Free PE Chemical Practice Test
These 80 original, unofficial questions match the NCEES PE Chemical exam’s 80-question count and cover all seven knowledge areas, in SI and U.S. units. Every question has a worked answer, a reason each wrong choice is wrong, and a source you can check.
Mass and energy balances (Questions 1–14)
Question 1 · CHE-01
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A1 Mass balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
Two ethanol–water streams are blended at steady state. Stream 1 is 100 kg/h at 40 wt% ethanol. Stream 2 is 300 kg/h at 10 wt% ethanol. Nothing reacts or accumulates. What is the ethanol mass fraction in the blended stream?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 17.5 wt%
At steady state with no reaction, ethanol in equals ethanol out.
Ethanol in = 100 × 0.40 + 300 × 0.10 = 40 + 30 = 70 kg/h
Total out = 100 + 300 = 400 kg/h
Mass fraction = 70 ÷ 400 = 17.5 wt%
Why not the others:
- A (32.5 wt%): Weights the fractions with the flows swapped (100 kg/h × 10% + 300 kg/h × 40%).
- B (25.0 wt%): A simple average of 40% and 10%. It ignores that Stream 2 is three times larger.
- C (23.3 wt%): Divides the 70 kg/h of ethanol by the 300 kg/h stream instead of the 400 kg/h total.
If you missed it: Write a component balance before you average anything. Fractions never add; masses do.
Source: Fogler, Elements of Chemical Reaction Engineering, 7th ed., companion site, Chapter 1 summary, General Mole Balance (In − Out + Generation = Accumulation). With no generation and no accumulation, In = Out for each component.
Question 2 · CHE-02
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A1 Mass balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
A fresh feed of 1,000 kg/h of juice at 12 wt% solids is split. Part goes through an evaporator that concentrates it to 58 wt% solids by removing only water. The rest bypasses the evaporator and is blended back with the evaporator product. The blended product must be 42 wt% solids. What is the bypass flow rate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 99.4 kg/h
Overall solids balance (solids only leave in the product):
P = (1,000 × 0.12) ÷ 0.42 = 285.7 kg/h
Let B be the bypass flow, so the evaporator gets (1,000 − B). Solids are conserved through the evaporator, so its outlet mass is 0.12(1,000 − B) ÷ 0.58.
Mixing point: B + 0.12(1,000 − B) ÷ 0.58 = 285.7
B + 206.9 − 0.2069B = 285.7 → 0.7931B = 78.8 → B = 99.4 kg/h
Why not the others:
- B (285.7 kg/h): This is the product flow from the overall balance, not the bypass.
- C (347.8 kg/h): Applies the lever-rule fraction (0.58 − 0.42) ÷ (0.58 − 0.12) = 0.348 to the 1,000 kg/h feed. That fraction is the bypass share of the product (0.348 × 285.7 = 99.4 kg/h), not of the feed.
- D (714.3 kg/h): This is the water evaporated, 1,000 − 285.7.
If you missed it: Draw the box around the whole process first, then around the mixing point. The overall balance usually hands you one stream for free.
Source: Fogler companion site, Chapter 1 summary, General Mole Balance, applied here as a steady-state mass balance with no generation.
Question 3 · CHE-03
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A1 Mass balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
A flue-gas sample is 30 mol% CO₂ and 70 mol% N₂. Use molar masses of 44.01 g/mol for CO₂ and 28.01 g/mol for N₂. What is the CO₂ mass fraction?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 40.2 wt%
Take 1 mol of gas as the basis and convert each component to mass:
CO₂: 0.30 × 44.01 = 13.20 g; N₂: 0.70 × 28.01 = 19.61 g
Mass fraction CO₂ = 13.20 ÷ (13.20 + 19.61) = 40.2 wt%
CO₂ is heavier than N₂, so its mass fraction is higher than its mole fraction. That's a quick direction check.
Why not the others:
- A (21.4 wt%): Swaps the molar masses, pairing CO₂ with 28.01 and N₂ with 44.01.
- B (30.0 wt%): Reports the mole fraction unchanged.
- D (47.1 wt%): Divides the CO₂ mass (13.20 g) by N₂'s molar mass instead of by the total mass.
If you missed it: Pick a basis (1 mol or 100 mol), convert every component, then add. Never convert a fraction directly.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §3.1 Formula Mass and the Mole Concept, "The Mole" (mass = moles × molar mass).
Question 4 · CHE-04
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A1 Mass balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
A dryer receives 1,000 kg/h of wet solids containing 60 wt% water. The dried product leaves with 10 wt% water. No solids are lost. How much water does the dryer remove?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 555.6 kg/h
Dry solids are the tie component: 1,000 × 0.40 = 400 kg/h in, and the same 400 kg/h out.
Product = 400 ÷ 0.90 = 444.4 kg/h
Water removed = 1,000 − 444.4 = 555.6 kg/h
Why not the others:
- A (444.4 kg/h): The dried product flow, not the water removed.
- B (500.0 kg/h): Subtracts the percentages (60% − 10% = 50%) and applies that to the feed. Percentages on different total flows can't be subtracted.
- D (666.7 kg/h): Divides the solids by 0.60, which mixes up the water and solids fractions.
If you missed it: Find the component that passes through unchanged (here, dry solids) and use it to link the inlet and outlet totals.
Source: Fogler companion site, Chapter 1 summary, General Mole Balance (In − Out + Generation = Accumulation), applied as a steady-state mass balance with no generation.
Question 5 · CHE-05
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A2 Mass balances with reaction · Multiple choice
Methane burns completely to CO₂ and H₂O with 20% excess air. Take air as 21 mol% O₂ and 79 mol% N₂. What is the O₂ mole fraction in the flue gas on a dry basis?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 3.8%
Basis: 1 mol CH₄. CH₄ + 2 O₂ → CO₂ + 2 H₂O, so the theoretical O₂ is 2 mol.
O₂ supplied = 2 × 1.20 = 2.40 mol; N₂ supplied = 2.40 × 79/21 = 9.03 mol
Flue gas: CO₂ 1, H₂O 2, O₂ 0.40, N₂ 9.03 mol
Dry basis drops the water: total = 1 + 0.40 + 9.03 = 10.43 mol
y(O₂) = 0.40 ÷ 10.43 = 3.8%
Why not the others:
- A (3.2%): The wet-basis fraction, 0.40 ÷ 12.43. The question asks for dry basis.
- C (4.5%): Counts only the N₂ that came with the theoretical O₂ (7.52 mol) and forgets the N₂ carried in with the excess air.
- D (20.0%): The percent excess air, not a flue-gas composition.
If you missed it: Every mole of excess O₂ drags 3.76 mol of N₂ with it. And always check whether the analysis is wet or dry.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §4.4 Reaction Yields, "Limiting Reactant" (excess reactant left after the limiting reactant is consumed). Air composition is a stated input.
Question 6 · CHE-06
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A2 Mass balances with reaction · Multiple choice
A fresh feed of 100 mol/h is 99 mol% A and 1 mol% inert I. It joins a recycle stream and enters a reactor where A → B. A separator removes all B as product. Unreacted A and all the I are recycled, and a purge is taken from the recycle so that the recycle stays at 8 mol% I. What is the overall conversion of A?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 88.4%
At steady state, the inert can leave only in the purge:
Purge = 1 mol/h I ÷ 0.08 = 12.5 mol/h
A lost in the purge = 0.92 × 12.5 = 11.5 mol/h
Overall conversion = (99 − 11.5) ÷ 99 = 88.4%
Why not the others:
- A (87.5%): Computes 1 − 12.5/100, mixing the purge total with fresh-feed A.
- C (92.0%): Uses the A fraction in the recycle as if it were the conversion.
- D (98.9%): Assumes only the inert is purged, so almost no A is lost.
If you missed it: For purge problems, balance the inert first. It has one exit, so it sets the purge rate.
Source: Fogler companion site, Chapter 1 summary, General Mole Balance; overall conversion is computed from the overall balance around the whole process.
Question 7 · CHE-07
Mass/Energy Balances · 1A2 Mass balances with reaction · Multiple choice
Ammonia is oxidized by 4 NH₃ + 5 O₂ → 4 NO + 6 H₂O. The reactor feed contains 100 mol/h of NH₃ and 140 mol/h of O₂. What is the percent excess O₂?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 12.0%
O₂ needed to react all the NH₃: 100 × 5/4 = 125 mol/h. NH₃ is the limiting reactant.
Percent excess = (supplied − theoretical) ÷ theoretical = (140 − 125) ÷ 125 = 12.0%
Why not the others:
- A (10.7%): Divides the 15 mol/h excess by the 140 mol/h supplied instead of the 125 mol/h theoretical.
- C (25.0%): The stoichiometric ratio 5/4 = 1.25 read as an excess. It ignores the actual feed.
- D (40.0%): Compares O₂ to NH₃ mole for mole (140 vs. 100), ignoring the 5:4 stoichiometry.
If you missed it: Percent excess always divides by the theoretical requirement of the limiting reactant.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §4.4 Reaction Yields, "Limiting Reactant" (limiting and excess reactants).
Question 8 · CHE-08
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B1 Energy balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
A boiler feed of 1,000 kg/h of liquid water at 25°C leaves as saturated steam at 100°C and 1 atm. Use cp = 4.18 kJ/(kg·K) for the liquid and ΔHvap = 2,257 kJ/kg at 100°C. Ignore kinetic and potential energy. What heat input is required?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 714 kW
Two steps: heat the liquid, then boil it.
Sensible: 4.18 × (100 − 25) = 313.5 kJ/kg
Latent: 2,257 kJ/kg
Q = 1,000 kg/h × (313.5 + 2,257) kJ/kg ÷ 3,600 s/h = 714 kW
Why not the others:
- A (87.1 kW): Sensible heat only. It never boils the water.
- B (627 kW): Latent heat only. It skips heating from 25°C to 100°C.
- D (743 kW): Heats from 0°C instead of 25°C.
If you missed it: Sketch the heating curve and add one term per segment: liquid, phase change, vapor if any.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.1 Energy Basics, "Thermal Energy, Temperature, and Heat" (q = c × m × ΔT); DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, Thermodynamics, HT-01, First Law of Thermodynamics, Eq. 1-22 (steady-flow energy balance in enthalpy terms).
Question 9 · CHE-09
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B1 Energy balances with no reaction · Numeric entry
A heater warms 5,000 kg/h of a liquid (cp = 2.5 kJ/(kg·K)) from 20°C to 80°C. Heat comes from saturated steam that condenses and leaves as saturated liquid, releasing 2,100 kJ/kg. Neglect heat losses. What steam flow is required?
Enter a number in kg/h. Round to the nearest kg/h.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 357 kg/h (accepted range: 355 to 359 kg/h)
Duty on the process side: Q = 5,000 × 2.5 × (80 − 20) = 750,000 kJ/h
Steam condensed = 750,000 ÷ 2,100 = 357 kg/h
Common wrong answers:
- 476: Uses the outlet temperature (80°C) as the temperature change.
- 750,000: Stops at the heat duty in kJ/h and never converts to steam flow.
If you missed it: Write "heat lost by steam = heat gained by liquid," then solve for the unknown flow.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.1 (q = c × m × ΔT); DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, First Law, Eq. 1-22.
Question 10 · CHE-10
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B1 Energy balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
Two liquid streams are blended adiabatically at steady state. Stream 1 is 2.0 kg/s at 80°C with cp = 4.18 kJ/(kg·K). Stream 2 is 3.0 kg/s at 20°C with cp = 2.0 kJ/(kg·K). Assume constant heat capacities, no heat of mixing, and that the blend's enthalpy equals the sum of its parts. What is the blend temperature?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 54.9°C
Heat lost by Stream 1 = heat gained by Stream 2:
2.0 × 4.18 × (80 − T) = 3.0 × 2.0 × (T − 20)
668.8 − 8.36T = 6.0T − 120 → 14.36T = 788.8 → T = 54.9°C
The hot stream carries more heat capacity per second (8.36 vs. 6.0 kW/K), so the blend lands closer to its temperature.
Why not the others:
- A (44.0°C): Weights by mass flow only and ignores the different heat capacities.
- B (50.0°C): A simple average of the two temperatures.
- D (60.6°C): Weights by heat capacity only and ignores the flow rates.
If you missed it: The weighting factor in a mixing energy balance is ṁ·cp, not ṁ alone.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.1 Energy Basics, "Thermal Energy, Temperature, and Heat" (q = c × m × ΔT; heat lost by one substance equals heat gained by the other).
Question 11 · CHE-11
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B1 Energy balances with no reaction · Multiple choice
Saturated steam at 1 atm (h = 2,676 kJ/kg) is injected directly into 1,000 kg/h of water at 20°C (h = 83.9 kJ/kg). The mixed liquid leaves at 60°C (h = 251.1 kJ/kg). Neglect heat losses. How much steam is needed?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 69.0 kg/h
Energy in = energy out, and the steam ends up as part of the 60°C liquid:
1,000 × 83.9 + m × 2,676 = (1,000 + m) × 251.1
m × (2,676 − 251.1) = 1,000 × (251.1 − 83.9)
m = 167,200 ÷ 2,424.9 = 69.0 kg/h
Why not the others:
- A (62.5 kg/h): Divides by the steam enthalpy alone, as if the condensed steam left at 0 kJ/kg rather than at 60°C.
- C (74.1 kg/h): Credits the steam with only its latent heat (2,257 kJ/kg) and forgets that the condensate then cools from 100°C to 60°C.
- D (167.2 kg/h): The water's enthalpy gain in kJ/kg times 1,000, read as a steam flow.
If you missed it: With tabulated enthalpies, write in = out for every stream at its own state. Don't split it into latent and sensible pieces unless you must.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, Thermodynamics, HT-01, First Law of Thermodynamics, Eq. 1-22 (steady-flow energy balance in enthalpy terms). Enthalpies are supplied as inputs.
Question 12 · CHE-12
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B2 Energy balances with reaction · Multiple choice
A shift reactor runs isothermally at 25°C and fully converts 400 kmol/h of CO by CO(g) + H₂O(g) → CO₂(g) + H₂(g). Standard heats of formation: CO(g) −110.5, H₂O(g) −241.8, CO₂(g) −393.5 kJ/mol (H₂ is zero). What heat transfer is needed to hold 25°C?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Remove about 4.58 MW
ΔH°rxn = Σ ΔH°f(products) − Σ ΔH°f(reactants) = (−393.5 + 0) − (−110.5 − 241.8) = −41.2 kJ/mol
The reaction is exothermic. Heat released = 41.2 kJ/mol × 400,000 mol/h ÷ 3,600 s/h = 4,578 kW, so about 4.58 MW must be removed.
Why not the others:
- B (Add about 4.58 MW): Right magnitude, wrong sign. A negative ΔH means heat is released.
- C (Add about 0.31 MW): Uses liquid water's heat of formation (−285.8 kJ/mol). The stem says H₂O(g).
- D (Remove about 43.7 MW): Uses only the CO₂ heat of formation and never subtracts the reactants.
If you missed it: Check the phase of every species in the equation before you pull a heat of formation.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.3 Enthalpy, "Standard Enthalpy of Formation" and "Hess's Law."
Question 13 · CHE-13
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B2 Energy balances with reaction · Multiple choice
CO and H₂O(g) enter a reactor at 25°C in a 1:1 ratio, and CO converts completely by CO + H₂O → CO₂ + H₂ (ΔH°rxn = −41.2 kJ/mol at 25°C). The products leave at 400°C. Use average heat capacities from 25°C to 400°C of 45.0 J/(mol·K) for CO₂ and 29.5 J/(mol·K) for H₂. Per mole of CO fed, what heat transfer is required?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Remove 13.3 kJ
Choose a path: react at 25°C, then heat the products to 400°C. Enthalpy is a state function, so any path gives the same total.
React at 25°C: −41.2 kJ
Heat products: (45.0 + 29.5) × (400 − 25) = 27,940 J = +27.9 kJ
Q = −41.2 + 27.9 = −13.3 kJ, so 13.3 kJ must be removed per mole of CO
Why not the others:
- B (Remove 41.2 kJ): Uses only the heat of reaction, as if the products left at 25°C.
- C (Add 27.9 kJ): Counts only the sensible heat of the products.
- D (Remove 69.1 kJ): Subtracts the sensible heat instead of adding it. Heating the products absorbs part of the heat released.
If you missed it: Draw the path (reactants at T₁ → react at reference → products to T₂) and give each leg its own sign.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.3 Enthalpy, "Hess's Law" (enthalpy change of a total process equals the sum of the steps); §5.1 (q = c × m × ΔT, used here per mole).
Question 14 · CHE-14
Mass/Energy Balances · 1B2 Energy balances with reaction · Multiple choice
Methane burns completely: CH₄(g) + 2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2 H₂O(g). Standard heats of formation are CH₄(g) −74.6, CO₂(g) −393.5 and H₂O(g) −241.8 kJ/mol (O₂ is zero). How much heat is released per mole of CH₄ with the water leaving as vapor?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 802.5 kJ
ΔH°c = [−393.5 + 2(−241.8)] − [−74.6] = −877.1 + 74.6 = −802.5 kJ/mol
So 802.5 kJ is released per mole of methane with water vapor in the products.
Why not the others:
- A (560.7 kJ): Counts only one mole of water.
- C (877.1 kJ): Leaves out the methane's own heat of formation.
- D (890.5 kJ): Uses liquid water (−285.8 kJ/mol). The difference is the heat released when the water vapor condenses.
If you missed it: Multiply each heat of formation by its coefficient, and check the phase of the water.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.3 Enthalpy, "Standard Enthalpy of Formation" and "Hess's Law."
Thermodynamics (Questions 15–26)
Question 15 · CHE-15
Thermodynamics · 2A1 State functions · Multiple choice
Nitrogen flows at 100 kmol/h, 350 K and 5 bar (absolute). Treat it as an ideal gas with R = 8.314 J/(mol·K). What is the actual volumetric flow rate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 582 m³/h
V̇ = ṅRT ÷ P = (100,000 mol/h × 8.314 × 350) ÷ 500,000 Pa = 582 m³/h
Why not the others:
- A (58.2 m³/h): Uses 5 MPa instead of 5 bar (500 kPa).
- B (128 m³/h): Uses the temperature in °C (76.85) instead of kelvin.
- D (5,820 m³/h): Uses 50 kPa for 5 bar.
If you missed it: Convert to absolute T and P first: 1 bar = 100 kPa.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §9.2, "The Ideal Gas Law" (PV = nRT); DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, Ideal Gas Law, Eq. 1-43 (absolute P and T).
Question 16 · CHE-16
Thermodynamics · 2A1 State functions · Multiple choice
Methane flows at 100 kmol/h, 300 K and 50 bar (absolute). At these conditions its compressibility factor is Z = 0.90. What is the actual volumetric flow rate? Use R = 8.314 J/(mol·K).
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 44.9 m³/h
The compressibility factor corrects the ideal gas law: PV = ZnRT.
V̇ = ZṅRT ÷ P = 0.90 × 100,000 × 8.314 × 300 ÷ 5,000,000 = 44.9 m³/h
Z below 1 means the real gas takes up less volume than an ideal gas would at the same conditions.
Why not the others:
- B (49.9 m³/h): The ideal-gas volume; it ignores Z.
- C (55.4 m³/h): Divides by Z instead of multiplying.
- D (449 m³/h): Uses 5 bar instead of 50 bar.
If you missed it: Remember the meaning of Z: actual molar volume divided by ideal molar volume at the same T and P. Then the direction is obvious.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §9.6 Non-Ideal Gas Behavior (compressibility factor Z = PV_m/RT, the measured molar volume relative to the ideal molar volume).
Question 17 · CHE-17
Thermodynamics · 2A2 First and second laws of thermodynamics · Multiple choice
A vendor claims a heat engine takes in heat at 600 K, rejects heat at 300 K, and converts 55% of the heat input to work. What should you conclude?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Not possible, because the Carnot limit for these temperatures is 50%
No engine operating between two reservoirs can beat a reversible (Carnot) engine:
η_max = 1 − T_C/T_H = 1 − 300/600 = 50%
The claimed 55% exceeds that, so the claim violates the second law.
Why not the others:
- A: The first law allows anything up to 100%; the second law caps it lower.
- B: Converts the kelvin temperatures to °C. The Carnot equation needs absolute temperatures.
- C: There's no universal 33% cap. The limit depends on the reservoir temperatures.
If you missed it: For any cycle claim, compute the Carnot limit first. It takes ten seconds and catches impossible numbers.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, Second Law of Thermodynamics, Carnot efficiency η = 1 − T_C/T_H (Eq. 1-23), with absolute temperatures.
Question 18 · CHE-18
Thermodynamics · 2A3 Power cycles · Multiple choice
Steam enters a turbine at 10 kg/s with h = 3,230 kJ/kg. An isentropic expansion to the exhaust pressure would end at h = 2,520 kJ/kg. The turbine's isentropic efficiency is 82%. Ignore heat loss and kinetic energy changes. What is the actual power output?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 5.82 MW
Ideal work = 3,230 − 2,520 = 710 kJ/kg
Turbine efficiency = actual work ÷ ideal work, so actual work = 0.82 × 710 = 582.2 kJ/kg
Power = 10 kg/s × 582.2 kJ/kg = 5.82 MW
Why not the others:
- A (26.5 MW): Multiplies the flow by the actual exit enthalpy (2,647.8 kJ/kg) instead of by the enthalpy drop.
- B (8.66 MW): Divides by efficiency. That's the rule for pumps and compressors, which need more work than ideal.
- C (7.10 MW): The isentropic (ideal) power.
If you missed it: Ask whether the machine produces or consumes work. Producers deliver less than ideal; consumers need more.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, Second Law, Power Plant Components, Eqs. 1-26 and 1-27 (turbine efficiency); Eq. 1-34 (pump efficiency).
Question 19 · CHE-19
Thermodynamics · 2A3 Power cycles · Numeric entry
Air (treat as an ideal gas with k = 1.4) is compressed isentropically from 100 kPa and 300 K to 400 kPa. What is the outlet temperature?
Enter a number in K. Round to the nearest K.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 446 K (accepted range: 445 to 447 K)
For an isentropic process of an ideal gas, T₂/T₁ = (P₂/P₁)^[(k − 1)/k]:
T₂ = 300 × 4^(0.4/1.4) = 300 × 4^0.2857 = 300 × 1.486 = 446 K
Common wrong answers:
- 808: Uses the exponent 1/k instead of (k − 1)/k.
- 38,400: Uses the exponent k/(k − 1), which is the inverse relation (pressure ratio from temperature ratio).
If you missed it: The exponent on the pressure ratio is small, (k − 1)/k ≈ 0.29 for air. If the answer more than doubles the temperature for a 4:1 ratio, the exponent is upside down.
Source: NASA Glenn Research Center, "Isentropic Flow Equations", Eq. #4 (p/pt = (T/Tt)^[γ/(γ−1)]), rearranged for temperature.
Question 20 · CHE-20
Thermodynamics · 2B1 Reaction equilibria · Multiple choice
Pure A(g) is fed to a reactor where A(g) ⇌ 2 B(g) reaches equilibrium at 2.0 bar total pressure. At this temperature Kp = 0.50 (pressures in bar). Treat the gases as ideal. What fraction of A is converted at equilibrium?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 24.3%
Basis 1 mol A, extent ξ: A = 1 − ξ, B = 2ξ, total = 1 + ξ.
Kp = (y_B P)² ÷ (y_A P) = 4ξ²P ÷ [(1 − ξ)(1 + ξ)] = 4ξ²P ÷ (1 − ξ²)
With P = 2: 8ξ² = 0.5(1 − ξ²) → 8.5ξ² = 0.5 → ξ = 0.243, or 24.3% conversion
Why not the others:
- A (11.1%): Drops the square on the B term.
- B (22.1%): Forgets that total moles grow to 1 + ξ.
- D (33.3%): Uses 1 bar instead of 2 bar. Because moles increase, higher pressure pushes conversion down.
If you missed it: Build an extent table (start, change, end, mole fraction) before writing K.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §13.2 Equilibrium Constants, Qp and Kp for gas-phase reactions; Kp expression confirmed on the LibreTexts mirror of §13.2.
Question 21 · CHE-21
Thermodynamics · 2B1 Reaction equilibria · Multiple choice
For N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2 NO₂(g), Kp = 0.15 (pressures in bar) at the operating temperature. A vessel at that temperature currently holds N₂O₄ at 1.0 bar and NO₂ at 0.50 bar. Which way will the reaction proceed?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Reverse, making more N₂O₄
Compute the reaction quotient with the current partial pressures:
Qp = (P_NO₂)² ÷ P_N₂O₄ = 0.50² ÷ 1.0 = 0.25
Qp (0.25) > Kp (0.15): there are too many products, so the reaction runs in reverse until Q falls to K.
Why not the others:
- B: Forward would make Q even larger.
- C: Equilibrium requires Q = K.
- D: The partial pressures are all Q needs.
If you missed it: Q < K, go forward. Q > K, go back. Q = K, stay.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §13.2 Equilibrium Constants (Qp for gases; Q < K shifts forward, Q > K shifts reverse).
Question 22 · CHE-22
Thermodynamics · 2B2 Temperature and pressure dependence · Select two
Ammonia synthesis, N₂(g) + 3 H₂(g) ⇌ 2 NH₃(g), is exothermic. Select the two changes that increase the equilibrium mole fraction of NH₃.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A and D
A: Four moles of gas become two. Compression shifts equilibrium toward fewer gas moles, toward NH₃.
D: For an exothermic reaction, lowering temperature raises K, favoring products.
Why not the others:
- B: Higher temperature lowers K for an exothermic reaction.
- C: A catalyst speeds the approach to equilibrium without changing the equilibrium constant.
- E: Expansion lowers pressure and shifts toward more gas moles, away from NH₃.
If you missed it: Separate "where equilibrium lies" (K, composition) from "how fast you get there" (rate, catalyst).
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §13.3 Shifting Equilibria: Le Châtelier's Principle, "Effect of Pressure/Volume Changes," "Effect of a Change in Temperature," and "Effect of a Catalyst."
Question 23 · CHE-23
Thermodynamics · 2C1 Ideal systems · Multiple choice
A benzene–toluene liquid with 40 mol% benzene is at its bubble point at 90°C. At 90°C, the vapor pressures are 136 kPa for benzene and 54 kPa for toluene. Assume Raoult's law and an ideal vapor. What is the benzene mole fraction in the first bubble of vapor?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 0.627
Partial pressures: benzene = 0.40 × 136 = 54.4 kPa; toluene = 0.60 × 54 = 32.4 kPa
Bubble-point pressure = 54.4 + 32.4 = 86.8 kPa
y(benzene) = 54.4 ÷ 86.8 = 0.627
The vapor is richer in the more volatile component, which is why distillation works.
Why not the others:
- A (0.373): The toluene fraction in the vapor.
- B (0.400): The liquid composition. Vapor and liquid differ at equilibrium.
- D (0.716): Ratios the pure vapor pressures (136 ÷ 190) and ignores the liquid composition.
If you missed it: Raoult's law gives each partial pressure; Dalton's law turns partial pressures into vapor mole fractions.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §11.4 Colligative Properties, "Vapor Pressure Lowering" (P_A = X_A P°_A) and "Distillation of Solutions"; §9.3, "The Pressure of a Mixture of Gases: Dalton's Law" (P_A = X_A P_total).
Question 24 · CHE-24
Thermodynamics · 2C1 Ideal systems · Multiple choice
A liquid boils normally (1 atm) at 351 K, and its heat of vaporization is 38.6 kJ/mol. Assume ΔHvap is constant over the range. Using the Clausius–Clapeyron equation, what is its vapor pressure at 330 K?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 0.431 atm
ln(P₂/P₁) = (ΔHvap/R)(1/T₁ − 1/T₂)
= (38,600 ÷ 8.314) × (1/351 − 1/330) = 4,643 × (−1.813 × 10⁻⁴) = −0.842
P₂ = 1 atm × e^(−0.842) = 0.431 atm
Below the boiling point, the vapor pressure must be below 1 atm, which is a quick sanity check.
Why not the others:
- A (0.144 atm): Takes 10 to the power −0.842 instead of e.
- C (0.999 atm): Leaves ΔHvap in kJ/mol while R is in J/(mol·K).
- D (2.32 atm): Flips the sign of the temperature term. Above 1 atm is impossible below the normal boiling point.
If you missed it: Check units on ΔH and R together, and check the direction of the answer before you calculate.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §10.3 Phase Transitions, "Boiling Points" (two-point Clausius–Clapeyron equation).
Question 25 · CHE-25
Thermodynamics · 2C1 Ideal systems · Multiple choice
At 25°C, the Henry's law constant for O₂ in water is 1.3 × 10⁻³ mol/(L·atm). Water is in equilibrium with air at 1.00 atm total pressure (21 mol% O₂). What is the dissolved O₂ concentration? Use 32.0 g/mol for O₂.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 8.7 mg/L
Henry's law uses the gas's partial pressure: P_O₂ = 0.21 × 1.00 = 0.21 atm.
C = kP = 1.3 × 10⁻³ × 0.21 = 2.73 × 10⁻⁴ mol/L
× 32.0 g/mol = 8.7 × 10⁻³ g/L = 8.7 mg/L
Why not the others:
- A (0.27 mg/L): Reports 0.273 mmol/L as if it were mg/L.
- B (7.6 mg/L): Uses N₂'s molar mass (28.0 g/mol) by mistake.
- D (41.6 mg/L): Uses the total pressure, as if the water were exposed to pure O₂.
If you missed it: In Henry's law, P is always the partial pressure of the dissolving gas.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §11.3 Solubility, "Solutions of Gases in Liquids" (C_g = kP_g). The constant is supplied as an input.
Question 26 · CHE-26
Thermodynamics · 2C3 Phase equilibrium applications · Multiple choice
A vapor of 50 mol% benzene and 50 mol% toluene is cooled at 90°C until the first drop of liquid forms (its dew point). At 90°C, the vapor pressures are 136 kPa (benzene) and 54 kPa (toluene). Assume Raoult's law and an ideal vapor. What is the benzene mole fraction in that first drop?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 0.284
At the dew point, the liquid mole fractions must sum to 1, with x_i = y_i P ÷ P_i*:
1/P = y_B/P_B + y_T/P_T = 0.5/136 + 0.5/54 → P = 77.3 kPa
x_B = 0.5 × 77.3 ÷ 136 = 0.284
The first liquid is rich in the heavier component, toluene, the mirror image of the bubble point.
Why not the others:
- B (0.358): Ratios the pure vapor pressures with equal weights (0.5 × 136 ÷ 190). It never finds the dew-point pressure.
- C (0.500): Assumes the liquid matches the vapor. At equilibrium they differ.
- D (0.716): The toluene fraction in the drop.
If you missed it: Bubble point: sum of y = 1. Dew point: sum of x = 1. Write whichever sum the question fixes.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §11.4 Colligative Properties, "Vapor Pressure Lowering" (Raoult's law); §9.3, "Dalton's Law." The dew-point relation is derived from the two laws.
Heat transfer (Questions 27–36)
Question 27 · CHE-27
Heat Transfer · 3A1 Heat transfer with no phase change · Multiple choice
A furnace wall has 0.20 m of firebrick (k = 1.2 W/(m·K)) inside 0.10 m of insulating brick (k = 0.15 W/(m·K)). The inner surface is at 900°C and the outer surface at 60°C. Assume steady, one-dimensional conduction with perfect contact between layers. What is the heat flux through the wall?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 1,008 W/m²
The layers are thermal resistances in series:
R = 0.20/1.2 + 0.10/0.15 = 0.167 + 0.667 = 0.833 m²·K/W
q = ΔT ÷ R = (900 − 60) ÷ 0.833 = 1,008 W/m²
The firebrick–insulation interface sits at 900 − 1,008 × 0.167 = 732°C, a check worth making when the insulation has a temperature limit.
Why not the others:
- A (6,300 W/m²): Adds the layer conductances (k/Δx) as if the layers were in parallel.
- B (5,040 W/m²): Uses only the firebrick's resistance.
- C (1,260 W/m²): Uses only the insulating layer's resistance.
If you missed it: Layers the heat must pass through one after another add as resistances, not conductances.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, Heat Transfer, HT-02, Conduction Heat Transfer, "Equivalent Resistance Method" (Q̇ = ΔT/R_th, R_th = Δx/k, Eq. 2-6), p. 9; composite-wall example, p. 10.
Question 28 · CHE-28
Heat Transfer · 3A1 Heat transfer with no phase change · Multiple choice
A steam pipe has an outside radius of 0.05 m and is covered with insulation to an outside radius of 0.10 m. The insulation's thermal conductivity is 0.05 W/(m·K). The pipe surface is at 180°C and the outer insulation surface at 40°C. What is the heat loss per meter of pipe?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 63.5 W/m
For radial conduction through a cylinder:
Q/L = 2πk(T_i − T_o) ÷ ln(r_o/r_i) = 2π × 0.05 × 140 ÷ ln 2 = 43.98 ÷ 0.693 = 63.5 W/m
Why not the others:
- A (44.0 W/m): A plane-wall calculation using the inner surface area. The heat-flow area grows with radius, so a flat-wall formula is wrong here.
- C (88.0 W/m): The same plane-wall error using the outer surface area.
- D (146 W/m): Uses log₁₀ 2 instead of ln 2.
If you missed it: When insulation thickness is comparable to the pipe radius, use the log form. The plane-wall formula only works for thin layers.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, Heat Transfer, HT-02, Conduction—Cylindrical Coordinates, Q̇ = 2πkL(ΔT)/ln(r_o/r_i), Eq. 2-8, p. 13.
Question 29 · CHE-29
Heat Transfer · 3A1 Heat transfer with no phase change · Multiple choice
The outside wall of an uninsulated tank has 30 m² of surface at 60°C. Surrounding air is at 20°C, and the convective coefficient is 8 W/(m²·K). Ignore radiation. What is the convective heat loss?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 9.6 kW
Q = hAΔT = 8 × 30 × (60 − 20) = 9,600 W = 9.6 kW
A real heat-loss check would add radiation too; the question leaves it out to isolate convection.
Why not the others:
- A (0.32 kW): Leaves out the area.
- C (14.4 kW): Uses the surface temperature (60) as the temperature difference.
- D (80.0 kW): Uses the surface temperature in kelvin (333 K) as the difference. Convection uses a temperature difference, in which °C and K steps are equal.
If you missed it: Convection and conduction use temperature differences; radiation uses absolute temperatures to the fourth power.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Convection Heat Transfer, Q̇ = hAΔT, Eq. 2-9, p. 19.
Question 30 · CHE-30
Heat Transfer · 3A1 Heat transfer with no phase change · Multiple choice
A 1.0 m² surface at 500 K faces large surroundings at 300 K. Treat both as black bodies. Use σ = 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W/(m²·K⁴). What is the net radiant heat loss from the surface?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 3,084 W
The surface emits σAT₁⁴ and absorbs σAT₂⁴ from its surroundings, so the net loss is:
Q = σA(T₁⁴ − T₂⁴) = 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ × 1.0 × (500⁴ − 300⁴) = 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ × 5.44 × 10¹⁰ = 3,084 W
Why not the others:
- A (90.7 W): Raises the temperature difference to the fourth power, (200)⁴.
- B (151 W): Uses °C instead of kelvin.
- D (3,544 W): Total emission at 500 K. It ignores radiation absorbed from the surroundings.
If you missed it: Radiation always uses absolute temperature, and the fourth power applies to each temperature, not the difference.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Radiant Heat Transfer, "Black Body Radiation" (Q̇ = σAT⁴, Eq. 2-12), p. 26. The net-exchange form for a black surface in black surroundings is derived from that law.
Question 31 · CHE-31
Heat Transfer · 3A2 Heat transfer with phase change · Multiple choice
A condenser condenses 2,000 kg/h of saturated solvent vapor to saturated liquid. The latent heat is 400 kJ/kg. Cooling water enters at 25°C and leaves at 35°C (cp = 4.18 kJ/(kg·K)). What cooling-water flow is needed?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 19,100 kg/h
Heat removed from the vapor: Q = 2,000 × 400 = 800,000 kJ/h. The solvent stays at its saturation temperature; only its phase changes.
Water flow = Q ÷ (cp ΔT) = 800,000 ÷ (4.18 × 10) = 19,100 kg/h
Why not the others:
- A (5,470 kg/h): Uses the outlet temperature (35) as ΔT.
- B (7,660 kg/h): Uses the inlet temperature (25) as ΔT.
- D (191,000 kg/h): Uses ΔT = 1 K, dropping the temperature rise altogether.
If you missed it: On a condenser, the condensing side's duty is latent heat; the coolant's duty is sensible heat. Set them equal.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.1 (q = c × m × ΔT); OpenStax §10.3 (heat of vaporization); DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, First Law, Eq. 1-22.
Question 32 · CHE-32
Heat Transfer · 3A2 Heat transfer with phase change · Matching
Heat flux to a boiling liquid is raised step by step. Match each boiling condition to its description. One description is not used.
- 1. Nucleate boiling
- 2. Partial film boiling
- 3. Film boiling
- 4. Departure from nucleate boiling (DNB)
Descriptions:
- a. Vapor bubbles form at the heated surface and break away into the liquid
- b. Bubbles merge and cover small areas of the surface with a vapor film
- c. A stable vapor blanket covers the surface
- d. The critical-heat-flux point where nucleate boiling departs toward transition/partial film boiling
- e. Liquid is heated with no vapor formation at all
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d
Nucleate boiling is the efficient regime: bubbles stir the liquid at the surface. As heat flux rises, bubbles can merge into patches of vapor film (partial film boiling), and at still higher surface temperature a stable vapor blanket forms (film boiling). Vapor conducts heat poorly, so the surface temperature can climb sharply as film coverage develops. Departure from nucleate boiling (DNB) occurs at the critical heat flux (CHF), where nucleate boiling breaks down and the surface moves into the transition/partial-film region.
Why not the others:
- e: Heating a liquid with no vapor formation is single-phase convection, not a boiling regime.
If you missed it: Picture the surface: bubbles leaving (nucleate), patches of film (partial film), then a full blanket (film). DNB/CHF is the limit where nucleate boiling breaks down—not a claim that stable film boiling appears instantaneously.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Boiling Heat Transfer summary (nucleate boiling, film boiling, DNB, and critical heat flux).
Question 33 · CHE-33
Heat Transfer · 3B1 Heat exchange equipment design · Numeric entry
A counterflow exchanger cools oil from 160°C to 60°C while heating water from 20°C to 50°C. The duty is 500 kW and the overall coefficient is U = 350 W/(m²·K). What heat-transfer area is required?
Enter a number in m². Round to one decimal place.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 20.6 m² (accepted range: 20.4 to 20.8 m²)
Counterflow end differences: ΔT₁ = 160 − 50 = 110 K; ΔT₂ = 60 − 20 = 40 K
LMTD = (110 − 40) ÷ ln(110/40) = 70 ÷ 1.012 = 69.2 K
A = Q ÷ (U × LMTD) = 500,000 ÷ (350 × 69.2) = 20.6 m²
Common wrong answers:
- 19.0: Uses the arithmetic mean, (110 + 40)/2 = 75 K, which overstates the driving force when the end differences are unequal.
- 29.0: Pairs the ends as if the flow were parallel (140 K and 10 K), giving an LMTD of 49.3 K.
If you missed it: Sketch both streams along the exchanger and label which ends face each other before computing ΔT₁ and ΔT₂.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Heat Transfer Terminology, "Log Mean Temperature Difference" (Eq. 2-2), p. 3; Heat Exchangers, Q̇ = U₀A₀ΔT_lm, pp. 37 and 39.
Question 34 · CHE-34
Heat Transfer · 3B1 Heat exchange equipment design · Multiple choice
An exchanger cools 4.0 kg/s of oil (cp = 2.2 kJ/(kg·K)) from 150°C to 90°C using 3.0 kg/s of water (cp = 4.18 kJ/(kg·K)) entering at 25°C. Neglect heat losses. What is the water outlet temperature?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 67.1°C
Duty from the oil side: Q = 4.0 × 2.2 × (150 − 90) = 528 kW
Water temperature rise = 528 ÷ (3.0 × 4.18) = 42.1 K
Outlet = 25 + 42.1 = 67.1°C
Why not the others:
- A (42.1°C): The temperature rise, never added to the 25°C inlet.
- B (56.6°C): Uses the oil's mass flow (4.0 kg/s) for the water.
- D (105.0°C): Uses the oil's heat capacity for the water.
If you missed it: Work one stream completely (duty), then the other. Keep each stream's own flow and cp together.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §5.1 (q = c × m × ΔT); DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92, HT-01, First Law, Eq. 1-22.
Question 35 · CHE-35
Heat Transfer · 3B2 Heat exchange equipment analysis · Multiple choice
A thin-walled steel tube has an inside film coefficient of 1,500 W/(m²·K), an outside film coefficient of 500 W/(m²·K), and a 2 mm wall with k = 50 W/(m·K). Treat the areas as equal. Which single change raises the overall coefficient U the most?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Double the outside film coefficient
1/U = 1/h_i + Δx/k + 1/h_o = 0.000667 + 0.000040 + 0.002000 = 0.002707 → U = 369 W/(m²·K)
The outside film is about three-quarters of the total resistance, so it controls.
| Change | New U, W/(m²·K) |
|---|---|
| Double h_o | 586 |
| Double h_i | 421 |
| Remove wall | 375 |
| Double k | 372 |
Why not the others:
- A: Helps, but the inside film was only about a quarter of the resistance.
- B and C: The wall is about 1.5% of the resistance, so even removing it barely moves U.
If you missed it: Before improving an exchanger, list each resistance and attack the largest one.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Convection Heat Transfer, overall coefficient for thin-walled tubes, U₀ = 1/(1/h₁ + Δr/k + 1/h₂), Eq. 2-11.
Question 36 · CHE-36
Heat Transfer · 3B2 Heat exchange equipment analysis · Multiple choice
A plant test on an exchanger with 25 m² of area measures a duty of 400 kW at a log mean temperature difference of 40 K. Its clean design coefficient was 550 W/(m²·K). Which statement fits the test data?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
Rearrange Q = UA·ΔT_lm:
U = 400,000 ÷ (25 × 40) = 400 W/(m²·K)
That's about 27% below the 550 W/(m²·K) clean value. Deposits on a heat-transfer surface act like an insulating layer, so a falling U over time is the classic sign of fouling.
Why not the others:
- B: The comparison that matters is with the clean value, and 400 is lower, not higher.
- C: Leaves the duty in kW instead of W.
- D: Leaves out the LMTD (400 ÷ 25).
If you missed it: For performance checks, back-calculate U from operating data and trend it against the clean or design value.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/2-92, HT-02, Heat Exchangers, Q̇ = U₀A₀ΔT_lm, pp. 37 and 39; deposits acting as an insulating blanket that reduces heat transfer, p. 50.
Chemical reaction engineering (Questions 37–43)
Question 37 · CHE-37
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4A1 Rate equation · Multiple choice
Initial-rate experiments for A + B → products give these results at constant temperature:
| Trial | [A], mol/L | [B], mol/L | Initial rate, mol/(L·s) |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 0.10 | 0.10 | 2.0 × 10⁻³ |
| 2 | 0.20 | 0.10 | 8.0 × 10⁻³ |
| 3 | 0.20 | 0.30 | 8.0 × 10⁻³ |
Which rate law fits the data?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. rate = k[A]²
For a rate law of the form rate = k[A]^m[B]^n:
- Trials 1 → 2: [A] doubles, [B] fixed, rate ×4. 2^m = 4, so m = 2.
- Trials 2 → 3: [B] triples, [A] fixed, rate unchanged. 3^n = 1, so n = 0.
Why not the others:
- A: Would double the rate when [A] doubles and triple it when [B] triples.
- C: Gets the A order right but wrongly includes B.
- D: First order in A would only double the rate.
If you missed it: Change one concentration at a time and ask: by what power of the concentration ratio did the rate change?
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §12.3 Rate Laws (rate law form and the method of initial rates). The orders are derived from the supplied data.
Question 38 · CHE-38
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4A1 Rate equation · Multiple choice
A rate constant doubles when the temperature rises from 300 K to 310 K. Using the Arrhenius equation, what is the activation energy?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 53.6 kJ/mol
ln(k₂/k₁) = (Ea/R)(1/T₁ − 1/T₂)
ln 2 = (Ea ÷ 8.314) × (1/300 − 1/310) = (Ea ÷ 8.314) × 1.075 × 10⁻⁴
Ea = 0.693 × 8.314 ÷ 1.075 × 10⁻⁴ = 53,600 J/mol = 53.6 kJ/mol
Why not the others:
- A (0.58 kJ/mol): Uses °C (27 and 37) instead of kelvin.
- B (6.45 kJ/mol): Leaves out R.
- C (23.3 kJ/mol): Uses log₁₀ 2 instead of ln 2.
If you missed it: Arrhenius is a natural-log, absolute-temperature equation. Both slips are easy to make under time pressure.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §12.5 Collision Theory, "Activation Energy and the Arrhenius Equation" (two-temperature form, written there as ln(k₁/k₂) = (Ea/R)(1/T₂ − 1/T₁), which is algebraically the same).
Question 39 · CHE-39
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4A2 Yield and selectivity · Multiple choice
A reactor is fed 100 mol/h of A. Two reactions occur: A → D (desired) and A → U (undesired). The outlet contains 20 mol/h A, 60 mol/h D and 20 mol/h U. Using overall yield defined as moles of D formed per mole of A reacted, what is the yield of D?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 0.75
A reacted = 100 − 20 = 80 mol/h
Yield = F_D ÷ (F_A0 − F_A) = 60 ÷ 80 = 0.75
Why not the others:
- A (0.60): Divides by A fed (100) instead of A reacted. Some texts call this a yield too, which is why reading the stated definition matters.
- C (0.80): The conversion of A.
- D (3.0): The overall selectivity of D to U (60 ÷ 20).
If you missed it: Write the definition from the question in symbols before plugging in. Yield and selectivity have several conventions.
Source: Fogler companion site, Chapter 8 summary, item 1, "Types of Multiple Reactions, Selectivity and Yield" (overall yield Ỹ_D = F_D/(F_A0 − F_A); overall selectivity S̃_D/U = F_D/F_U).
Question 40 · CHE-40
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4B1 Conversion in reactors · Multiple choice
A liquid-phase, first-order, irreversible reaction (k = 0.25 min⁻¹) runs isothermally at constant density. The feed is 2.0 m³/min, and the target conversion is 90%. What CSTR volume is required?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 72.0 m³
For a first-order CSTR: τk = X/(1 − X)
τ = 0.90 ÷ [0.25 × (1 − 0.90)] = 36.0 min
V = τ × v₀ = 36.0 × 2.0 = 72.0 m³
A plug-flow reactor would need only τ = ln(10)/0.25 = 9.2 min, or 18.4 m³. The CSTR runs entirely at the low outlet concentration, so it needs about four times the volume at 90% conversion.
Why not the others:
- A (7.2 m³): Uses τ = X/k, leaving out the (1 − X) term.
- B (18.4 m³): The PFR volume.
- C (36.0 m³): The space time in minutes, never multiplied by the flow rate.
If you missed it: Write the design equation for the reactor type named, solve for τ, then convert τ to volume.
Source: University of Michigan ChE 344, Lecture 6, "Isothermal reactor design" (CSTR: τk = X/(1−X); PFR: ln[1/(1−X)] = τk; τ = V/v₀).
Question 41 · CHE-41
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4B1 Conversion in reactors · Multiple choice
The reaction in Question 40 (first order, k = 0.25 min⁻¹, liquid phase, 2.0 m³/min) is run in two equal 36 m³ CSTRs in series instead of one 72 m³ CSTR. What is the conversion leaving the second tank?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 96.7%
Each tank: τ = 36 ÷ 2.0 = 18 min, so τk = 4.5.
For a first-order CSTR, the fraction of A remaining per tank is 1 ÷ (1 + τk) = 1/5.5.
After two tanks: (1/5.5)² = 0.033, so X = 96.7%
Splitting the same volume into two tanks in series beats one big tank (90%), because the first tank runs at a higher concentration of A, so it reacts faster.
Why not the others:
- A (99.99%): A 72 m³ plug-flow reactor (τk = 9), not two CSTRs.
- C (90.0%): The single 72 m³ CSTR from Question 40.
- D (81.8%): Stops after the first tank.
If you missed it: For CSTRs in series, apply the single-tank equation tank by tank; the outlet of one is the feed to the next.
Source: University of Michigan ChE 344, Lecture 6, "Isothermal reactor design" (first-order CSTR, X = τk/(1 + τk)), applied to each tank in turn.
Question 42 · CHE-42
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4B1 Conversion in reactors · Multiple choice
A first-order, constant-volume batch reaction has k = 0.12 h⁻¹. How long does it take to reach 80% conversion?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 13.4 h
The first-order integrated rate law: ln([A]₀/[A]) = kt. At 80% conversion, [A]₀/[A] = 5.
t = ln 5 ÷ 0.12 = 1.609 ÷ 0.12 = 13.4 h
Why not the others:
- A (5.8 h): Uses log₁₀ 5.
- B (6.7 h): Divides the conversion by k, as if the rate stayed at its initial value.
- D (33.3 h): Uses the CSTR design equation, X/[k(1 − X)].
If you missed it: A batch reactor follows the same time path as a plug-flow reactor: ln form, not the CSTR form.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §12.4 Integrated Rate Laws, "The Integrated Rate Law for First-Order Reactions" (ln([A]₀/[A]ₜ) = kt).
Question 43 · CHE-43
Chemical Reaction Engineering · 4B2 Heat effects in reactors · Numeric entry
An exothermic liquid-phase reaction runs in an adiabatic reactor with no shaft work. The feed is at 40°C, ΔH_rx = −60 kJ/mol of A (take ΔCp = 0), and ΣΘᵢCpᵢ = 400 J/(mol A·K). What is the outlet temperature at 80% conversion?
Enter a number in °C. Round to the nearest degree.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 160°C (accepted range: 159 to 161°C)
For an adiabatic reactor with ΔCp = 0:
T = T₀ + (−ΔH_rx)X ÷ ΣΘᵢCpᵢ = 40 + (60,000 × 0.80) ÷ 400 = 40 + 120 = 160°C
Common wrong answers:
- 190: Uses complete conversion instead of 80%.
- 120: Reports the temperature rise and forgets to add the feed temperature.
If you missed it: In an adiabatic reactor, temperature and conversion move together along a straight line. Know its slope and intercept.
Source: Fogler companion site, Chapter 11 summary, item 1, "Adiabatic CSTR, PFR, Batch, PBR," Eq. 1.B, valid when Ẇs = 0 and ΔCp = 0.
Fluids (Questions 44–54)
Question 44 · CHE-44
Fluids · 5A1 Mechanical-energy balance · Multiple choice
Oil (ρ = 870 kg/m³, μ = 87 cP) flows at 1.8 m/s in a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.10 m. What is the Reynolds number, and what flow regime does it indicate using the DOE handbook thresholds?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 1,800; laminar
87 cP = 0.087 Pa·s
Re = ρvD ÷ μ = 870 × 1.8 × 0.10 ÷ 0.087 = 1,800
The DOE handbook calls flow laminar below Re = 2,000, transitional from 2,000 to 3,500, and turbulent above 3,500. Other references draw these lines slightly differently, so use the thresholds your reference states.
Why not the others:
- A (180,000): Converts 87 cP to 0.00087 Pa·s, treating centipoise as if 1 cP were 10⁻⁵ Pa·s.
- B (18,000): Converts 87 cP to 0.0087 Pa·s, a factor-of-10 slip.
- C: 1,800 is below the 2,000 transition threshold.
If you missed it: Memorize 1 cP = 0.001 Pa·s. Viscosity conversions cause more Reynolds number errors than the formula does.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, Fluid Flow, HT-03, Laminar and Turbulent Flow, "Reynolds Number," Eq. 3-7, p. 19; regime thresholds, p. 20.
Question 45 · CHE-45
Fluids · 5A1 Mechanical-energy balance · Multiple choice
Water (ρ = 998 kg/m³) flows through a horizontal reducer from a 0.10 m diameter pipe to a 0.05 m diameter pipe. The velocity in the larger pipe is 1.5 m/s. Neglect friction. How much does the pressure drop across the reducer?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 16.8 kPa
Continuity: area scales with diameter squared, so halving the diameter quadruples the velocity: v₂ = 1.5 × 4 = 6.0 m/s.
Bernoulli, horizontal and frictionless: P₁ − P₂ = ρ(v₂² − v₁²)/2 = 998 × (36 − 2.25) ÷ 2 = 16.8 kPa
Why not the others:
- A (3.4 kPa): Scales velocity with diameter instead of diameter squared (v₂ = 3.0 m/s).
- C (18.0 kPa): Ignores the upstream velocity head.
- D (33.7 kPa): Drops the ½ in the kinetic-energy term.
If you missed it: Do continuity first (velocities), then Bernoulli (pressures).
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, Fluid Flow, HT-03, Continuity Equation, Eq. 3-5, p. 11; Simplified Bernoulli Equation, Eq. 3-11, p. 22.
Question 46 · CHE-46
Fluids · 5A1 Mechanical-energy balance · Multiple choice
A pump moves water (ρ = 998 kg/m³) from an open tank at atmospheric pressure to a vessel held at 200 kPa gauge. The vessel's liquid surface is 15 m above the tank's, and friction losses total 5 m. Velocity heads are negligible. What pump head is required?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 40.4 m
Extended Bernoulli between the two liquid surfaces: pump head = elevation gain + pressure-head gain + friction loss.
Pressure head = 200,000 ÷ (998 × 9.81) = 20.4 m
H_p = 15 + 20.4 + 5 = 40.4 m
Why not the others:
- A (20.0 m): Elevation plus friction only; ignores the vessel pressure.
- B (30.4 m): Subtracts friction instead of adding it.
- C (35.4 m): Leaves out friction.
If you missed it: List every term the pump must overcome (lift, pressure, friction, velocity) and add them in consistent units of head.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Extended Bernoulli, Eq. 3-12 (pump head and friction head), p. 25.
Question 47 · CHE-47
Fluids · 5A2 Incompressible flow · Multiple choice
Water (ρ = 998 kg/m³) flows at 2.0 m/s through 150 m of straight, horizontal pipe with a 0.10 m inside diameter. The Darcy friction factor is 0.020. Ignore fittings. What is the frictional pressure drop?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 59.9 kPa
h_f = f (L/D)(v²/2g) = 0.020 × (150/0.10) × (2.0² ÷ 19.62) = 6.12 m of water
ΔP = ρg h_f = 998 × 9.81 × 6.12 = 59.9 kPa
Why not the others:
- A (15.0 kPa): Divides the friction factor by 4, mixing up the Darcy and Fanning conventions.
- B (29.9 kPa): Uses v instead of v² (with v = 2.0, that halves the answer).
- D (240 kPa): Multiplies by 4, converting a Darcy factor as if it were Fanning.
If you missed it: Check which friction factor your chart or equation uses. Darcy = 4 × Fanning.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Head Loss, "Darcy's Equation" (H_f = f(L/D)(v²/2g), Eq. 3-14).
Question 48 · CHE-48
Fluids · 5A2 Incompressible flow · Multiple choice
Flow through a long pipe rises by 50%. Assume fully turbulent flow, so the Darcy friction factor stays essentially constant. By what factor does the frictional head loss change?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 2.25
With f, L and D fixed, Darcy's equation makes head loss proportional to velocity squared:
h_f ∝ v², and 1.5² = 2.25
That's why a "small" throughput increase can overload a pump: half again as much flow more than doubles the friction loss.
Why not the others:
- A (1.22): Uses √1.5, as if loss scaled with the square root of flow.
- B (1.50): Assumes loss is proportional to flow. In Darcy's equation it goes with velocity squared.
- D (3.38): Uses 1.5³, the power scaling of the pump laws, not friction loss.
If you missed it: Tie each relationship to its exponent: turbulent friction loss ∝ Q², pump power ∝ N³, orifice flow ∝ √ΔP.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Head Loss, Darcy's Equation, H_f = f(L/D)(v²/2g), Eq. 3-14.
Question 49 · CHE-49
Fluids · 5A3 Compressible flow · Multiple choice
An ideal gas with k = cp/cv = 1.30 flows from a vessel at 800 kPa absolute (stagnation) through a converging nozzle to a header at 350 kPa absolute. Assume isentropic flow to the throat. Which statement is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
Setting Mach = 1 in the isentropic pressure relation gives the critical pressure ratio:
P*/P₀ = [2/(k + 1)]^[k/(k − 1)] = (2/2.30)^(4.333) = 0.546
P = 0.546 × 800 = 437 kPa*
The header (350 kPa) is below 437 kPa, so the throat reaches Mach 1 and the flow chokes. Further lowering the header pressure can't increase the mass flow.
Why not the others:
- B: The pressure ratio 350/800 = 0.44 is below the critical ratio, so the flow is choked.
- C: A choked throat stays at P*, not at the downstream pressure. The remaining expansion happens after the throat.
- D: Uses 0.528, the critical ratio for k = 1.4. This gas has k = 1.30.
If you missed it: Compute P* from the gas's own k every time. The familiar 0.528 is for air-like gases only.
Source: NASA Glenn Research Center, "Isentropic Flow Equations", Eq. 6 (p/pt as a function of Mach number), and "Mass Flow Choking" (flow limited at Mach 1 at the throat). The critical ratio shown is Eq. 6 evaluated at M = 1.
Question 50 · CHE-50
Fluids · 5B1 Pumps, compressors, turbines, fans, and blowers · Multiple choice
A pump draws 60°C water (ρ = 983 kg/m³, vapor pressure 19.9 kPa) from an open tank at 101.3 kPa. The liquid surface is 2.0 m above the pump suction centerline, and suction-line friction loss is 0.8 m. Neglect velocity head at the tank. What is the net positive suction head available?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 9.6 m
NPSHa = (P_surface − P_vapor) ÷ ρg + static head − friction loss
= (101,300 − 19,900) ÷ (983 × 9.81) + 2.0 − 0.8 = 8.44 + 2.0 − 0.8 = 9.6 m
If the pump's required NPSH is lower than this with a margin, it shouldn't cavitate.
Why not the others:
- A (5.6 m): Treats the liquid level as below the pump (a suction lift).
- C (11.2 m): Adds the friction loss instead of subtracting it.
- D (11.7 m): Ignores the vapor pressure. At 60°C, that's a big mistake.
If you missed it: NPSH is the margin above boiling at the pump inlet. Anything that lowers inlet pressure or raises vapor pressure eats it.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Centrifugal Pumps, "Cavitation," p. 48, and "Net Positive Suction Head" (NPSH = P_suction − P_saturation, Eq. 3-19; keep available NPSH above required), p. 49.
Question 51 · CHE-51
Fluids · 5B1 Pumps, compressors, turbines, fans, and blowers · Numeric entry
A pump curve is H = 60 − 0.0020Q², and the system curve is H = 20 + 0.0030Q², with H in meters and Q in m³/h. What flow does the system operate at?
Enter a number in m³/h. Round to one decimal place.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 89.4 m³/h (accepted range: 89.0 to 89.8 m³/h)
The operating point is where the pump curve meets the system curve:
60 − 0.0020Q² = 20 + 0.0030Q² → 40 = 0.0050Q² → Q² = 8,000 → Q = 89.4 m³/h
The head there is 60 − 0.0020 × 8,000 = 44 m.
Common wrong answers:
- 109.5: Ignores the system's 20 m static head.
- 200.0: Subtracts the curve coefficients (0.0030 − 0.0020) instead of adding them.
If you missed it: Set the two curves equal and collect the Q² terms on one side.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Centrifugal Pumps, "System Characteristic Curve" and "System Operating Point" (operating point at the intersection of the pump and system curves), p. 52.
Question 52 · CHE-52
Fluids · 5B1 Pumps, compressors, turbines, fans, and blowers · Multiple choice
You have two identical centrifugal pumps. For a given flow through the pumps, which arrangement doubles the head the pumps develop?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Series, because the heads of pumps in series add at the same flow
In series, the same flow passes through both pumps, and their heads add. In parallel, each pump develops the same head and the flows add. So series is the choice for a high-head service; parallel is the choice for more flow.
Where the system actually operates still depends on the system curve.
Why not the others:
- A: Reverses the rule. In parallel, each pump produces the same head.
- B: In parallel, flows add, but a centrifugal pump's head falls, not rises, as flow increases.
- C: Only the series arrangement adds heads.
If you missed it: Series: add heads at the same flow. Parallel: add flows at the same head.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, "System Use of Multiple Centrifugal Pumps": Centrifugal Pumps in Parallel, p. 53; Centrifugal Pumps in Series, p. 54.
Question 53 · CHE-53
Fluids · 5B1 Pumps, compressors, turbines, fans, and blowers · Multiple choice
A centrifugal pump at 1,750 rpm delivers 100 m³/h at 40 m of head and draws 15 kW. A variable-speed drive slows it to 1,450 rpm. Using the pump laws, and assuming efficiency doesn't change, what power does it draw?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 8.5 kW
Power scales with speed cubed: P₂ = 15 × (1,450/1,750)³ = 15 × 0.569 = 8.5 kW
At the new speed, flow is 82.9 m³/h and head 27.5 m.
Why not the others:
- B (10.3 kW): Scales power with speed squared (that's head).
- C (12.4 kW): Scales power linearly (that's flow).
- D (26.4 kW): Inverts the speed ratio.
If you missed it: Remember the 1-2-3 pattern: flow ∝ N, head ∝ N², power ∝ N³.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Centrifugal Pumps, "Pump Laws," Eqs. 3-20 to 3-22, p. 49.
Question 54 · CHE-54
Fluids · 5B3 Flow measurement · Multiple choice
An orifice meter reads a differential pressure of 25 kPa at 100 m³/h. The differential pressure now reads 9 kPa. The fluid and orifice haven't changed. What is the flow?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 60.0 m³/h
For a head-type meter, flow is proportional to the square root of the differential pressure:
Q₂ = 100 × √(9/25) = 100 × 0.60 = 60.0 m³/h
Why not the others:
- A (13.0 m³/h): Squares the pressure ratio.
- B (36.0 m³/h): Treats flow as proportional to ΔP.
- D (167 m³/h): Inverts the ratio. Lower ΔP must mean lower flow.
If you missed it: A head meter's square-root response means poor resolution at low flow: a quarter of the ΔP is still half the flow.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1013/1-92, Instrumentation and Control, IC-04, Flow Detectors, "Head Flow Meters," p. 1 (square-root extraction) and Eq. 4-3 (V̇ = K√ΔP), p. 5.
Mass transfer (Questions 55–62)
Question 55 · CHE-55
Mass Transfer · 6A2 Staged separations · Multiple choice
At 90°C, the vapor pressures of benzene and toluene are 136 kPa and 54 kPa. Assuming an ideal solution (Raoult's law), what is the relative volatility of benzene to toluene?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 2.52
Relative volatility compares how readily the two components vaporize: α = (y_B/x_B) ÷ (y_T/x_T). With Raoult's law, y_i/x_i = P_i*/P, so P cancels:
α = P_B ÷ P_T = 136 ÷ 54 = 2.52
That's why benzene–toluene distillation is fairly easy: α well above 1. As α approaches 1, the number of stages needed climbs sharply.
Why not the others:
- A (0.40): The inverse, toluene relative to benzene.
- B (1.59): The square root of the ratio.
- D (82 kPa): The difference of the vapor pressures. Relative volatility is a dimensionless ratio.
If you missed it: α is always the more volatile component over the less volatile one, so it's greater than 1.
Source: NPTEL, Mass Transfer Operation I, Module 5, Lecture 1, §5.1.5 Relative volatility (definition, Eq. 5.3), p. 4; OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §11.4 (Raoult's law).
Question 56 · CHE-56
Mass Transfer · 6A2 Staged separations · Multiple choice
A binary column produces a distillate with 95 mol% light key and a bottoms with 5 mol% light key. The average relative volatility is 2.5. Using the Fenske equation, what value of N_min is calculated at total reflux?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 6.4
N_min = ln{[x_D/(1 − x_D)] × [(1 − x_B)/x_B]} ÷ ln α
= ln[(0.95/0.05) × (0.95/0.05)] ÷ ln 2.5 = ln 361 ÷ 0.916 = 6.4
That is the equation result for the minimum number of equilibrium stages. If a design problem asks for an integer physical stage count, apply the problem’s stage-count convention and round up as required; a total condenser is not normally counted as an equilibrium stage, while a reboiler may be.
Why not the others:
- A (2.8): Mixes log₁₀ in the numerator with ln in the denominator.
- B (3.2): Uses only the distillate ratio (19) and forgets the bottoms term.
- D (12.9): Double-counts by squaring the separation factor again.
If you missed it: The separation factor is the product of the top and bottom composition ratios. Keep the same log base in numerator and denominator, and distinguish the calculated N_min value from an integer equipment count.
Source: FAMU-FSU College of Engineering, "Distillation" lecture, slide p. 10 (Fenske equation, total reflux, equilibrium stages); NTNU separations exam solution, 2015, p. 2 (S = αᴺ, N_min = ln S / ln α).
Question 57 · CHE-57
Mass Transfer · 6A2 Staged separations · Matching
On a McCabe–Thiele diagram, the q-line passes through (z_F, z_F) with slope −q/(1 − q). Match each feed condition to its q-line. One description is not used.
- 1. Saturated liquid (at its bubble point)
- 2. Saturated vapor (at its dew point)
- 3. Partly vaporized feed
- 4. Subcooled liquid
Descriptions:
- a. Vertical line (q = 1)
- b. Horizontal line (q = 0)
- c. Negative slope (0 < q < 1)
- d. Positive slope (q > 1)
- e. Along the 45° diagonal
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d
q is the fraction of the feed that joins the liquid flowing down the column.
- Saturated liquid: q = 1, so the slope's denominator is zero and the line is vertical.
- Saturated vapor: q = 0, so the slope is zero: horizontal.
- Partly vaporized: 0 < q < 1, giving a negative slope.
- Subcooled liquid: q > 1 (the cold feed also condenses some vapor), giving a positive slope.
Why not the others:
- e: The 45° diagonal is where the operating lines lie at total reflux. It isn't a q-line.
If you missed it: Plug each q into −q/(1 − q) once and sketch the result. The four cases stick after one pass.
Source: NPTEL, Mass Transfer Operation I, Module 5, Lecture 4, Table 5.3 (q values by feed condition), p. 6; q-line slope, Eq. 5.28, pp. 8–9.
Question 58 · CHE-58
Mass Transfer · 6B1 Distillation · Multiple choice
A column is fed 100 kmol/h containing 40 mol% light key. The distillate is 95 mol% light key and the bottoms 5 mol%. What is the distillate flow?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 38.9 kmol/h
Total balance: F = D + B. Light-key balance: F·z_F = D·x_D + B·x_B.
Combining: D = F(z_F − x_B) ÷ (x_D − x_B) = 100 × (0.40 − 0.05) ÷ (0.95 − 0.05) = 38.9 kmol/h
Why not the others:
- A (61.1 kmol/h): The bottoms flow.
- B (42.1 kmol/h): Divides the light key fed by the distillate purity, ignoring what's lost in the bottoms.
- C (40.0 kmol/h): Assumes every mole of light key goes overhead as pure product.
If you missed it: Two unknowns (D and B) need two balances: total and one component.
Source: NPTEL, Mass Transfer Operation I, Module 5, Lecture 5, Solution 5.2, p. 10 (F = D + B and F·x_F = D·x_D + B·x_B).
Question 59 · CHE-59
Mass Transfer · 6B1 Distillation · Multiple choice
A binary column has saturated-liquid feed at z_F = 0.40 and a distillate of x_D = 0.95. Relative volatility is constant at 2.5, so the equilibrium curve is y = αx/[1 + (α − 1)x]. Assuming the pinch occurs where the q-line meets the equilibrium curve, what is the minimum reflux ratio?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 1.44
Saturated liquid gives a vertical q-line at x = 0.40. The pinch is on the equilibrium curve there:
y* = 2.5 × 0.40 ÷ (1 + 1.5 × 0.40) = 1.0 ÷ 1.6 = 0.625
At minimum reflux, the rectifying line runs from (0.95, 0.95) to (0.40, 0.625):
Slope = Rmin/(Rmin + 1) = (0.95 − 0.625) ÷ (0.95 − 0.40) = 0.591
Rmin = 0.591 ÷ (1 − 0.591) = 1.44
A real column runs at a reflux ratio above this minimum.
Why not the others:
- A (0.59): Reports the operating-line slope L/V, not the reflux ratio L/D.
- B (0.69): Inverts the reflux ratio (1/1.44).
- D (2.17): Multiplies Rmin by 1.5. That's an operating reflux above the minimum, not the minimum itself.
If you missed it: Locate the pinch first (q-line meets equilibrium curve), then read Rmin from the slope of the line through the distillate point.
Source: NPTEL, Mass Transfer Operation I, Module 5, Lecture 5, minimum reflux at the intersection of the q-line and the equilibrium curve, pp. 5–6; Lecture 1, Eq. 5.4 (x–y relation from relative volatility), p. 4.
Question 60 · CHE-60
Mass Transfer · 6B2 Gas-liquid operations · Multiple choice
A countercurrent absorber treats 100 kmol/h of gas containing 2 mol% solute and must recover 95% of it. The entering liquid is solute-free, and equilibrium is linear, y = 1.2x. Treat the system as dilute. What is the minimum liquid rate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 114 kmol/h
At minimum liquid flow, the operating line touches the equilibrium line at the rich (bottom) end, where the leaving liquid is in equilibrium with the entering gas:
x_out = y_in ÷ m = 0.02 ÷ 1.2 = 0.01667
Solute absorbed = 100 × 0.02 × 0.95 = 1.90 kmol/h
L_min = 1.90 ÷ 0.01667 = 114 kmol/h (that is, (L/G)_min = m × fractional recovery = 1.2 × 0.95)
Why not the others:
- B (120 kmol/h): Uses m alone, which corresponds to 100% recovery.
- C (126 kmol/h): Divides m by the recovery instead of multiplying.
- D (171 kmol/h): A typical design rate at 1.5 × minimum, not the minimum.
If you missed it: Find the pinch first. For absorption with linear equilibrium, it sits at the end where the gas enters.
Source: University at Buffalo CE 407, Lecture 03, slide 13 (minimum liquid flow when the operating line first contacts the equilibrium curve) and slide 2 (absorption factor). The result above is derived from that pinch condition with the stated dilute, linear assumptions.
Question 61 · CHE-61
Mass Transfer · 6B3 Other separations · Multiple choice
A solute is extracted from 100 L of water with an immiscible organic solvent. The distribution coefficient (organic concentration ÷ aqueous concentration) is K = 4, constant. You have 50 L of solvent. What fraction of the solute is extracted if you split the solvent into two successive 25 L extractions?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 75.0%
Fraction left in the water after one stage = V_aq ÷ (K V_org + V_aq)
Each 25 L stage: 100 ÷ (4 × 25 + 100) = 0.50
After two stages: 0.50² = 0.25 left, so 75.0% extracted
A single 50 L extraction leaves 100 ÷ (200 + 100) = 1/3, extracting only 66.7%. Same solvent, better result in two smaller portions.
Why not the others:
- A (66.7%): One 50 L extraction.
- C (80.0%): K/(K + 1), which assumes equal phase volumes in a single stage.
- D (88.9%): Uses two full 50 L stages, which is 100 L of solvent.
If you missed it: For a fixed amount of solvent, more smaller stages beat one large stage. Write the fraction remaining per stage and raise it to the number of stages.
Source: LibreTexts, Harvey, Analytical Chemistry 2.1, §7.7 Liquid–Liquid Extractions, Eqs. 7.6 (one extraction) and 7.7 (n extractions).
Question 62 · CHE-62
Mass Transfer · 6B3 Other separations · Multiple choice
A solution of 80 kg of a solute in 100 kg of water is fully dissolved at 80°C. It is cooled to 20°C, where the solubility is 30 kg of solute per 100 kg of water. The crystals are anhydrous, and no water evaporates. What mass of crystals forms?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 50.0 kg
At 20°C, the 100 kg of water can hold only 30 kg of solute in a saturated solution. The rest crystallizes:
Crystals = 80 − 30 = 50.0 kg
That's a 62.5% recovery of the solute. Evaporating some water or cooling further would push more out.
Why not the others:
- A (80.0 kg): Assumes all the solute crystallizes.
- C (37.1 kg): Reads the solubility as 30 kg per 100 kg of solution, not per 100 kg of water.
- D (30.0 kg): The solute that stays dissolved.
If you missed it: Check the solubility basis (per water or per solution) before you do anything else.
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, §11.3 Solubility (saturated solutions; solubility of solids varies with temperature). The crystal yield is a solute mass balance on the supplied data.
Plant design and operation (Questions 63–80)
Question 63 · CHE-63
Plant Design and Operation · 7A1 Hazards identification and management · Multiple choice
During an 8-hour shift, an operator is exposed to a vapor at 80 ppm for 3 hours, 40 ppm for 2 hours, and 0 ppm for 3 hours. The 8-hour TWA limit is 50 ppm. Using the OSHA cumulative-exposure formula, what is the result?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 40 ppm; below the limit
E = (C_a T_a + C_b T_b + …) ÷ 8 = (80 × 3 + 40 × 2 + 0 × 3) ÷ 8 = 320 ÷ 8 = 40 ppm
That's below 50 ppm. Short-term or ceiling limits, if the substance has them, are separate checks.
Why not the others:
- B: Computes correctly but misreads 40 versus 50.
- C (60 ppm): Averages 80 and 40 without weighting by time.
- D (64 ppm): Divides by the 5 exposed hours instead of 8.
If you missed it: The divisor is always 8 for an 8-hour TWA, even when part of the shift has zero exposure.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.1000(d)(1)(i) (cumulative exposure E = (C_aT_a + C_bT_b + … C_nT_n) ÷ 8, not to exceed the 8-hour TWA limit).
Question 64 · CHE-64
Plant Design and Operation · 7A1 Hazards identification and management · Multiple choice
An operator's 8-hour TWA exposures to three vapors with additive effects are: X at 200 ppm (limit 500 ppm), Y at 40 ppm (limit 100 ppm), and Z at 15 ppm (limit 50 ppm). Using OSHA's mixture formula, what is the result?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Equivalent exposure 1.1; the mixture limit is exceeded
E_m = C₁/L₁ + C₂/L₂ + C₃/L₃ = 200/500 + 40/100 + 15/50 = 0.40 + 0.40 + 0.30 = 1.1
The mixture value must not exceed 1, so this exposure is over the limit even though each vapor alone is under its own.
Why not the others:
- B (0.37): Averages the three ratios instead of adding them.
- C: Calculates correctly but misreads the criterion. The limit is 1.
- D: Checking each substance alone misses the combined effect the mixture formula exists to catch.
If you missed it: For mixtures, add the fractions of each limit. The sum must stay at or below 1.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.1000(d)(2)(i) (E_m = C₁/L₁ + C₂/L₂ + … + C_n/L_n; E_m shall not exceed 1).
Question 65 · CHE-65
Plant Design and Operation · 7A1 Hazards identification and management · Multiple choice
A LOPA scenario starts with failure of the tank's basic process control system (BPCS) level loop, at 0.1 per year. Three safeguards are proposed:
- A high-level alarm that uses the same BPCS transmitter as the failed loop, with operator response (claimed PFD 0.1)
- An independent safety instrumented function with its own level sensor (PFD 0.01)
- A dike sized to contain the overflow (PFD 0.01)
What mitigated consequence frequency should the analysis report?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 1 × 10⁻⁵ per year
An independent protection layer (IPL) must work independently of the initiating event. The alarm shares the transmitter whose failure may have started the scenario, so it can't be credited.
Mitigated consequence frequency = 0.1 × 0.01 × 0.01 = 1 × 10⁻⁵ per year
Why not the others:
- A (1 × 10⁻³): Credits only one of the two valid IPLs.
- C (1 × 10⁻⁶): Credits the alarm too, which breaks the independence requirement.
- D (0.12): Adds the PFDs to the initiating frequency. Probabilities of failure on demand multiply.
If you missed it: For each safeguard, ask: "If the initiating cause happened, would this still work?" If the answer depends on the same component, it isn't independent.
Source: AIChE/CCPS, LOPA overview (estimate the frequency of the mitigated consequence by combining initiating-event frequency with IPL PFDs; IPLs must be independent); see also HSE Research Report RR716 (2009), §3.5.3 (layers sharing components do not satisfy independence).
Question 66 · CHE-66
Plant Design and Operation · 7A2 Protective systems · Multiple choice
An oil storage facility subject to the federal SPCC rule has three bulk storage tanks of 20,000, 15,000 and 10,000 gallons inside one diked area. Under 40 CFR 112.8(c)(2), what must the dike's secondary containment hold?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
The rule requires secondary containment for the entire capacity of the largest single container, plus sufficient freeboard to contain precipitation. The dike must also be sufficiently impervious to contain discharged oil.
Why not the others:
- A: The rule is based on the largest single container, not the sum. (Designing for more is allowed; it isn't the minimum.)
- B: Averaging could leave the largest tank's contents uncontained.
- C: Leaves out the precipitation freeboard the rule requires.
If you missed it: For containment sizing, ask two questions: which single failure is credible, and what else (rain, firewater) will be in the dike at the same time?
Source: 40 CFR 112.8(c)(2), eCFR (secondary containment for bulk storage tank installations).
Question 67 · CHE-67
Plant Design and Operation · 7A2 Protective systems · Multiple choice
An LP-gas storage container built to the 1968 edition (Division 1) of the ASME code has a design pressure of 250 psig. Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.110, Table H-26, what range must its safety relief valve's start-to-discharge setting fall in?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 220 to 250 psig
For ASME containers built to the code editions in that row of Table H-26 (which includes the 1968 Division 1 edition), the start-to-discharge setting must be at least 88% and at most 100% of the container's design pressure:
0.88 × 250 = 220 psig; 1.00 × 250 = 250 psig
The table's maximum allows a plus tolerance of up to 10% of the set pressure marked on the valve. That tolerance doesn't move the setting itself above design pressure.
Why not the others:
- A: Uses 80% as the minimum. The table says 88%.
- C and D: Set the valve above design pressure. A relief device is set at or below the pressure the container is designed for, not above it.
If you missed it: Relief settings are anchored to the vessel's design pressure, and they sit at or below it.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.110(b)(10)(iv) and Table H-26 (container safety relief valve start-to-discharge settings as a percentage of design pressure; footnote on plus tolerance).
Question 68 · CHE-68
Plant Design and Operation · 7B1 Process design · Multiple choice
A debottlenecking project costs $2.0 million now and returns $550,000 per year in net cash flow at the end of each of the next 5 years, with no salvage value. The company uses a 12% annual discount rate. What is the net present value, and what does it say?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. About −$17,000; reject
Present value of a 5-year annuity at 12%:
P/A = [1 − 1/(1.12)⁵] ÷ 0.12 = 3.6048
PV of inflows = 550,000 × 3.6048 = $1,982,600
NPV = 1,982,600 − 2,000,000 = about −$17,000
A negative NPV means the project doesn't earn the 12% the company requires, so on this test it's rejected, even though it pays back the $2.0 million in nominal dollars.
Why not the others:
- B (+$750,000): Adds up the cash flows without discounting.
- C (+$1.98 million): The present value of the inflows. It forgets to subtract the investment.
- D (+$85,000): Discounts at 10% instead of 12%.
If you missed it: NPV = PV(inflows) − PV(outflows). Put the investment in, and use the rate the question gives.
Source: Principles of Finance (OpenStax), LibreTexts mirror, §8.3 Annuities, Eq. 8.14 (present value of an ordinary annuity); §16.3 Net Present Value (NPV) Method (accept positive NPV, reject negative).
Question 69 · CHE-69
Plant Design and Operation · 7B1 Process design · Multiple choice
Two pumps can do the same job for 10 years. Pump A costs $40,000 installed and $9,000 per year in energy. Pump B costs $55,000 installed and $5,000 per year. Costs are paid at the end of each year, there's no salvage value, and the discount rate is 8%. Which pump has the lower present worth of cost?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Pump B: about $88,600 vs. $100,400 for Pump A
Present worth factor for a 10-year annuity at 8%: P/A = [1 − 1/(1.08)¹⁰] ÷ 0.08 = 6.7101
Pump A: 40,000 + 9,000 × 6.7101 = $100,400
Pump B: 55,000 + 5,000 × 6.7101 = $88,600
Pump B's extra $15,000 up front buys $4,000 a year in savings worth about $26,800 today, so B wins.
Why not the others:
- A: Compares only the first cost.
- B: Right pump, but adds the cash flows without discounting.
- C: Discounting shrinks the savings but doesn't erase them: $4,000 a year for 10 years is still worth about $26,800 today, more than the $15,000 premium.
If you missed it: Put every cost on the same time basis (present worth) before comparing alternatives.
Source: Principles of Finance (OpenStax), LibreTexts mirror, §8.3 Annuities, Eq. 8.14 (present value of an ordinary annuity).
Question 70 · CHE-70
Plant Design and Operation · 7B2 Materials of construction · Multiple choice
A type 304 stainless steel tube bundle in warm, aerated cooling water that contains chlorides develops cracks near its welds within months. Which response best addresses the cause?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
This is the pattern of chloride stress corrosion cracking (SCC). It needs three things together: chloride ions, dissolved oxygen and tensile stress (weld residual stress is a common source). Chromium-carbide sensitization near welds makes it worse. The controls are low chloride and oxygen and low-carbon steels.
Why not the others:
- B: More oxygen supplies one of the conditions that SCC needs.
- C: That's galvanic protection logic. The less noble carbon steel would corrode, but it does nothing about stress, chloride or oxygen at the cracks.
- D: Hotter water doesn't remove chloride, oxygen or tensile stress, so it doesn't touch the cause.
If you missed it: For SCC, name the three legs (environment species, oxygen, tensile stress) and pick the fix that removes at least one of them.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1015/1-93, Chemistry, CH-02, Specialized Corrosion, “Stress Corrosion Cracking,” “Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking (Stainless Steels),” and “Galvanic Corrosion.”
Question 71 · CHE-71
Plant Design and Operation · 7B2 Materials of construction · Multiple choice
Carbon-steel bolts are used on a stainless-steel flange in seawater service. The metals are in electrical contact. What corrosion behavior should you expect?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
This is galvanic corrosion: two dissimilar metals with different potentials, in electrical contact, in an electrolyte (seawater). The less noble, more active metal (carbon steel) becomes the anode and corrodes. The more noble metal (stainless steel) becomes the cathode and is protected.
Why not the others:
- A: Reverses the roles. Stainless is the more noble metal here.
- B: Passivity protects the stainless steel's own surface; it doesn't protect the coupled carbon steel.
- C: Coupling changes the rates. That's the whole point of galvanic corrosion.
If you missed it: For any mixed-metal joint in a wet environment, identify the less noble metal: it's the one at risk. Insulating the joint or matching the metals removes the problem.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1015/1-93, Chemistry, CH-02, "Galvanic Corrosion," p. 23 (the less resistant, active metal becomes the anodic corrosion site; the more noble metal is cathodic and protected).
Question 72 · CHE-72
Plant Design and Operation · 7B3 Process equipment design · Multiple choice
A reflux drum receives 30 m³/h of condensed liquid. The design calls for 5 minutes of liquid holdup at normal level, and normal level is 50% of the drum volume. What drum volume is required?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 5.0 m³
Holdup volume = flow × time = (30 m³/h ÷ 60 min/h) × 5 min = 2.5 m³
That liquid occupies half the drum, so the drum volume is 2.5 ÷ 0.50 = 5.0 m³
Why not the others:
- A (2.5 m³): The liquid holdup alone, without the vapor space above normal level.
- C (75 m³): Treats the 30 m³/h as per minute and applies the 50% factor.
- D (150 m³): Multiplies 30 by 5 with no time conversion.
If you missed it: Residence time is volume divided by volumetric flow; make the time units match.
Source: University of Michigan ChE 344, Lecture 6 (space time τ = V/v₀). The holdup time and fill level are supplied design inputs.
Question 73 · CHE-73
Plant Design and Operation · 7B4 Instrumentation and process control · Multiple choice
Two pneumatic control valves serve an exothermic reactor: one on the cooling-water supply to the jacket, and one on the fuel gas to a feed preheater. Each should move to its safe position if instrument air is lost. Which actuator configuration is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A.
On loss of air, the actuator spring drives each valve to its fail position. An air-to-close, spring-to-open valve fails open; an air-to-open, spring-to-close valve fails closed.
- Cooling water should keep flowing to remove reaction heat: fail-open, so air-to-close.
- Fuel gas should stop adding heat: fail-closed, so air-to-open.
Why not the others:
- B: Reverses both. Cooling would stop and fuel would flow, the worst combination on an exothermic system.
- C: Fuel is right, but cooling water would shut off.
- D: Cooling is right, but fuel would keep flowing.
If you missed it: Decide the safe state from the process hazard first, then pick the actuator that gets there without air.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1013/2-92, Instrumentation and Control, IC-07, Process Controls, "Valve Actuators" (air-to-close, spring-to-open = fail-open; air-to-open, spring-to-close = fail-closed).
Question 74 · CHE-74
Plant Design and Operation · 7B4 Instrumentation and process control · Numeric entry
A control valve must pass 200 gpm of a non-flashing, non-choked liquid with specific gravity 0.81 at a pressure drop of 16 psi. Using the basic liquid sizing equation, what flow coefficient Cv is required?
Enter a number. Round to one decimal place.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 45.0 (accepted range: 44.5 to 45.5)
Q = Cv √(ΔP/SG), so Cv = Q ÷ √(ΔP/SG)
Cv = 200 ÷ √(16 ÷ 0.81) = 200 ÷ 4.444 = 45.0
In practice you'd select a valve whose rated Cv covers this point within its good control range, not one sized exactly to it.
Common wrong answers:
- 50.0: Ignores specific gravity (treats the liquid as water).
- 55.6: Multiplies ΔP by SG instead of dividing.
- 10.1: Forgets the square root.
If you missed it: Lighter liquids pass more flow at the same ΔP, so they need a slightly smaller Cv than water. Use that to check the direction of your answer.
Source: Swagelok, "Valve Sizing" Technical Bulletin MS-06-84-E, "Liquid Flow" (q = N₁Cv√(Δp/G_f), with N₁ = 1.0 for gpm and psi).
Question 75 · CHE-75
Plant Design and Operation · 7B4 Instrumentation and process control · Multiple choice
A differential-pressure level transmitter with a dry reference leg was calibrated for water at 1,000 kg/m³. The tank now holds hot water at 958 kg/m³, and the true level is 3.00 m. The transmitter has no density compensation. What level does it indicate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 2.87 m
The transmitter measures hydrostatic pressure, which equals density × g × height. The hot water is less dense, so the same height produces less pressure, and the transmitter converts it using the calibration density:
Indicated = 3.00 × 958 ÷ 1,000 = 2.87 m
It reads low by about 13 cm. That's why level systems on hot or variable-density liquids need density compensation.
Why not the others:
- B: Assumes the reading doesn't depend on density.
- C: Inverts the density ratio. Less dense liquid gives a lower reading, not a higher one.
- D (2.75 m): Applies the density ratio twice (3.00 × 0.958²).
If you missed it: A DP level transmitter infers height from pressure, so anything that changes density changes the reading.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1013/1-92, Instrumentation and Control, IC-03, Level Detectors: dry reference leg output proportional to hydrostatic head, p. 8; hydrostatic head = density × height (Eq. 3-3) and the need for density compensation as temperature changes, p. 12.
Question 76 · CHE-76
Plant Design and Operation · 7C1 Operation · Select two
A new unit covered by OSHA's Process Safety Management standard is mechanically complete. Select the two items that the pre-startup safety review must confirm before highly hazardous chemicals are introduced.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A and B
Under 1910.119(i)(2), the review confirms, before hazardous chemicals enter the process, that construction and equipment meet design specifications; that safety, operating, maintenance and emergency procedures are in place and adequate; that a process hazard analysis has been done for a new facility (or management-of-change requirements met for a modified one); and that operator training is complete.
Why not the others:
- C: Replacements in kind are excluded from management of change; the rule doesn't require a new HAZOP for them.
- D: Running on the hazardous chemical is exactly what the review must come before.
- E: The review is a pre-startup requirement, not a post-startup one.
If you missed it: Read "pre-startup" literally: everything on the list must be true before the first hazardous chemical arrives.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.119(i)(2), eCFR (pre-startup safety review) and (l)(1) (management of change; replacements in kind excluded).
Question 77 · CHE-77
Plant Design and Operation · 7C1 Operation · Multiple choice
A unit covered by OSHA's Process Safety Management standard is considering four changes. Which one requires the written management-of-change procedure?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
The MOC procedure covers changes to process chemicals, technology, equipment and procedures, and changes to facilities that affect a covered process. Raising a documented operating limit changes the process technology. Before it happens, the rule requires addressing the technical basis, the impact on safety and health, procedure changes, the time period, and authorization.
Why not the others:
- A and C: Identical replacements are "replacements in kind," which the rule excludes from MOC.
- B: A scheduled inspection is part of mechanical integrity. Nothing about the process changes.
If you missed it: Ask: "After this, is anything different from the documented design or procedures?" If yes, it's MOC. If it's identical, it's replacement in kind.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.119(l)(1) and (l)(2), eCFR (management of change; replacements in kind excluded; considerations before a change).
Question 78 · CHE-78
Plant Design and Operation · 7C2 Process equipment and reliability · Multiple choice
A service needs one pump running. Each available pump has a 0.90 probability of running without failure for the period of interest, and failures are independent. If you install two pumps in parallel (either one can carry the full duty), what is the probability that the service is maintained?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 0.99
The service fails only if both pumps fail. For a parallel (redundant) system, the failure probabilities multiply:
F = 0.10 × 0.10 = 0.01, so R = 1 − 0.01 = 0.99
Independence is doing the work here. A shared power supply or suction line would break it.
Why not the others:
- A (0.81): The series result (both must run), R = 0.90 × 0.90.
- B (0.90): One pump, no credit for the spare.
- C (0.95): Averages one and two pumps. Reliabilities don't combine by averaging.
If you missed it: Series: multiply reliabilities. Parallel: multiply failure probabilities, then subtract from 1.
Source: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, §8.1.8.2 Series model and §8.1.8.3 Parallel or redundant model (system failure probability is the product of the component failure probabilities).
Question 79 · CHE-79
Plant Design and Operation · 7C2 Process equipment and reliability · Multiple choice
Under OSHA's Process Safety Management standard, how must the frequency of inspections and tests on covered process equipment be set?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D.
The mechanical integrity element requires inspections and tests that follow recognized and generally accepted good engineering practices, at a frequency consistent with manufacturers' recommendations and good engineering practice, and more frequently if prior operating experience shows it's necessary. Each inspection or test must be documented.
Why not the others:
- A: The rule sets no single fixed interval for all equipment.
- B: Waiting for failure defeats the purpose of preventive inspection.
- C: The employer sets and follows the program; it doesn't wait for an inspector.
If you missed it: Mechanical integrity is risk- and experience-based: start from the manufacturer and good practice, then tighten intervals when experience says so.
Source: 29 CFR 1910.119(j)(4)(i)–(iv), eCFR (inspection and testing; frequency; documentation).
Question 80 · CHE-80
Plant Design and Operation · 7C3 Process improvement and troubleshooting · Select two
A centrifugal pump has become noisy and its flow has dropped. Operators notice that the supply tank level is lower than usual and the suction strainer hasn't been cleaned in months. Cavitation is suspected. Select the two actions that raise the net positive suction head available (NPSHa).
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A and B
Cavitation happens when the pressure at the impeller eye falls below the liquid's vapor pressure. NPSHa is the margin between the suction pressure and the vapor pressure.
- A: A higher level adds static head at the suction.
- B: A clogged strainer adds friction loss in the suction line; cleaning it removes that loss.
Why not the others:
- C: Throttling the suction adds pressure drop, lowering NPSHa. Throttle on the discharge side, if at all.
- D: Hotter liquid has a higher vapor pressure, which lowers NPSHa.
- E: A smaller pipe raises velocity and friction loss on the suction side.
If you missed it: For each action, ask whether it raises suction pressure or lowers vapor pressure. Only those help.
Source: DOE-HDBK-1012/3-92, HT-03, Centrifugal Pumps, "Cavitation," p. 48, and "Net Positive Suction Head" (NPSH = P_suction − P_saturation, Eq. 3-19; keep NPSHa above NPSHr), p. 49.
Score your test
Give yourself one point per question. Select-two and matching questions count only if every part is right. That matches how NCEES scores its alternative item types: right or wrong, no partial credit. A numeric entry counts if it falls inside the accepted range shown with its answer.
Your total is your score on these 80 questions, nothing more. It isn't an NCEES scaled score, and it can't predict whether you'll pass. NCEES converts the real exam to a scaled score and doesn't publish the passing score, so be wary of any site that names a "passing percentage" for PE Chemical.
Answer key
| # | ID | Area | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | CHE-01 | 1 | D |
| 2 | CHE-02 | 1 | A |
| 3 | CHE-03 | 1 | C |
| 4 | CHE-04 | 1 | C |
| 5 | CHE-05 | 1 | B |
| 6 | CHE-06 | 1 | B |
| 7 | CHE-07 | 1 | B |
| 8 | CHE-08 | 1 | C |
| 9 | CHE-09 | 1 | 357 kg/h |
| 10 | CHE-10 | 1 | C |
| 11 | CHE-11 | 1 | B |
| 12 | CHE-12 | 1 | A |
| 13 | CHE-13 | 1 | A |
| 14 | CHE-14 | 1 | B |
| 15 | CHE-15 | 2 | C |
| 16 | CHE-16 | 2 | A |
| 17 | CHE-17 | 2 | D |
| 18 | CHE-18 | 2 | D |
| 19 | CHE-19 | 2 | 446 K |
| 20 | CHE-20 | 2 | C |
| 21 | CHE-21 | 2 | A |
| 22 | CHE-22 | 2 | A + D |
| 23 | CHE-23 | 2 | C |
| 24 | CHE-24 | 2 | B |
| 25 | CHE-25 | 2 | C |
| 26 | CHE-26 | 2 | A |
| 27 | CHE-27 | 3 | D |
| 28 | CHE-28 | 3 | B |
| 29 | CHE-29 | 3 | B |
| 30 | CHE-30 | 3 | C |
| 31 | CHE-31 | 3 | C |
| 32 | CHE-32 | 3 | 1→a, 2→b, 3→c, 4→d |
| 33 | CHE-33 | 3 | 20.6 m² |
| 34 | CHE-34 | 3 | C |
| 35 | CHE-35 | 3 | D |
| 36 | CHE-36 | 3 | A |
| 37 | CHE-37 | 4 | B |
| 38 | CHE-38 | 4 | D |
| 39 | CHE-39 | 4 | B |
| 40 | CHE-40 | 4 | D |
| 41 | CHE-41 | 4 | B |
| 42 | CHE-42 | 4 | C |
| 43 | CHE-43 | 4 | 160°C |
| 44 | CHE-44 | 5 | D |
| 45 | CHE-45 | 5 | B |
| 46 | CHE-46 | 5 | D |
| 47 | CHE-47 | 5 | C |
| 48 | CHE-48 | 5 | C |
| 49 | CHE-49 | 5 | A |
| 50 | CHE-50 | 5 | B |
| 51 | CHE-51 | 5 | 89.4 m³/h |
| 52 | CHE-52 | 5 | D |
| 53 | CHE-53 | 5 | A |
| 54 | CHE-54 | 5 | C |
| 55 | CHE-55 | 6 | C |
| 56 | CHE-56 | 6 | C |
| 57 | CHE-57 | 6 | 1→a, 2→b, 3→c, 4→d |
| 58 | CHE-58 | 6 | D |
| 59 | CHE-59 | 6 | C |
| 60 | CHE-60 | 6 | A |
| 61 | CHE-61 | 6 | B |
| 62 | CHE-62 | 6 | B |
| 63 | CHE-63 | 7 | A |
| 64 | CHE-64 | 7 | A |
| 65 | CHE-65 | 7 | B |
| 66 | CHE-66 | 7 | D |
| 67 | CHE-67 | 7 | B |
| 68 | CHE-68 | 7 | A |
| 69 | CHE-69 | 7 | D |
| 70 | CHE-70 | 7 | A |
| 71 | CHE-71 | 7 | D |
| 72 | CHE-72 | 7 | B |
| 73 | CHE-73 | 7 | A |
| 74 | CHE-74 | 7 | 45.0 |
| 75 | CHE-75 | 7 | A |
| 76 | CHE-76 | 7 | A + B |
| 77 | CHE-77 | 7 | D |
| 78 | CHE-78 | 7 | D |
| 79 | CHE-79 | 7 | D |
| 80 | CHE-80 | 7 | A + B |
Your results by knowledge area
| Knowledge area | Questions | Your correct |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Mass/Energy Balances | 1–14 | ___ of 14 |
| 2. Thermodynamics | 15–26 | ___ of 12 |
| 3. Heat Transfer | 27–36 | ___ of 10 |
| 4. Chemical Reaction Engineering | 37–43 | ___ of 7 |
| 5. Fluids | 44–54 | ___ of 11 |
| 6. Mass Transfer | 55–62 | ___ of 8 |
| 7. Plant Design and Operation | 63–80 | ___ of 18 |
With 7 to 18 questions per area, a single miss moves an area's percentage by several points. Use this table to choose what to rework, not to rank your readiness.
Turn misses into a study list
Mark your guesses for review too. For every question you missed or weren't sure about, write one line:
| Question | What went wrong | What you'll do next |
|---|---|---|
| Example: 33 | Paired the exchanger ends as if the flow were parallel | Sketch both streams along the exchanger before computing ΔT₁ and ΔT₂ |
| Your question | Concept · Setup or model · Handbook lookup · Units · Arithmetic · Misread or rushed · Guess | Name the equation, section, or distinction to revisit |
Then work through the list in this order:
- Explain the miss out loud without looking at our explanation. If you can't, that's a concept gap, not a slip.
- Find the relationship in the PE Chemical Reference Handbook before rereading our solution. On exam day, it's the only reference you get.
- Rework the question a few days later with the explanation hidden, then try a fresh problem on the same idea.
Take it as a timed rehearsal
The real exam gives you 8 hours for 80 questions. To rehearse it with this test:
- Set an 8-hour clock and use only the PE Chemical Reference Handbook (free in your MyNCEES account) and an NCEES-approved calculator.
- Work Questions 1–40, then stop and "submit" them. On the real exam, after roughly half the questions you review and submit that group, and you can't go back to it (Examinee Guide, p. 11). Practice clearing your flagged questions before you submit.
- Take the break if you want it. The real scheduled break is 50 minutes and doesn't count against your 8 hours; unscheduled breaks do (Examinee Guide, pp. 12 and 16).
- Work Questions 41–80 in whatever time remains.
- Score it and fill in the miss log before you read any explanations.
The 8 hours average out to 6 minutes per question, but that's an average, not a per-question limit. A long calculation can take 10 minutes if a concept question takes 2. When a problem stalls, flag it and move on.
How this test compares with the real exam
| Row label | Real PE Chemical exam | This practice test |
|---|---|---|
| Questions | 80 | 80 |
| Time | 8 hours of testing inside a 9-hour appointment | Untimed, or 8 hours for a full rehearsal |
| Question formats | Multiple choice plus alternative item types: multiple correct, point-and-click, drag-and-drop, fill-in-the-blank | 69 multiple choice, 6 numeric entry, 3 select-two, 2 matching. No point-and-click |
| References | Electronic NCEES PE Chemical Reference Handbook only, on screen. No design standards | Each explanation cites a free public source |
| Units | SI and U.S. customary | SI and U.S. customary |
| Scoring | Scaled pass/fail; no partial credit; some unscored pretest questions | Raw count of 80; no partial credit |
| Question sets | Each examinee gets a unique form with the same number of questions per topic | One fixed set |
Sources: NCEES PE Chemical exam page; PE Chemical CBT specifications, effective January 1, 2020, p. 1; NCEES computer-based testing page; NCEES Examinee Guide, May 2026, pp. 10, 11, 14 and 16.
How the 80 questions are distributed
NCEES publishes a question range for each knowledge area and subarea. We placed every count in this test inside its official range. That's our editorial choice; it isn't a claim about the exact mix on any real exam form, which varies within the ranges.
| Code | NCEES subarea | Questions on the real exam | Questions in this test | Question numbers |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Mass/Energy Balances | 12–18 | 14 | 1–14 |
| 1A | Mass Balances | 6–9 | 7 | 1–7 |
| 1B | Energy Balances | 6–9 | 7 | 8–14 |
| 2 | Thermodynamics | 11–17 | 12 | 15–26 |
| 2A | Basic Thermodynamics | 4–6 | 5 | 15–19 |
| 2B | Chemical Equilibria | 3–5 | 3 | 20–22 |
| 2C | Phase Equilibria | 4–6 | 4 | 23–26 |
| 3 | Heat Transfer | 9–14 | 10 | 27–36 |
| 3A | Heat Transfer Fundamentals | 5–8 | 6 | 27–32 |
| 3B | Heat Transfer Applications | 4–6 | 4 | 33–36 |
| 4 | Chemical Reaction Engineering | 6–10 | 7 | 37–43 |
| 4A | Reaction Engineering Fundamentals | 3–5 | 3 | 37–39 |
| 4B | Reaction Engineering Applications | 3–5 | 4 | 40–43 |
| 5 | Fluids | 10–16 | 11 | 44–54 |
| 5A | Fluids Fundamentals | 5–8 | 6 | 44–49 |
| 5B | Fluids Applications | 5–8 | 5 | 50–54 |
| 6 | Mass Transfer | 7–11 | 8 | 55–62 |
| 6A | Mass Transfer Fundamentals | 3–5 | 3 | 55–57 |
| 6B | Mass Transfer Applications | 4–6 | 5 | 58–62 |
| 7 | Plant Design and Operation | 15–23 | 18 | 63–80 |
| 7A | Safety, Health, and Environment | 4–6 | 5 | 63–67 |
| 7B | Design | 7–11 | 8 | 68–75 |
| 7C | Operation and Maintenance | 4–6 | 5 | 76–80 |
| Total | Total | 80 | 80 |
Official ranges come from the PE Chemical specifications, pp. 1–3. The specifications also say the listed examples aren't exclusive or exhaustive.
Eighty questions still can't cover every subtopic. Not tested here: nonideal phase equilibria (activity and fugacity coefficients, azeotropes), porous-media flow, mixing, diffusion and mass-transfer coefficients, drying, adsorption, filtration and membranes, catalytic reactors, NTU analysis, emissions evaluation and remediation, Safety Data Sheets, scale-up, and P&ID interpretation.
For context, NCEES's pass-rate table (last updated July 2026, covering January–June 2026 examinees) lists 55% of 225 first-time PE Chemical examinees passing and 32% of 81 repeat examinees (NCEES PE Chemical exam page). Those figures describe NCEES examinees, not people who used this page.
What to know about exam day
References. PE Chemical is closed book with one electronic reference: the NCEES PE Chemical Reference Handbook, shown on screen as a searchable PDF. No design standards are supplied for this exam, and you can't bring your own copies. You search with the search box, because Ctrl+F doesn't work (Examinee Guide, pp. 10 and 16).
Calculator. You may bring one NCEES-approved calculator, and a TI-30XS is also available on screen (Examinee Guide, p. 8).
Formats. Expect multiple choice plus alternative item types. Every question is scored right or wrong, so read multiple-correct stems carefully and judge each option on its own (NCEES CBT page).
One habit that pays off: when you miss a question here, find the relationship in the handbook before you reread our explanation. Fast lookup is part of what the exam tests.
Will the PE Chemical specifications change?
The current specifications have been in effect since January 1, 2020. In May 2025, NCEES asked licensed chemical engineers to take part in a professional activities and knowledge study that will be used to update the specifications (NCEES news release). As of October 9, 2026, the NCEES exam-change notices we checked list no new PE Chemical specification date. Check the PE Chemical exam page before you book.
Quick answers
How much does the PE Chemical exam cost? $400 per attempt, paid to NCEES. Your licensing board may charge its own application fee (NCEES PE Chemical page; Examinee Guide, p. 3).
When can I take it? Year-round, at Pearson VUE test centers. You can attempt it once per testing window (January–March, April–June, July–September, October–December) and no more than three times in any 12 months; some boards are stricter (Examinee Guide, p. 5).
When will I get my results? Typically 7–10 days after the exam, as pass or fail. If you don't pass, you get a diagnostic report by knowledge area (Examinee Guide, p. 14).
Who decides if I can sit for it? Your state licensing board. NCEES designs the PE for engineers with at least four years of post-college experience, but eligibility rules are the board's (NCEES PE Chemical page; board directory).
Next steps
- Planning your wider PE study? Our PE exam prep guide has a 12-week plan built around your exam's specification.
- Still need the FE? Try the free FE Chemical practice test.
- Registering or scheduling? See NCEES exam registration. If you need testing accommodations, request them when you register; see NCEES exam accommodations.
- Already tested? NCEES exam results explains the diagnostic report, and NCEES retake policy covers when you can sit again.
Sources and verification
Last verified: October 9, 2026. We rechecked the current exam format and timing, the PE Chemical specification ranges, CBT item/scoring rules, the affected technical claims corrected in this audit, and the safety/regulatory rules used by the practice set. We independently rechecked all 80 answer keys and numerical calculations for internal consistency and a second defensible answer. These questions have not been psychometrically validated against NCEES exam performance.
Official exam sources
- NCEES PE Chemical exam page: format, appointment breakdown, fee, reference handbook, pass rates
- PE Chemical CBT exam specifications, effective January 1, 2020: knowledge areas, question ranges, units
- NCEES computer-based testing: alternative item types, no partial credit, year-round exam forms
- NCEES Examinee Guide, May 2026: fees (p. 3), retakes (p. 5), calculator (p. 8), references (p. 10), sections and item types (p. 11), breaks (p. 12), scoring (p. 14), PE Chemical timing and no design standards (p. 16)
- NCEES PE Chemical PAKS news release, May 2025
Technical sources cited in the explanations
- U.S. DOE Fundamentals Handbooks: Thermodynamics (DOE-HDBK-1012/1-92), Heat Transfer (1012/2), Fluid Flow (1012/3), Instrumentation and Control Vol. 1 and Vol. 2, Chemistry Vol. 1 (1015/1-93)
- OpenStax Chemistry 2e: §§3.1, 4.4, 5.1, 5.3, 9.2, 9.3, 9.6, 10.3, 11.3, 11.4, 12.3, 12.4, 12.5, 13.2, 13.3
- Fogler, Elements of Chemical Reaction Engineering, 7th ed., University of Michigan companion site: Ch. 1, Ch. 8, Ch. 11, Lecture 6
- NASA Glenn: Isentropic Flow Equations and Mass Flow Choking
- Separations: FAMU-FSU distillation lecture, NTNU exam solution (2015), NPTEL Mass Transfer Operation I, Module 5, Lecture 1, Lecture 4 and Lecture 5, University at Buffalo CE 407, Lecture 03, LibreTexts, Harvey §7.7
- Safety and regulation: 29 CFR 1910.110, 29 CFR 1910.1000, 29 CFR 1910.119, 40 CFR 112.8, AIChE/CCPS LOPA overview, HSE RR716
- Reliability: NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook, §8.1.8.2 and §8.1.8.3
- Design and economics: Swagelok valve sizing bulletin; Principles of Finance (OpenStax) on LibreTexts, §8.3 and §16.3
These teaching sources aren't supplied on exam day. They're cited so you can check each principle; on the exam, you'll find the relationships in the NCEES handbook.
Written by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. AI tools assisted with drafting, calculations, and source checking. This isn't a review by a licensed professional engineer. Read how we work in our methodology and editorial standards, and report a correction if you find an error.
Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) or Pearson VUE. Exam and credential names identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These are original practice questions, not actual or recalled NCEES exam questions. Practice results don't guarantee an exam result or a license.