Castleport Test Prep

Free SLP Praxis Practice Test: 66 Questions With Answers

Practice with 66 original, unofficial Speech-Language Pathology (5331) questions balanced across the three official content domains. Answer each question, check the rationale, and use your domain results to decide what to review next.

Testing in 2027? ETS Praxis testing is available through December 26, 2026. Beginning January 11, 2027, the national SLP examination moves to PSI. ASHA states that the exam content, format, structure, and passing standard remain unchanged.

Original Castleport practice — not official ETS or ASHA questions.

Practice questions

Question 1

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Evidence-based practice

An SLP is deciding between two reasonable intervention approaches. Which choice best reflects evidence-based practice?

  • A. Choose the approach supported by the single newest article
  • B. Choose the approach the clinician has used most often
  • C. Choose the approach the family prefers, regardless of evidence
  • D. Integrate clinical expertise, the best available evidence, and client/caregiver perspectives
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: D

Why: Evidence-based practice integrates clinical expertise, external and internal evidence, and client/patient/caregiver perspectives.

  • Why not A: Publication date alone does not establish the best decision.
  • Why not B: Experience is one component, not the whole EBP process.
  • Why not C: Client values matter, but they are integrated with evidence and expertise.

Source: Definition of Evidence-Based Practice

Question 2

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Multilingual service delivery

A multilingual child performs below monolingual English norms on an English-only language test. What is the most defensible interpretation?

  • A. The score alone confirms a language disorder
  • B. The child should be tested only in English to maintain standardization
  • C. Language and cultural context must be considered before distinguishing difference from disorder
  • D. Exposure to more than one language is itself a risk factor for language disorder
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Assessment of multilingual clients must account for the languages used by the client and relevant cultural and linguistic variables; an English-only low score is not, by itself, proof of disorder.

  • Why not A: A single English-only score can reflect language difference or limited exposure.
  • Why not B: Standardization does not override the need for culturally and linguistically appropriate assessment.
  • Why not D: Multilingualism itself is not a communication disorder.

Source: Overview and assessment considerations

Question 3

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Interpreters

An SLP uses a trained interpreter during an evaluation. Who remains responsible for planning the session and interpreting the clinical findings?

  • A. The interpreter
  • B. The SLP
  • C. The family member who requested the evaluation
  • D. The test publisher
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: The clinician remains responsible for the assessment or treatment session, including planning, appropriate administration, interpretation, and clinical decisions.

  • Why not A: The interpreter facilitates language access but does not assume the clinician's responsibility.
  • Why not C: Families contribute important information but do not replace the clinician's role.
  • Why not D: A test publisher does not interpret an individual client's findings.

Source: Clinician responsibilities when collaborating with interpreters

Question 4

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Cultural responsiveness

Which action best reflects culturally responsive practice?

  • A. Assume the same communication norms apply to every family
  • B. Avoid discussing cultural differences so the evaluation stays objective
  • C. Continuously examine one's own biases and learn about the client's cultural and linguistic context
  • D. Use only standardized tests because informal information is subjective
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Cultural responsiveness includes ongoing self-assessment, continued learning, and attention to how cultural and linguistic variables affect identification, assessment, and treatment.

  • Why not A: Communication norms vary within and across cultures.
  • Why not B: Ignoring cultural variables can reduce validity rather than increase objectivity.
  • Why not D: Standardized measures may be useful, but they are not sufficient in every case.

Source: Overview; clinician responsibilities

Question 5

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Professional ethics

An SLP is asked to provide a specialized service for which the SLP has no education, training, or supervised experience. What is the best response?

  • A. Provide the service because the referral has already been made
  • B. Provide the service but add a disclaimer to the report
  • C. Obtain appropriate competence or refer/consult so the client receives competent services
  • D. Ask an assistant to provide the service independently
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: ASHA's Code of Ethics requires competent professional services and appropriate use of professional resources.

  • Why not A: A referral does not create competence.
  • Why not B: A disclaimer does not make an incompetent service ethical.
  • Why not D: Delegating beyond appropriate supervision or scope does not solve the competence problem.

Source: Principle of Ethics II and Rules concerning professional competence

Question 6

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Professional ethics

Which statement about client welfare is most consistent with ASHA's ethical framework?

  • A. The clinician's convenience should control service decisions
  • B. Professional decisions should prioritize the welfare of persons served
  • C. A popular treatment may be used even when the clinician knows it is inappropriate
  • D. Financial incentives may determine device recommendations if disclosed verbally
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: The Code of Ethics places the welfare of persons served at the center of professional responsibility.

  • Why not A: Convenience does not supersede client welfare.
  • Why not C: Popularity does not justify an inappropriate service.
  • Why not D: Financial conflicts require ethical management; they should not drive recommendations.

Source: Principle of Ethics I

Question 7

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Aphasia

Which description best distinguishes aphasia from a pure motor speech disorder?

  • A. Aphasia is limited to articulation accuracy
  • B. Aphasia is an acquired language disorder that can affect spoken and written expression and comprehension
  • C. Aphasia affects only speech rate
  • D. Aphasia is defined by weakness of the speech musculature
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Aphasia is an acquired neurogenic language disorder that may impair spoken expression, written expression, spoken comprehension, and reading comprehension.

  • Why not A: Articulation is a speech-production function.
  • Why not C: Speech rate alone does not define aphasia.
  • Why not D: Weakness is associated with motor impairment, not the definition of aphasia.

Source: Overview

Question 8

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Motor speech

An adult understands complex directions and writes grammatically correct sentences but has slurred, imprecise speech caused by reduced motor control. Which disorder is most consistent with this pattern?

  • A. Aphasia
  • B. Dysarthria
  • C. Social communication disorder
  • D. Developmental language disorder
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Dysarthria is a neurogenic motor speech disorder involving abnormalities in the control of speech movements; language can remain intact.

  • Why not A: Aphasia affects language, not just motor execution of speech.
  • Why not C: Social communication disorder concerns social use of communication.
  • Why not D: Developmental language disorder does not match an acquired motor speech pattern.

Source: Overview; distinguishing dysarthria from aphasia

Question 9

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Childhood apraxia of speech

Which mechanism is most closely associated with childhood apraxia of speech (CAS)?

  • A. A primary deficit in hearing sensitivity
  • B. A deficit in planning or programming speech movements
  • C. A primary weakness of the respiratory muscles
  • D. A lack of communicative intent
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: CAS is associated with deficits in the planning and/or programming of speech movements rather than a simple lack of strength or motivation.

  • Why not A: Hearing loss can affect speech development but does not define CAS.
  • Why not C: CAS is not defined by primary respiratory weakness.
  • Why not D: Children with CAS can have clear communicative intent.

Source: Overview and assessment sections

Question 10

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Fluency

Why should an SLP evaluating stuttering ask about avoidance, speaking situations, and the person's reactions to stuttering?

  • A. Because overt disfluency count is never useful
  • B. Because covert behaviors and life impact can be clinically important even when overt stuttering is limited
  • C. Because every person who stutters has an anxiety disorder
  • D. Because family history determines diagnosis by itself
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: A comprehensive fluency assessment includes overt and covert features and the affective, behavioral, cognitive, and participation impact of stuttering.

  • Why not A: Observable speech behaviors remain relevant.
  • Why not C: Stuttering does not imply an anxiety disorder.
  • Why not D: Family history is one factor, not a stand-alone diagnosis.

Source: Comprehensive assessment

Question 11

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Voice

An SLP evaluates persistent dysphonia and suspects an underlying laryngeal medical condition. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A. Begin intensive voice exercises without medical collaboration
  • B. Refer or collaborate with an otolaryngologist or other appropriate medical professional
  • C. Diagnose the laryngeal lesion from perceptual voice quality alone
  • D. Recommend complete voice rest indefinitely
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Voice care commonly requires collaboration with medical professionals; SLPs refer as needed to obtain a medical diagnosis and coordinate management.

  • Why not A: Treatment should not bypass needed medical evaluation.
  • Why not C: Perceptual voice features do not establish a specific laryngeal diagnosis.
  • Why not D: Indefinite voice rest is not a universal treatment.

Source: Roles and responsibilities; referral and collaboration

Question 12

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: AAC

Which statement about candidacy for augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) is most accurate?

  • A. A person must demonstrate a minimum cognitive score before AAC can be considered
  • B. A person must fail speech therapy before AAC is introduced
  • C. There are no prerequisites for AAC intervention when communication needs are not being met
  • D. AAC is appropriate only for people who cannot produce any speech
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: ASHA states that there are no prerequisites for AAC intervention and that individuals are candidates when their current communication abilities do not meet their communication needs.

  • Why not A: A cognitive cutoff is not an AAC prerequisite.
  • Why not B: AAC does not require failure of another treatment first.
  • Why not D: AAC can supplement existing speech as well as replace speech when needed.

Source: AAC candidacy; no prerequisites for AAC intervention

Question 13

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Aural rehabilitation

Which combination best reflects a comprehensive aural rehabilitation plan for an adult with hearing loss?

  • A. Amplification only
  • B. Lip-reading drills only
  • C. Sensory management, instruction, perceptual training, counseling, and communication supports as needed
  • D. Speech therapy only, regardless of hearing technology
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Aural rehabilitation can combine sensory management, instruction, perceptual training, counseling, environmental supports, and communication training based on individual needs.

  • Why not A: Amplification may be important but is not the entire rehabilitation plan.
  • Why not B: A single strategy does not represent comprehensive AR.
  • Why not D: Management should be individualized and may involve multiple disciplines and supports.

Source: Aural Rehabilitation

Question 14

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Adult dysphagia

Which statement about a bedside/non-instrumental swallowing evaluation is most accurate?

  • A. It can definitively verify aspiration in every patient
  • B. It can identify signs and symptoms, but verification of aspiration requires instrumental assessment
  • C. It is unnecessary if the patient can speak clearly
  • D. It replaces the need to review medical status
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: A non-instrumental assessment can identify signs and symptoms of dysphagia, but verification of aspiration and detailed swallowing physiology requires instrumental assessment.

  • Why not A: Bedside findings cannot definitively verify aspiration.
  • Why not C: Speech clarity does not establish swallowing safety.
  • Why not D: Medical and functional status are important parts of evaluation.

Source: Non-Instrumental Swallowing Assessment

Question 15

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Pediatric feeding

Which statement best describes pediatric feeding disorder (PFD) and pediatric dysphagia?

  • A. They are identical terms
  • B. They are separate conditions that may co-occur
  • C. PFD occurs only when aspiration is present
  • D. Dysphagia refers only to behavioral food refusal
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA describes PFD and pediatric dysphagia as separate diagnoses that may occur together.

  • Why not A: They are not synonymous.
  • Why not C: PFD can involve medical, nutritional, feeding-skill, and psychosocial factors without aspiration.
  • Why not D: Dysphagia concerns swallowing impairment, not simply food refusal.

Source: Overview

Question 16

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Speech sound disorders

Why is it useful to obtain both single-word productions and connected speech during a speech sound assessment?

  • A. Connected speech is always more accurate than single-word testing
  • B. Single-word testing is always enough for diagnosis
  • C. Performance can differ across contexts, and each sample provides different information about speech production
  • D. The two tasks are required to produce an IQ score
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Single-word and connected-speech samples provide complementary information because a child's productions may differ across phonetic and speaking contexts.

  • Why not A: Neither context is universally superior.
  • Why not B: Single-word testing may not reflect connected speech.
  • Why not D: Speech sampling is not used to derive an IQ score.

Source: Speech Sound Assessment

Question 17

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Epidemiology

Which definition is correct?

  • A. Incidence is the number of people living with a condition at a given time
  • B. Prevalence is the number of new cases during a specified period
  • C. Incidence refers to new cases during a specified period; prevalence refers to people living with the condition in a given period
  • D. Incidence and prevalence are interchangeable
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Incidence concerns new cases identified in a time period, whereas prevalence concerns the number of individuals living with a condition in a given period.

  • Why not A: That describes prevalence.
  • Why not B: That describes incidence.
  • Why not D: The terms answer different epidemiologic questions.

Source: Incidence and Prevalence

Question 18

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: ICF and functional communication

Which outcome is most consistent with an ICF-oriented assessment of dysarthria?

  • A. Describe only tongue strength
  • B. Describe only speech intelligibility in the clinic
  • C. Describe impairments plus activity, participation, contextual factors, and functional impact
  • D. Classify the disorder without asking about communication needs
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: An ICF-oriented assessment considers body functions and structures, activities, participation, and contextual factors affecting real-world communication.

  • Why not A: Impairment measures are only one part of function.
  • Why not B: Clinic intelligibility alone does not capture participation and context.
  • Why not D: Communication needs and functional impact are central to management.

Source: Assessment; WHO ICF framework

Question 19

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Cultural responsiveness

Which statement best describes cultural competence/responsiveness?

  • A. It is completed once the clinician learns a list of cultural traits
  • B. It is an ongoing process involving self-assessment, learning, and responsiveness to each person's context
  • C. It requires matching every client with a clinician from the same background
  • D. It means avoiding discussion of culture during clinical care
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA describes cultural competence and responsiveness as dynamic, ongoing processes rather than a one-time achievement.

  • Why not A: Static trait lists can promote stereotyping.
  • Why not C: Identity matching is not a universal requirement.
  • Why not D: Ignoring culture can obscure clinically relevant context.

Source: Overview

Question 20

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Social communication

A child meets criteria for autism spectrum disorder and has pragmatic-language difficulties. Which statement is most accurate regarding social communication disorder (SCD)?

  • A. SCD must always be diagnosed in addition to autism
  • B. SCD and autism are interchangeable labels
  • C. SCD is not diagnosed concurrently with autism because social communication deficits are part of autism's defining features
  • D. Pragmatic-language difficulty rules out autism
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: ASHA notes that SCD cannot be diagnosed in conjunction with autism spectrum disorder because social communication problems are a defining feature of autism.

  • Why not A: A separate SCD diagnosis is not used concurrently with autism.
  • Why not B: The diagnoses are not interchangeable.
  • Why not D: Pragmatic difficulty can occur in autism.

Source: Overview

Question 21

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Exam content

Which set lists the three current top-level SLP Praxis 5331 content categories?

  • A. Foundations and Professional Practice; Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis; Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment
  • B. Anatomy; Audiology; Counseling
  • C. Language; Articulation; Fluency
  • D. Pediatrics; Adults; Medical SLP
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: A

Why: The current 5331 blueprint uses three approximately equal top-level content categories with these exact labels.

  • Why not B: These are topics, not the three official top-level categories.
  • Why not C: These are narrower clinical areas, not the official domains.
  • Why not D: The exam is not divided into those three population/setting domains.

Source: Content Categories table

Question 22

Domain: Foundations and Professional Practice · Topic: Exam transition

A candidate plans to test on January 20, 2027. Which statement best reflects ASHA's announced transition?

  • A. The candidate should take a newly redesigned exam with different content weights
  • B. The national SLP exam will be administered through PSI, with content, format, structure, and passing standard unchanged
  • C. ETS remains the only test vendor throughout 2027
  • D. The passing standard automatically changes because the vendor changes
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA states that testing beginning January 11, 2027 moves to PSI as the National Speech-Language Pathology Examination while the exam content, format, structure, and passing standard remain unchanged.

  • Why not A: ASHA says the exam itself is not changing as part of the transition.
  • Why not C: PSI becomes the testing vendor for 2027 testing.
  • Why not D: The passing standard is explicitly stated to remain the same.

Source: Which Exam Process Applies to Me?; Transition to PSI

Question 23

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Speech sound assessment

A child produces /k/ accurately in single words but frequently substitutes /t/ for /k/ during conversation. What is the best assessment response?

  • A. Ignore the conversational errors because single-word testing is standardized
  • B. Obtain and analyze connected-speech samples because performance can differ by context
  • C. Diagnose childhood apraxia of speech immediately
  • D. Test hearing only and stop the speech assessment
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Connected-speech sampling is needed because single-word performance may not reflect production in conversation.

  • Why not A: Standardized single-word data do not invalidate observed connected-speech errors.
  • Why not C: One context-dependent error pattern does not establish CAS.
  • Why not D: Hearing may be relevant, but the speech assessment should still characterize production.

Source: Speech Sound Assessment

Question 24

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Fluency assessment

An adult reports severe stuttering at work but shows few disfluencies during a quiet clinic conversation. What should the SLP do next?

  • A. Conclude there is no fluency disorder
  • B. Use speech samples and self-report across relevant situations and assess covert impact
  • C. Count only syllables stuttered during the clinic sample
  • D. Diagnose cluttering because clinic speech was fluent
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Fluency can vary by situation, so comprehensive assessment should include self-report, overt and covert features, and samples across contexts.

  • Why not A: A low-disfluency clinic sample can miss real-world severity.
  • Why not C: Frequency counts alone do not capture the whole disorder.
  • Why not D: Situational variability does not establish cluttering.

Source: Comprehensive assessment; variability across situations

Question 25

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Adult dysphagia assessment

A patient coughs after several sips of thin liquid during a bedside swallow evaluation. Which conclusion is most defensible?

  • A. Aspiration has been confirmed
  • B. The patient is definitely safe with thick liquids
  • C. The finding raises concern, but instrumental assessment is needed to verify aspiration and swallowing physiology
  • D. The cough proves a pharyngeal structural lesion
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: Clinical signs can raise concern for dysphagia, but aspiration cannot be verified solely from a bedside examination.

  • Why not A: Coughing does not confirm aspiration.
  • Why not B: Thickened liquids are not automatically safer for every patient.
  • Why not D: A cough does not identify a specific structural lesion.

Source: Non-Instrumental Swallowing Assessment

Question 26

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Pediatric feeding assessment

During a feeding evaluation of a toddler, which setup is most likely to improve ecological validity?

  • A. Use only unfamiliar test foods in a clinic feeding chair
  • B. Replicate the home feeding context as closely as possible, including familiar foods and typical utensils when appropriate
  • C. Exclude caregivers from all observation
  • D. Assess only oral structures without observing eating
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA recommends making feeding assessment resemble the child's typical environment and using familiar foods, utensils, positioning, and caregiver information when appropriate.

  • Why not A: Unfamiliar materials alone may distort typical performance.
  • Why not C: Caregiver participation can provide important functional information.
  • Why not D: Structural examination alone does not show functional feeding.

Source: Clinical Evaluation; nutritive sucking and feeding assessment

Question 27

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Childhood apraxia of speech

A preschooler has inconsistent speech errors and suspected deficits in speech motor planning. What assessment is most appropriate?

  • A. A vocabulary test only
  • B. A comprehensive motor speech assessment by an SLP with pediatric motor-speech experience
  • C. A hearing screening as the sole evaluation
  • D. An oral-strength program before assessment
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Children suspected of CAS should receive a comprehensive motor speech assessment from an SLP with experience in pediatric motor speech disorders.

  • Why not A: Vocabulary does not evaluate speech motor planning.
  • Why not C: Hearing screening may be appropriate but is not sufficient.
  • Why not D: Treatment should not substitute for diagnostic assessment.

Source: Screening and comprehensive motor speech assessment

Question 28

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Aphasia assessment

Which set of modalities should be considered when assessing suspected aphasia?

  • A. Only confrontation naming
  • B. Spoken expression, written expression, spoken comprehension, and reading comprehension
  • C. Only oral-motor strength
  • D. Only memory and attention
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Aphasia can affect spoken and written expression and comprehension, so assessment should sample these language modalities as appropriate.

  • Why not A: Naming is only one language task.
  • Why not C: Oral-motor assessment addresses speech structures and motor function, not the full language profile.
  • Why not D: Cognition may be relevant but does not replace language assessment.

Source: Overview; assessment

Question 29

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Dysarthria assessment

Which assessment plan best fits suspected dysarthria?

  • A. Measure articulation only
  • B. Evaluate affected speech subsystems, intelligibility/naturalness, associated conditions, and functional communication impact
  • C. Assess language comprehension only
  • D. Classify the dysarthria type from medical diagnosis alone
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Dysarthria assessment addresses speech subsystems, perceptual features, associated conditions, intelligibility/naturalness, and functional communication.

  • Why not A: Dysarthria may affect respiration, phonation, resonance, articulation, and prosody.
  • Why not C: Language testing alone misses motor speech function.
  • Why not D: The neurologic diagnosis does not by itself establish the speech phenotype.

Source: Goals and components of dysarthria assessment

Question 30

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Social communication assessment

Which approach is best for assessing social communication?

  • A. Use one decontextualized standardized score as the sole basis for diagnosis
  • B. Use culturally sensitive, functional assessment with input from relevant communication partners and settings
  • C. Judge eye contact against a single universal norm
  • D. Exclude teachers and caregivers to avoid bias
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA recommends culturally sensitive, functional, collaborative assessment of social communication across relevant contexts.

  • Why not A: A single score may not capture functional social communication.
  • Why not C: Nonverbal norms such as eye contact vary culturally and individually.
  • Why not D: Relevant partners can provide important contextual data.

Source: Comprehensive Assessment

Question 31

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: AAC assessment

An AAC user can identify large photos but has difficulty locating small symbols in dense displays. Which variable should the SLP specifically assess?

  • A. Only speech intelligibility
  • B. Symbol type, symbol size, field size, and display organization
  • C. Only oral-motor strength
  • D. Only chronological age
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: AAC symbol assessment includes symbol type, size, field size, and organization because these features affect access and use.

  • Why not A: Speech intelligibility alone does not explain symbol-access difficulty.
  • Why not C: Oral-motor strength may be irrelevant to visual symbol access.
  • Why not D: Chronological age does not determine optimal display features.

Source: Symbol Assessment

Question 32

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: AAC feature matching

Which question is most central to feature matching for an AAC system?

  • A. Which device has the most features?
  • B. Which system features best match the person's skills, communication needs, environments, and partners?
  • C. Which device is most popular online?
  • D. Which system uses the largest number of symbols?
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Feature matching selects AAC features based on the individual's abilities and communication needs across environments and partners.

  • Why not A: More features do not necessarily mean a better match.
  • Why not C: Popularity is not a clinical criterion.
  • Why not D: Display density must be individualized.

Source: Feature-Matching Assessment

Question 33

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Voice assessment

Which evaluation is most consistent with a comprehensive voice assessment?

  • A. A single listener rating only
  • B. A combination of standardized and nonstandardized measures, perceptual assessment, case history, and instrumental/medical collaboration as indicated
  • C. A language sample only
  • D. A hearing screening only
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Voice assessment is comprehensive and may include standardized and nonstandardized measures, perceptual and instrumental information, and collaboration with medical professionals.

  • Why not A: One perceptual rating is insufficient for many cases.
  • Why not C: Language sampling does not characterize vocal function.
  • Why not D: Hearing information may matter but does not constitute a voice evaluation.

Source: Comprehensive assessment; roles and responsibilities

Question 34

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Interpreter-supported assessment

During a multilingual assessment, an interpreter reports that a test item has no culturally equivalent phrase in the client's language. What should the SLP do?

  • A. Tell the interpreter to translate word-for-word anyway
  • B. Document and consider how the linguistic/cultural mismatch affects interpretation of the response
  • C. Score the item incorrect without comment
  • D. Stop using the interpreter
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: The clinician should account for cultural and linguistic effects on translated stimuli and document how interpreter use or translated materials affect findings.

  • Why not A: Literal translation can change construct validity or meaning.
  • Why not C: Ignoring the mismatch can misrepresent ability.
  • Why not D: The interpreter's observation is clinically useful and should be integrated.

Source: Cultural and linguistic considerations; documentation

Question 35

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Speech sound differential diagnosis

A child shows a consistent /r/ distortion and also deletes final consonants across many words. Which interpretation is best?

  • A. The child must have only an articulation disorder
  • B. The child must have only a phonological disorder
  • C. Articulation-type and phonological error patterns can coexist and may require different treatment targets
  • D. The pattern confirms hearing loss
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: ASHA notes that articulation and phonological error types can coexist within the same child.

  • Why not A: The broader pattern includes a phonological component.
  • Why not B: The distortion may represent an articulatory component.
  • Why not D: The speech pattern does not by itself confirm hearing loss.

Source: Treatment; articulation and phonological error types may coexist

Question 36

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Dysarthria screening

What can a dysarthria screening appropriately determine?

  • A. The exact dysarthria subtype and severity
  • B. Whether further assessment is warranted
  • C. The underlying neurologic diagnosis
  • D. The final treatment plan
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Dysarthria screening is a pass/fail process that identifies the need for further assessment or referral; it is not a full diagnosis.

  • Why not A: Subtype and severity require comprehensive assessment.
  • Why not C: Medical diagnosis is outside what speech screening establishes.
  • Why not D: Treatment planning follows fuller assessment.

Source: Screening

Question 37

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Fluency assessment

Why can relying only on observable stuttering frequency underestimate severity?

  • A. Because stuttering frequency is unrelated to communication
  • B. Because people may use avoidance, substitutions, or circumlocutions that mask overt stuttering
  • C. Because covert features occur only in children
  • D. Because every fluent utterance is evidence of recovery
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Avoidance and word substitutions can reduce observable stuttering while the disorder still has substantial impact.

  • Why not A: Frequency is relevant but incomplete.
  • Why not C: Covert features can occur across ages.
  • Why not D: Momentary fluency does not by itself establish recovery.

Source: Comprehensive assessment; covert features

Question 38

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Infant feeding

Which statement about non-nutritive sucking (NNS) is most accurate?

  • A. Normal NNS proves an infant is ready for oral feeding
  • B. NNS can provide useful assessment information but does not by itself determine readiness to feed orally
  • C. NNS should always be assessed with an instrumental study
  • D. NNS has no role in feeding assessment
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA notes that NNS is useful for assessment but does not determine readiness for oral feeding.

  • Why not A: Oral feeding readiness requires broader physiologic and feeding assessment.
  • Why not C: Skilled observation can evaluate NNS without instrumental assessment.
  • Why not D: NNS can provide useful information about oral function and stability.

Source: Non-Nutritive Sucking

Question 39

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Adult dysphagia assessment

Which information belongs in a non-instrumental swallowing assessment?

  • A. Only the presence or absence of cough
  • B. Medical/chart information, functional status, patient perception, physiologic status, and observed swallowing signs as appropriate
  • C. Only a cranial nerve examination
  • D. Only diet texture preference
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: A non-instrumental swallowing assessment integrates medical, functional, physiologic, patient-reported, and observed swallowing information.

  • Why not A: Cough is only one possible sign.
  • Why not C: Cranial nerve findings are only one component.
  • Why not D: Preferences matter but do not replace physiologic and functional assessment.

Source: Non-Instrumental Swallowing Assessment

Question 40

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Social communication eligibility

A school-age child has functional pragmatic difficulties but average nonverbal cognitive scores. Which statement best reflects ASHA guidance?

  • A. Speech-language services should be denied because cognition is average
  • B. Eligibility should be based on functional communication needs, not an IQ-language discrepancy rule
  • C. Pragmatics can be assessed only if structural language is impaired
  • D. Only a psychologist can assess social communication
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA does not support cognitive referencing for determining speech-language eligibility; functional communication needs should be evaluated directly.

  • Why not A: Average cognition does not rule out clinically significant communication needs.
  • Why not C: Social communication can be impaired even when other language scores are stronger.
  • Why not D: SLPs play a central role in social communication assessment.

Source: Comprehensive Assessment; cognitive referencing

Question 41

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Aphasia classification

An adult with aphasia shows a pattern that does not fit neatly into a classic subtype. What is the best clinical response?

  • A. Force the profile into the closest named subtype
  • B. Describe the individual's actual language strengths, impairments, severity, and functional impact
  • C. Conclude that aphasia is absent
  • D. Use lesion location alone to determine the subtype
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA cautions that aphasia presentations may not fit a single subtype and can change over time; functional description is more informative than forcing a label.

  • Why not A: A forced label can obscure the real profile.
  • Why not C: Atypical subtype patterns can still represent aphasia.
  • Why not D: Lesion information can contribute but does not replace language assessment.

Source: Overview; subtype caution

Question 42

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Multilingual assessment

Which finding most strongly supports a disorder rather than a difference in a multilingual client?

  • A. A feature that occurs only in the client's less-proficient language and matches second-language influence
  • B. A consistent difficulty observed across the client's languages and communication contexts after appropriate assessment
  • C. A low score on one English vocabulary subtest
  • D. Use of a home-language grammatical pattern in English
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: A disorder is more defensibly identified when difficulty is demonstrated across the individual's languages or contexts after culturally and linguistically appropriate assessment.

  • Why not A: Language-transfer patterns can reflect difference rather than disorder.
  • Why not C: One English subtest is not sufficient evidence.
  • Why not D: Cross-linguistic influence can be typical in multilingual speakers.

Source: Assessment considerations

Question 43

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Praxis scoring

A candidate answers 90 of 132 Praxis questions correctly. Which statement is safest?

  • A. The candidate's scaled score must be 190
  • B. The candidate's raw correct count can be converted to 162 by adding a fixed constant
  • C. The official scaled score cannot be determined from that raw count alone because scaling accounts for test-form difficulty
  • D. The candidate has definitely passed ASHA's requirement
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: C

Why: ASHA explains that the scaled score is computed from raw points in a way that adjusts for question difficulty; a simple fixed raw-to-scaled conversion is not justified.

  • Why not A: There is no universal 1-point-per-item scaling rule.
  • Why not B: A fixed additive conversion is not an official scoring method.
  • Why not D: The raw correct count alone does not establish the scaled score.

Source: Scoring the Exam

Question 44

Domain: Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis · Topic: Exam format

Which description matches the current SLP Praxis 5331 test at a glance?

  • A. 100 essay questions in 2 hours
  • B. 132 selected-response questions in 150 minutes
  • C. 120 oral-response questions in 180 minutes
  • D. 150 selected-response questions in 132 minutes
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: The ETS Study Companion lists 132 selected-response questions and a 150-minute testing time.

  • Why not A: The exam is not an essay test.
  • Why not C: The test is selected-response, not oral-response.
  • Why not D: The numbers are reversed and incorrect.

Source: Test at a Glance (PDF)

Question 45

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Speech sound treatment

A child can produce a target sound accurately in isolated practice but not in conversation. Which treatment phase should receive increased emphasis?

  • A. Establishment only
  • B. Generalization to increasingly complex and natural speaking contexts
  • C. Discharge immediately
  • D. Eliminate self-monitoring
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: After a target is established, treatment typically progresses toward generalization across syllables, words, sentences, and conversational speech, followed by maintenance.

  • Why not A: The sound is already established in a limited context.
  • Why not C: Lack of conversational carryover indicates continued treatment need.
  • Why not D: Self-monitoring can support maintenance and carryover.

Source: Treatment sequence: establishment, generalization, maintenance

Question 46

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Stuttering treatment

Which goal is most consistent with contemporary individualized stuttering treatment?

  • A. Eliminate every disfluency for every client
  • B. Address communication effectiveness, negative impact, avoidance, and personally relevant goals rather than assuming fluency is the only outcome
  • C. Require the same fluency-shaping program for all ages
  • D. Avoid discussing the person's reactions to stuttering
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Stuttering treatment is individualized and may target communication effectiveness, reduction of negative impact and avoidance, confidence, and other person-centered outcomes; increased fluency need not be the only goal.

  • Why not A: Zero-disfluency is not a universal or necessary goal.
  • Why not C: Treatment should be individualized.
  • Why not D: Affective and cognitive reactions are often important treatment targets.

Source: Treatment; stuttering treatment

Question 47

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Cluttering treatment

An adult with cluttering becomes more intelligible when speaking more slowly and inserting pauses. Which strategy is most consistent with ASHA-described treatment options?

  • A. Increase speech rate
  • B. Use rate control and pausing strategies
  • C. Avoid all self-monitoring
  • D. Use only fluency-shaping techniques designed for stuttering
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Speech-rate strategies, including increased pausing, may improve fluency and intelligibility for people who clutter.

  • Why not A: Faster rate can worsen intelligibility in cluttering.
  • Why not C: Awareness and self-monitoring can be useful.
  • Why not D: Some stuttering-oriented fluency-shaping methods may not be effective for cluttering.

Source: Cluttering Treatment

Question 48

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Aphasia treatment

Which treatment-planning approach best fits aphasia care?

  • A. Select goals entirely from test errors without asking the person what matters
  • B. Develop individualized goals collaboratively with the person with aphasia and care partners
  • C. Use the same protocol for every aphasia subtype
  • D. Target only naming because it is easiest to score
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Aphasia treatment is individualized and person-/family-centered, with goals reflecting identified needs and priorities.

  • Why not A: Functional priorities and participation should inform treatment.
  • Why not C: Aphasia presentations and needs differ substantially.
  • Why not D: Naming may be relevant but is not the only possible treatment target.

Source: Treatment

Question 49

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Dysarthria treatment

A person with progressive dysarthria is becoming difficult to understand despite restorative speech work. Which addition is most appropriate?

  • A. Wait until speech is completely unintelligible before discussing AAC
  • B. Consider compensatory communication strategies and AAC based on current and anticipated needs
  • C. Stop all communication training
  • D. Use language therapy as the sole intervention
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Dysarthria management can combine restorative and compensatory approaches, including AAC, and timing should reflect the person's needs and disease course.

  • Why not A: AAC can be introduced before complete loss of speech.
  • Why not C: Communication support remains important even with progression.
  • Why not D: Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder; language therapy alone does not address the primary impairment.

Source: Treatment; compensatory approaches; timing of AAC

Question 50

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: AAC intervention

A child communicates some needs with speech but frequently cannot repair breakdowns with unfamiliar listeners. Which statement best supports AAC use?

  • A. AAC is inappropriate because the child has some speech
  • B. AAC can supplement speech when existing communication does not meet functional needs
  • C. AAC should be delayed until adolescence
  • D. AAC requires a minimum IQ
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: AAC may augment existing speech and is appropriate when current communication abilities do not meet communication needs.

  • Why not A: AAC is not limited to people with no speech.
  • Why not C: There is no requirement to delay AAC by age alone.
  • Why not D: ASHA states that AAC has no cognitive prerequisite.

Source: AAC candidacy; no prerequisites

Question 51

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Adult dysphagia treatment

Before recommending thickened liquids for an adult with dysphagia, what should the SLP consider?

  • A. Assume thicker liquids always eliminate aspiration
  • B. Examine the effect on swallowing physiology, airway protection, hydration, medication, access, and patient preferences
  • C. Use the same viscosity for all patients with coughing
  • D. Ignore cultural and quality-of-life effects
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Diet texture modifications should be individualized and considered in light of swallowing physiology, aspiration risk, hydration, medication, access, preferences, and quality of life.

  • Why not A: Thickened liquids do not eliminate aspiration risk for every patient.
  • Why not C: One symptom does not justify a universal diet level.
  • Why not D: Patient values and cultural factors are part of appropriate management.

Source: Diet Texture Modifications

Question 52

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Pediatric feeding treatment

A child has difficulty learning to chew a soft solid. Which approach best reflects task-specific motor learning principles?

  • A. Practice only nonspeech tongue exercises with no food
  • B. Provide safe, frequent opportunities to practice the actual chewing task with appropriate food and supports
  • C. Avoid oral experiences until strength reaches an arbitrary threshold
  • D. Use one sensory technique regardless of response
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Motor learning is experience-dependent; ASHA notes that feeding intervention should provide practice closely related to the desired functional task when safe and appropriate.

  • Why not A: Isolated oral-motor exercises have limited evidence for feeding/swallowing dysfunction when used alone.
  • Why not C: An arbitrary strength threshold is not a standard prerequisite for task practice.
  • Why not D: Intervention should be individualized to the child's needs and response.

Source: Oral Motor Treatments and Sensory Techniques

Question 53

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Pediatric feeding team roles

A child cannot meet nutrition needs safely by mouth. Who makes decisions about enteral feeding?

  • A. The SLP alone
  • B. The medical/interprofessional team, with the SLP contributing swallowing and feeding information
  • C. The classroom teacher alone
  • D. The device vendor
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA states that SLPs do not make medical decisions regarding enteral feeding, though their assessment findings can inform the medical team's decision.

  • Why not A: Enteral-feeding decisions are medical/interprofessional decisions.
  • Why not C: Teachers may contribute functional information but do not make the medical decision alone.
  • Why not D: A vendor is not the decision-making authority.

Source: Tube Feeding

Question 54

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Social communication treatment

Which treatment setting is most likely to support generalization for a student with social communication difficulties?

  • A. Only decontextualized drill with no communication partners
  • B. Naturalistic settings and activities that resemble the student's real communication demands
  • C. A silent worksheet completed alone
  • D. A setting chosen only for clinician convenience
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA recommends addressing functional communication and, when possible, providing intervention in naturalistic environments relevant to the individual's daily activities.

  • Why not A: Isolated drill alone may not support functional generalization.
  • Why not C: Social communication requires interaction and contextual practice.
  • Why not D: Treatment setting should reflect functional needs.

Source: Treatment; Setting

Question 55

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Spoken language treatment

A school-age child has difficulty producing grammatically complete narratives. Which goal is most directly aligned with language intervention?

  • A. Increase ankle strength
  • B. Improve narrative organization and targeted syntax in connected language
  • C. Reduce all hand gestures
  • D. Train pure-tone detection
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Language interventions may target syntax, morphology, semantics, verbal expression, narrative production, and broader communication skills.

  • Why not A: Ankle strength is outside the language target.
  • Why not C: Gestures can support communication and are not inherently a treatment problem.
  • Why not D: Pure-tone detection is an audiologic measure, not a narrative-language goal.

Source: Language Interventions

Question 56

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Aural rehabilitation

An adult with new hearing aids still struggles in noisy meetings. Which intervention best fits aural rehabilitation?

  • A. Tell the client amplification should solve every problem
  • B. Add communication-strategy training, environmental modifications, counseling, and/or auditory training based on needs
  • C. Discontinue amplification immediately
  • D. Use articulation therapy without considering hearing or communication context
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Aural rehabilitation can combine amplification with communication strategies, environmental supports, counseling, auditory training, and other individualized components.

  • Why not A: Amplification alone may not resolve all activity and participation limitations.
  • Why not C: Persistent difficulty does not automatically mean amplification should be abandoned.
  • Why not D: Management should address hearing-related communication needs.

Source: Aural Rehabilitation

Question 57

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Voice treatment

Which factor should guide selection of a voice treatment approach?

  • A. The clinician's favorite exercise
  • B. The type and severity of the disorder and the individual's functional communication needs
  • C. A rule that every client receives the same dosage
  • D. The client's age alone
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA states that voice treatment selection depends on disorder type/severity and the individual's communication needs, with functional goals incorporated into care.

  • Why not A: Treatment should be individualized, not preference-driven.
  • Why not C: Dosage varies by patient and approach.
  • Why not D: Age can matter but is not the sole decision factor.

Source: Treatment Options; treatment selection

Question 58

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Childhood apraxia treatment

A child receives a well-supported diagnosis of CAS. Which timing is most consistent with ASHA guidance?

  • A. Wait several years to see whether the child grows out of it
  • B. Initiate intervention promptly, with motor-based treatment appropriate to the child's needs
  • C. Use only nonspeech strengthening exercises
  • D. Delay treatment until reading instruction begins
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA notes that children with diagnosed or suspected CAS generally warrant early intervention and motor-based treatment because they do not simply grow out of the disorder.

  • Why not A: CAS can improve with treatment but is not expected to resolve simply through waiting.
  • Why not C: CAS concerns speech motor planning/programming rather than a simple strength deficit.
  • Why not D: Treatment need is not contingent on the start of reading instruction.

Source: Timing; treatment

Question 59

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Multilingual intervention

A bilingual adult with dysarthria uses both Spanish and English daily. What is the most appropriate language plan for treatment?

  • A. Treat only in English because clinical materials are easier to find
  • B. Provide treatment in the language(s) used by the person, using a bilingual clinician or trained interpreter when needed
  • C. Require the family to translate all therapy materials
  • D. Exclude the less frequently used language from goal planning
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA recommends providing services in the language(s) used by the person, with trained language assistance when there is not a clinician-client language match.

  • Why not A: Convenience does not justify ignoring functional language needs.
  • Why not C: Family members are not the default substitute for trained language assistance.
  • Why not D: Both languages may be relevant to participation and goals.

Source: Treatment; cultural and linguistic factors

Question 60

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Interpreter collaboration

Which sequence best reflects ASHA-described collaboration with an interpreter?

  • A. Translate—score—dismiss
  • B. Briefing—interaction—debriefing
  • C. Diagnose—translate—refer
  • D. Observe—guess—document
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA describes a briefing–interaction–debriefing framework so the clinician and interpreter share goals, collaborate during the session, and review issues afterward.

  • Why not A: This sequence omits collaborative preparation and review.
  • Why not C: Diagnosis should be based on appropriate assessment, not simply translation.
  • Why not D: Guessing is not an acceptable clinical process.

Source: Collaborating With the Interpreter or Transliterator

Question 61

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Social communication treatment

A student has pragmatic difficulties that interfere with group projects. Which goal is most functional?

  • A. Name 50 isolated vocabulary words with no relation to the problem
  • B. Use agreed strategies to enter, maintain, and repair peer-group interactions during classroom activities
  • C. Increase eye contact to 100% in every culture and context
  • D. Memorize a definition of pragmatics
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Social communication intervention should address the individual's functional communication needs across relevant settings and partners.

  • Why not A: Vocabulary drill does not directly address the participation problem described.
  • Why not C: Eye contact norms vary and 100% eye contact is neither necessary nor culturally universal.
  • Why not D: Knowing a definition does not establish functional skill.

Source: Treatment; functional communication and setting

Question 62

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Progressive dysarthria

Which treatment goal can be appropriate for a person with a progressive neurologic disease?

  • A. Only complete restoration of premorbid speech
  • B. Preserve or maintain function and support communication participation as needs change
  • C. Avoid compensatory strategies because they prevent recovery
  • D. Delay partner training until speech is unintelligible
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: For progressive disease, dysarthria management may focus on maintaining function, slowing decline where possible, and using compensatory supports to preserve participation.

  • Why not A: Complete restoration may not be realistic in a progressive condition.
  • Why not C: Compensatory strategies can support participation.
  • Why not D: Partner training can be introduced proactively.

Source: Treatment; progressive disease and compensatory approaches

Question 63

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Fluency generalization

A teenager uses helpful stuttering-management strategies in the therapy room but not at school. What is the best next step?

  • A. Continue clinic drills only
  • B. Plan practice in increasingly natural communication environments and address barriers to generalization
  • C. Discharge because the strategy works in therapy
  • D. Require the student to avoid difficult speaking situations
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: Fluency treatment should include generalization and maintenance in daily-life communication settings that matter to the client.

  • Why not A: Clinic-only success does not establish real-world carryover.
  • Why not C: Functional generalization remains a treatment need.
  • Why not D: Avoidance can increase participation restrictions rather than solve them.

Source: Treatment; generalization and maintenance

Question 64

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Dysphagia compensation vs rehabilitation

Which statement best distinguishes a compensatory swallowing strategy from a rehabilitative exercise?

  • A. Compensatory strategies are intended to alter the swallow when used; rehabilitative exercises aim for lasting physiologic change
  • B. Compensatory strategies permanently cure dysphagia after one use
  • C. Rehabilitative exercises never involve swallowing
  • D. There is no meaningful distinction
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: A

Why: Compensatory techniques change the swallow or bolus flow during use, whereas rehabilitative exercises are intended to create lasting changes in swallowing function over time.

  • Why not B: A compensatory strategy does not necessarily produce lasting physiologic change.
  • Why not C: Many rehabilitative approaches directly target swallowing physiology.
  • Why not D: The distinction affects treatment planning and expectations.

Source: Treatment Approaches and Principles

Question 65

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: Practice-test scoring

A learner scores 51/66 on this Castleport practice set. What feedback is most appropriate?

  • A. You are guaranteed to pass because 51/66 converts to 162
  • B. Your Castleport result is 51/66; use the domain/topic breakdown to guide review, but do not treat it as an official scaled score or pass prediction
  • C. Your official Praxis score is 151
  • D. You failed because any score below 80% is failing
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: A Castleport raw percentage is feedback on these unofficial items only; official Praxis scoring is scaled and cannot be derived from a simple fixed conversion.

  • Why not A: No validated conversion from this practice set to the Praxis scaled score exists.
  • Why not C: The official scaled score cannot be inferred from this raw result.
  • Why not D: Castleport should not invent an unofficial passing cutoff.

Source: Scoring the Exam

Question 66

Domain: Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment · Topic: 2027 preparation

A student is studying in December 2026 but plans to take the national SLP exam after January 11, 2027. Which study advice is best supported by ASHA's transition guidance?

  • A. Throw away all 5331 content materials because the exam content will be replaced
  • B. Continue preparing from the current content blueprint while using PSI for 2027 registration/testing procedures
  • C. Study only new vendor policies because clinical content no longer matters
  • D. Expect a different passing score
Reveal answer and explanation

Answer: B

Why: ASHA states that exam content, format, structure, questions/content areas, and passing standards remain the same through the vendor transition, so current content preparation remains relevant.

  • Why not A: ASHA explicitly states the exam itself is not changing as part of the transition.
  • Why not C: Vendor procedures do not replace content preparation.
  • Why not D: The passing standard remains unchanged.

Source: Transition to PSI; exam content and passing standard remain the same

Your results and what to review next

Count one point for each correct answer. Your total is correct answers ÷ 66. Each official domain contains 22 questions in this set, so you can also calculate domain correct answers ÷ 22.

Do not convert this result to a Praxis scaled score. Your percentage is feedback on these 66 unofficial Castleport questions only. ASHA explains that official Praxis scaled scores are computed from raw points in a way that adjusts for question difficulty; this page does not predict whether you will pass.

Review the questions you missed and group them by the domain and topic labels below:

  • Foundations and Professional Practice: Questions 1–22
  • Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis: Questions 23–44
  • Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment: Questions 45–66

Your best next step is the topic with the most misses. Re-read the explanation and the linked authoritative source, then practice that concept again after a study interval.

What is on the SLP Praxis 5331?

The current Praxis Examination in Speech-Language Pathology (5331) contains 132 selected-response questions in 150 minutes. The blueprint is divided into three approximately equal content categories:

SLP Praxis 5331 content categories and questions in this practice set
Content category Approx. questions Approx. share Questions in this practice set
Foundations and Professional Practice 44 33⅓% 22
Screening, Assessment, Evaluation, and Diagnosis 44 33⅓% 22
Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation of Treatment 44 33⅓% 22

For ASHA certification, the current passing score is 162 on a 100–200 scale. State licensing or credentialing requirements can differ, so check the requirement that applies to your state and application.

Optional timed mode

If you want pacing practice, use 75 minutes for this 66-question set. That is a proportional half-length simulation based on the official 132-question, 150-minute test. It is not an official ETS timing rule for a 66-question form.

How to use this practice test

  1. Answer the questions without notes on your first attempt.
  2. If pacing is part of your goal, use the optional 75-minute timer.
  3. Review every missed item and its explanation.
  4. Sort misses by domain and topic instead of focusing only on the total percentage.
  5. Re-study weak concepts from the linked authoritative sources.
  6. Retake missed questions after review rather than immediately memorizing the key.

What does my practice score mean?

A Castleport practice percentage is not an official Praxis score. ETS uses scaled scoring, and ASHA notes that the scaled score is computed from raw points in a way that adjusts for question difficulty. There is no defensible one-step formula that turns a score on this 66-question set into a guaranteed score on the 100–200 Praxis scale.

For ASHA certification, the current passing score is 162. That fact does not make 81%, 62%, 51/66, or any other Castleport raw result an official equivalent of 162.

Is the SLP Praxis changing in 2027?

Yes—the test vendor and exam name change, but ASHA says the examination itself does not change as part of the transition.

  • Candidates testing through December 26, 2026 use ETS for the Praxis Examination in Speech-Language Pathology (5331).
  • Testing through PSI begins January 11, 2027 under the name National Speech-Language Pathology Examination.
  • ASHA states that the exam questions/content, format, content areas, structure, and passing standard remain unchanged.

If you are testing in 2027, use the current content blueprint for preparation but follow ASHA/PSI instructions for registration and scheduling.

Official resources

Looking for program-level outcomes rather than practice questions? See SLP Praxis Pass Rates by Program: 2026 Data From 47 Schools.

Sources and independence

Last verified: November 8, 2026

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by ETS or ASHA. All practice questions on this page are original and unofficial. Exam and credential names are used to identify the subject of this resource; trademarks belong to their respective owners.

Editorial byline: Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team

Scoring and timing on this page are manual: count your correct answers yourself, and use your own clock or timer if you want the optional 75-minute pacing mode.

Editorial status: these questions and rationales have not yet been reviewed by a licensed speech-language pathologist.

Free SLP Praxis Practice Test: 66 Questions With Answers