wrong site and function. The ankle-brachial index (C) assesses arterial perfusion, and the Romberg test (D) is a balance/proprioception test rather than a foot protective-sensation test.
Review next: the other parts of a diabetic foot screen: vibration sense, skin and nail inspection, footwear, and pulses.
Question 59
Case recap: Scenario set 4 (Questions 58–60)
Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education
Which offloading approach should be the FIRST choice for his ulcer?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. The 2023 IWGDF offloading guideline strongly recommends a nonremovable knee-high offloading device as the first choice for a neuropathic plantar forefoot or midfoot ulcer, using either a total contact cast or a nonremovable knee-high walker depending on local resources. His ulcer shows no infection or poor blood flow that would change that choice. Removable devices (B) are the guideline's second choice; a device he can't take off protects the ulcer with every step. Ordinary shoes (A) don't relieve the pressure under the metatarsal head that keeps the ulcer open, and a heel-offloading shoe (D) unloads the wrong part of the foot.
Review next: how infection or ischemia changes offloading choices, and what to check when a total contact cast is applied.
Question 60
Case recap: Scenario set 4 (Questions 58–60)
Setting: Outpatient wound care clinic
Sex: Male
Age: 63
Presenting problem/current condition: Neuropathic ulcer under the right first metatarsal head, present for 5 weeks
Medical history: Type 2 diabetes for 18 years, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension
Other information: The ulcer is 1.5 cm across with a rim of callus. No signs of infection. Pedal pulses are palpable and the ankle-brachial index is within normal limits. He walks about 6,000 steps a day in ordinary sneakers.
Physical therapy plan of care: Sensory testing, offloading, exercise prescription, education
He wants to keep exercising for his diabetes while the ulcer heals. Which plan is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A consensus on exercise for people with diabetes at risk of foot ulcers (Gracia-Sánchez et al., 2023) advises that someone with an open ulcer shouldn't put pressure on it or do exercise that loads that area, and that stretching and strengthening be done sitting or lying down. Walking for exercise (A) and jogging (C) add the repeated plantar loading that offloading is meant to remove. Stopping all exercise (D) gives up the benefits for glucose control and fitness when safe options exist.
Review next: how the exercise plan changes once the ulcer has healed and he returns to weight-bearing activity.
Answer key and scoring by content area
Count your misses by content area as well as your total. Patterns across several misses can tell you what to review next; a small number of questions in one area is not a precise measure of your ability in that area.
| # | Answer | Content area | # | Answer | Content area |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | Musculoskeletal | 31 | A | Genitourinary |
| 2 | A | Neuromuscular | 32 | C | Research & EBP |
| 3 | B | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary | 33 | D | Musculoskeletal |
| 4 | D | Musculoskeletal | 34 | B | Neuromuscular |
| 5 | A | Integumentary | 35 | A | Equipment & Devices |
| 6 | C | Neuromuscular | 36 | C | Musculoskeletal |
| 7 | D | Musculoskeletal | 37 | D | System Interactions |
| 8 | B | Safety & Protection | 38 | B | Safety & Protection |
| 9 | C | Musculoskeletal | 39 | A | Musculoskeletal |
| 10 | A | Neuromuscular | 40 | D | Musculoskeletal |
| 11 | D | System Interactions | 41 | B | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary |
| 12 | B | Musculoskeletal | 42 | C | Gastrointestinal |
| 13 | A | Neuromuscular | 43 | A | Musculoskeletal |
| 14 | D | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary | 44 | B | Lymphatic |
| 15 | C | Musculoskeletal | 45 | D | System Interactions |
| 16 | B | Lymphatic | 46 | C | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary |
| 17 | D | Neuromuscular | 47 | D | Professional Responsibilities |
| 18 | B | Gastrointestinal | 48 | A | Research & EBP |
| 19 | A | Musculoskeletal | 49 | C | Neuromuscular (scenario) |
| 20 | C | Therapeutic Modalities | 50 | B | Neuromuscular (scenario) |
| 21 | D | Neuromuscular | 51 | D | Neuromuscular (scenario) |
| 22 | A | Musculoskeletal | 52 | A | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario) |
| 23 | A | Metabolic & Endocrine | 53 | C | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario) |
| 24 | C | Neuromuscular | 54 | B | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary (scenario) |
| 25 | B | Musculoskeletal | 55 | B | Therapeutic Modalities (scenario) |
| 26 | D | Cardiovascular & Pulmonary | 56 | C | Musculoskeletal (scenario) |
| 27 | A | Professional Responsibilities | 57 | D | Integumentary (scenario) |
| 28 | C | Musculoskeletal | 58 | A | Neuromuscular (scenario) |
| 29 | B | Neuromuscular | 59 | C | Equipment & Devices (scenario) |
| 30 | D | Integumentary | 60 | B | Metabolic & Endocrine (scenario) |
How the 60 questions are split
| Content area | Questions here | Official scored items (of 180) |
|---|---|---|
| Musculoskeletal | 16 | 44–54 |
| Neuromuscular & Nervous Systems | 13 | 39–48 |
| Cardiovascular & Pulmonary | 8 | 22–27 |
| Integumentary | 3 | 8–11 |
| System Interactions | 3 | 8–10 |
| Lymphatic | 2 | 4–7 |
| Metabolic & Endocrine | 2 | 4–6 |
| Gastrointestinal | 2 | 3–6 |
| Genitourinary | 1 | 2–5 |
| Safety & Protection | 2 | 5–7 |
| Equipment, Devices & Technologies | 2 | 5–6 |
| Therapeutic Modalities | 2 | 4–6 |
| Professional Responsibilities | 2 | 4–5 |
| Research & Evidence-Based Practice | 2 | 3–5 |
| Total | 60 | 180 |
Official ranges: FSBPT NPTE-PT Test Content Outline, effective January 2024. This 60-question set samples every published content area and emphasizes the three largest systems, but it is not an official mini-blueprint or a copy of any NPTE section.
What your score here means (and doesn't)
This is one original set of 60 questions, not a calibrated exam form, so a percentage here can't be converted to an NPTE scaled score. FSBPT scores the real exam on a 200–800 scale, with 600 needed to pass, and the number of correct answers needed for 600 shifts slightly from form to form. Use your results to find which areas cost you points, then study those first.
If you took it timed: 80 minutes for 60 questions is real exam pace (5 hours for 225 questions works out to 80 seconds per question). That's a pacing drill we worked out, not an official FSBPT section time. If you ran out of time, practice timed blocks before adding more content. If you finished early but missed a lot, slow down and read each stem fully.
After you score it: for each miss, decide whether you didn't know the fact, knew it but applied it wrong, misread the question, or rushed. Only the first problem is fixed by more reading.
How this test compares with the real NPTE-PT
| Feature | Real NPTE-PT | This practice test |
|---|---|---|
| Written by | Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) | Castleport Test Prep (independent) |
| Length | 225 questions in 5 sections of 45 | 60 questions |
| Scored items | 180; the other 45 are unscored pretest questions mixed in | All 60 have answers and explanations |
| Scenario questions | At the end of each section, 2–5 questions per scenario | Four scenario sets of 3 questions at the end |
| Time | 5 hours of testing time in one block (5 hours 30 minutes at the test center) | 80 minutes if you want to match pace |
| Scoring | 200–800 scale, 600 to pass, no penalty for wrong answers | Your count correct, by content area |
| Lab values | FSBPT generally doesn't give reference ranges for typical lab values | No lab reference ranges given either |
On test day, answer every question. FSBPT doesn't take points away for wrong answers.
Where these questions come from
The Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team wrote every question on this page from published clinical sources, and each explanation names the source it relies on. None of these questions is a real, recalled, or leaked NPTE or PEAT item, and none was copied from another prep company.
That matters more than it might seem. FSBPT warns that "free" NPTE questions found online may be copyrighted questions taken from prep courses, PEAT, or the NPTE itself, and that using compromised questions can put candidates at risk of being denied the exam or having a passing score invalidated. If a site says it offers "real exam questions," that's a reason to close the tab.
Free practice vs. the FSBPT demo vs. PEAT
| Feature | This page | FSBPT NPTE Demonstration Exam | FSBPT PEAT |
|---|---|---|---|
| Made by | Castleport Test Prep (independent) | FSBPT | FSBPT |
| Best for | Content review by area, with explanations | Learning the real test interface and tutorial | Full-length timed practice from the exam owner |
| What's included | 60 original questions, four scenario sets | 12 sample PT questions and one PT scenario with 3 questions; not scored, answers listed | Two timed 225-question PT exams: one practice form and one retired NPTE form |
| Cost | Free, no signup | Free | $99 plus a 1.6% processing fee |
| Access | Open on this page | Online, from FSBPT's website | 90 days from when you start your first exam, or until you pass |
Links: FSBPT NPTE Demonstration Exam · FSBPT PEAT · NPTE-PT Test Content Outline
FAQ
Is this an official NPTE practice exam? No. These are original questions written to FSBPT's published content outline. FSBPT's official practice exams are its PEAT forms.
How many questions are on the real NPTE-PT? 225, in 5 sections of 45. Of those, 180 are scored and 45 are unscored pretest questions. The PTA exam is a separate test with its own content outline, so use PT-level resources for the PT exam.
Why does this test have 60 questions instead of 45 or 225? Sixty questions is large enough to sample every content area FSBPT lists, including the smaller ones, while still fitting in one study session. It is not a scaled-down official form. For full-length official practice, use FSBPT's PEAT.
Can I retake this test? Yes. Wait a few days, keep the explanations closed, and check whether you now pick the right answer for the right reason, not just from memory of this page.
Sources
Last verified November 3, 2026: exam format, scoring, pretest items, lab-value policy, content outline item ranges, PEAT details, the FSBPT demo exam, and FSBPT's guidance on free online questions. Each question's source is linked in its explanation.
- FSBPT, NPTE-PT Test Content Outline, effective January 2024
- FSBPT, NPTE Content (225 questions, 45 pretest items, lab values)
- FSBPT Candidate Handbook, Understanding the NPTE and Preparing for the NPTE
- FSBPT, Practice Exam & Assessment Tool (PEAT)
- FSBPT, NPTE Demonstration Exam
- FSBPT, FAQs for Educators: "Why not use 'free' NPTE practice questions found on the Internet?"
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