Castleport Test Prep

Free ARRT MRI Practice Test

Start with Question 1 below. These 60 questions are weighted to the ARRT MRI content specifications in effect since February 1, 2025, and each answer comes with an explanation and a topic to review next.

Original practice only: these are not official, recalled, or leaked ARRT exam questions.

Practice questions

Question 1

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

An implant's labeling says it is MR Conditional. What does that mean?
Show answer and explanation for Question 1

Answer: C. MR Conditional means the item has demonstrated safety only under the defined conditions in its labeling. Those conditions can include static field strength, spatial field gradient, gradient-field limits, SAR or B1+rms limits, coil restrictions, positioning, and device-programming requirements. “MR Safe” means no known hazards in any MR environment; “MR Unsafe” means unacceptable risk. Identify the exact device and follow its current labeling before scanning.

Review next: MR Safe, MR Conditional, and MR Unsafe labeling, and how to read device conditions.

Sources: 17; 1

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Question 2

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

A gradient reaches a peak amplitude of 40 mT/m with a rise time of 0.2 ms. What is its slew rate?
Show answer and explanation for Question 2

Answer: C. Slew rate = peak amplitude ÷ rise time. Convert first: 40 mT/m = 0.040 T/m and 0.2 ms = 0.0002 s, so 0.040 ÷ 0.0002 = 200 T/m/s. The other choices come from unit slips. Higher slew rates allow shorter TR, TE, and echo spacing, but faster gradient switching also raises the likelihood of peripheral nerve stimulation.

Review next: Gradient specifications: amplitude, rise time, slew rate, and duty cycle.

Sources: 20; 12; 1

Question 3

Procedures · Neurological

Why do seizure protocols typically include a 3D T1-weighted sequence with isotropic voxels of about 1 mm?
Show answer and explanation for Question 3

Answer: D. A 1 mm (or finer) isotropic 3D T1 can be reformatted in any plane without losing resolution, which supports assessment of anatomy, volume, cortical thickness, gray–white contrast, heterotopia, and sulcation, all key for subtle malformations of cortical development. CSF suppression is FLAIR's job, flow measurement is phase contrast's, and 3D T1 supplements rather than replaces T2-weighted and FLAIR imaging.

Review next: Seizure protocol: 3D isotropic T1 and reformatting.

Sources: 55; 1

Question 4

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

The gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen is 42.58 MHz/T. What is the Larmor (resonant) frequency of hydrogen at 3.0 T?
Show answer and explanation for Question 4

Answer: C. Larmor equation: f = γ × B0 = 42.58 MHz/T × 3.0 T = 127.74 MHz. 63.87 MHz is the frequency at 1.5 T, 42.58 MHz corresponds to 1.0 T, and 255.48 MHz would be 6.0 T. Frequency scales linearly with field strength: double the field, double the frequency.

Review next: The Larmor equation and resonant frequencies at 1.5 T and 3.0 T.

Sources: 18; 1

Question 5

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

Increasing the echo train length in a fast spin echo sequence, with effective TE unchanged, most likely causes:
Show answer and explanation for Question 5

Answer: D. Longer trains acquire more k-space lines per TR, so the scan gets shorter, but lines acquired late in the train have decayed more. When those late, weaker echoes fill high-spatial-frequency (edge) data, sharpness suffers; this is T2 blurring. Contrast stays about the same if effective TE is unchanged, and ETL doesn't by itself change chemical shift.

Review next: Echo train length, T2 blurring, and scan time.

Sources: 30; 1

Question 6

Procedures · Body

Why does MRCP show the bile and pancreatic ducts without any injected contrast?
Show answer and explanation for Question 6

Answer: B. MRCP uses bile and pancreatic fluid as natural contrast. Heavily T2-weighted sequences, such as HASTE or a respiratory-triggered 3D fast spin echo, make long-T2 fluid bright while surrounding tissue with shorter T2 is dark. Patients typically fast about 4 hours to reduce gastroduodenal secretions and bowel motion and to distend the gallbladder. The technique doesn't depend on gadolinium, inflow, or diffusion weighting.

Review next: MRCP: heavily T2-weighted technique and patient prep.

Sources: 48; 1

Question 7

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

Under the Nyquist theorem, if the highest frequency in the MR signal is 16 kHz, what is the minimum sampling rate needed to represent it without aliasing?
Show answer and explanation for Question 7

Answer: C. The sampling frequency must be at least twice the highest frequency present: 2 × 16 kHz = 32 kHz. Sampling more slowly causes high frequencies to be misrepresented as lower ones, which is aliasing. Sampling at 64 kHz also works, but it isn't the minimum.

Review next: The Nyquist theorem and sampling rate.

Sources: 25; 1

Question 8

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

In a spoiled gradient echo sequence with a short TR and short TE, increasing the flip angle from 10° to 70° shifts image contrast toward:
Show answer and explanation for Question 8

Answer: D. In spoiled GRE, T1 weighting is favored by a short TR, a relatively large flip angle, and a short TE. Small flip angles favor proton density weighting, and lengthening TE adds T2* weighting. Gradient echo has no 180° refocusing pulse, so it reflects T2* rather than true T2.

Review next: Spoiled GRE contrast: flip angle, TR, and TE.

Sources: 35; 21; 1

Question 9

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

Which part of k-space contributes most to overall image contrast and signal?
Show answer and explanation for Question 9

Answer: A. Central k-space holds the low spatial frequencies that set overall signal, contrast, and the coarse shape of anatomy. The periphery holds high spatial frequencies that encode edges and fine detail, which is spatial resolution. That's why fast spin echo contrast follows the echo that fills the center (effective TE), and why contrast-enhanced MRA times the center of k-space to peak arterial enhancement.

Review next: What the center vs. the periphery of k-space contributes.

Sources: 23; 1

Question 10

Patient Care · Patient Interactions and Management

A technologist employed by a hospital injures a patient while performing an MRI exam as part of assigned duties. The patient sues the hospital rather than the technologist. Which legal doctrine allows the hospital to be held liable?
Show answer and explanation for Question 10

Answer: C. Respondeat superior makes an employer liable for an employee's wrongful conduct committed while carrying out job duties, which is exactly this situation. Res ipsa loquitur (“the thing speaks for itself”) lets negligence be inferred from the nature of an injury; it concerns proving negligence, not who answers for it. Implied consent is consent inferred from conduct or an emergency. Beneficence is the ethical duty to act for the patient's good, not a liability rule.

Review next: Legal doctrines in the Patient Care outline: respondeat superior, res ipsa loquitur, negligence, battery.

Sources: 1; 47

Question 11

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

A line of alternating bright and dark dots runs through the image along the phase-encoding direction at a fixed location. The scanner-room door was found slightly ajar. What is this artifact?
Show answer and explanation for Question 11

Answer: B. A zipper along the phase-encode direction usually means outside RF energy is reaching the receiver: an open or poorly sealed door, damaged RF shielding, or RF-emitting equipment in the room. Close the door, check the shielding, and remove the source; call service if it persists. Gibbs ringing appears as parallel lines at sharp edges, motion ghosts are repeated copies of moving anatomy, and partial volume averaging blurs thin structures within a thick slice.

Review next: RF (zipper) artifacts and RF shielding.

Sources: 27; 1

Question 12

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

If NEX is doubled and every other parameter stays the same, what happens?
Show answer and explanation for Question 12

Answer: A. SNR is proportional to the square root of NEX, so doubling NEX raises SNR by √2, about 1.41, while imaging time is directly proportional to NEX and doubles. To double SNR by averaging alone you'd need four times the NEX, and four times the time.

Review next: NEX: its effect on SNR (square root) and scan time (linear).

Sources: 29; 1

Question 13

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

Which component's main job is to improve the homogeneity of the static magnetic field (B0)?
Show answer and explanation for Question 13

Answer: D. Shimming corrects B0 inhomogeneity from the magnet itself and from nearby steel, either passively with ferromagnetic shim pieces or actively with current-carrying shim coils. Gradient coils deliberately create linear field variations for spatial encoding; the RF coil transmits the B1 field and/or receives signal; the quench vent carries helium gas out of the building during a quench.

Review next: Magnet hardware: shim, gradient, and RF coils and what each does.

Sources: 19; 1

Question 14

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

During a brain MRI, a patient becomes unresponsive and pulseless. What is the best immediate action?
Show answer and explanation for Question 14

Answer: B. For a cardiac or respiratory arrest in Zone IV, the priority is rapid evacuation to a predetermined magnetically safe location and immediate basic life support. If removal is delayed by more than a few seconds, trained MR personnel should begin needed resuscitation while evacuation continues. MR Unsafe equipment such as a conventional AED or crash cart must not be brought into Zone IV, and quenching is not routinely recommended for a medical code. Follow the facility's MR emergency procedure.

Review next: MR emergency procedures: medical emergencies in Zone IV and quench hazards.

Sources: 14; 1

Question 15

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

Why is STIR generally avoided for post-contrast imaging?
Show answer and explanation for Question 15

Answer: C. STIR suppresses any tissue whose T1 is close to fat's at the chosen TI. Gadolinium shortens T1, so enhancing tissue can be nulled and the enhancement you wanted to show disappears. Post-contrast fat suppression therefore usually uses a fat-selective method, such as spectral fat saturation or a Dixon technique. STIR's strength is the opposite situation: it is relatively insensitive to B0 inhomogeneity, so it works near metal and away from isocenter.

Review next: Fat suppression choices: STIR vs. spectral fat saturation vs. Dixon.

Sources: 34; 22; 1

Question 16

Procedures · Musculoskeletal

An elbow exam must be done with the arm at the patient's side, well off isocenter, and spectral (frequency-selective) fat saturation is patchy. For a non-contrast fluid-sensitive sequence, which approach is most likely to suppress fat uniformly?
Show answer and explanation for Question 16

Answer: A. Frequency-selective fat saturation needs a homogeneous B0 and can fail far from isocenter, near metal, or where susceptibility varies, because the local fat frequency shifts away from the saturation pulse. STIR suppresses fat by T1 rather than by frequency, so it is relatively insensitive to B0 inhomogeneity. Since STIR isn't fat-specific, keep it to non-contrast imaging. More NEX raises SNR but doesn't fix uneven suppression, and bandwidth doesn't correct field inhomogeneity.

Review next: Fat suppression off isocenter and near metal.

Sources: 34; 1

Question 17

Procedures · Body

On in-phase and opposed-phase (out-of-phase) gradient echo imaging, an adrenal mass loses signal on the opposed-phase images. What does this suggest?
Show answer and explanation for Question 17

Answer: A. When fat and water protons share a voxel, their signals partly cancel on opposed-phase images. Visible signal loss compared with in-phase images therefore supports the presence of microscopic intracellular lipid, a characteristic finding of a lipid-rich adrenal adenoma. Hemorrhage, calcification, and simple fluid do not create the same fat-water cancellation pattern. Quantitative thresholds depend on the measurement method and should not be treated as a universal cutoff in this practice item.

Review next: In-phase and opposed-phase imaging in the abdomen.

Sources: 49; 1

Question 18

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

Which of these is a weekly technologist quality control test in the ACR MRI accreditation program?
Show answer and explanation for Question 18

Answer: B. ACR MRI accreditation requires an ongoing technologist QC program at least at the minimum frequencies in the ACR MRI Quality Control Manual. Center frequency and transmitter gain or attenuation are among the technologist QC measurements; annual system performance evaluation is the medical physicist/MR scientist's responsibility. A planned quench and gradient-coil replacement are not routine QC tests.

Review next: Quality control: center frequency, transmit gain, and the other weekly tests.

Sources: 53; 1

Question 19

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

What is DICOM?
Show answer and explanation for Question 19

Answer: B. Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM), recognized as ISO 12052, defines how medical images and their associated information are structured and shared, which lets scanners, PACS, and workstations from different vendors work together. It isn't MRI-only or vendor-specific. The federal privacy rule for health information is HIPAA, which the content outline lists under confidentiality.

Review next: Informatics: DICOM, PACS, and confidentiality.

Sources: 44; 1

Question 20

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

A conventional spin echo sequence uses TR 500 ms, 256 phase-encoding steps, and 2 NEX. What is the scan time?
Show answer and explanation for Question 20

Answer: C. Scan time = TR × phase-encoding steps × NEX = 0.5 s × 256 × 2 = 256 s = 4 min 16 s. The frequency matrix doesn't appear in the formula; only phase-encoding steps add time. Halving NEX or the phase steps would give 2 min 8 s, and doubling either would give 8 min 32 s.

Review next: The scan-time formula: TR × phase-encoding steps × NEX.

Sources: 43; 29; 1

Question 21

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

A phase-contrast flow scan is set with a VENC of 60 cm/s, but the peak velocity in the vessel is about 90 cm/s. What will happen, and how is it fixed?
Show answer and explanation for Question 21

Answer: D. VENC is the velocity that produces a 180° phase shift. Faster flow wraps past ±180° and is displayed as flow in the opposite direction, called velocity aliasing: 90 cm/s at a VENC of 60 gives a 270° shift, read as −90°, or about 30 cm/s backward. Raise VENC to just above the expected maximum (a common starting point is 20–25% above). Setting VENC far too high causes the opposite problem: small phase shifts, noisy measurements, and poor depiction of slow flow.

Review next: Velocity encoding (VENC) and velocity aliasing.

Sources: 37; 1

Question 22

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

At 1.5 T, fat and water differ in frequency by about 220 Hz. With a total receive bandwidth of 32 kHz across 256 frequency-encoding pixels, about how far will fat be shifted relative to water?
Show answer and explanation for Question 22

Answer: B. Bandwidth per pixel = 32,000 Hz ÷ 256 = 125 Hz per pixel. Shift = 220 Hz ÷ 125 Hz per pixel ≈ 1.8 pixels, along the frequency-encoding direction. Narrowing the bandwidth per pixel enlarges the shift; widening it shrinks it. At 3.0 T the fat–water difference doubles to about 440 Hz, so the same settings would give about 3.5 pixels.

Review next: Chemical shift artifact: the fat–water frequency difference and bandwidth per pixel.

Sources: 26; 1

Question 23

Procedures · Neurological

For a phase-contrast CSF flow study, why is a much lower VENC used than for arterial flow imaging?
Show answer and explanation for Question 23

Answer: C. VENC should sit just above the fastest velocity expected. CSF moves far more slowly than arterial blood, and a VENC sized for arteries would use only a small part of the available phase range, producing small phase shifts, poor velocity-to-noise, and weak depiction of slow flow. Lowering VENC raises sensitivity, but setting it below the true peak causes aliasing, so it doesn't prevent aliasing. VENC doesn't set scan time.

Review next: CSF flow studies and choosing a VENC.

Sources: 37; 1

Question 24

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

For 2D time-of-flight MRA of the carotid arteries, where should a spatial saturation band be placed to suppress jugular venous signal?
Show answer and explanation for Question 24

Answer: B. Saturation bands act on blood before it flows into the slice, and venous blood enters from the side opposite the arterial inflow. In the neck, carotid blood flows upward from below while jugular blood flows downward from above, so the venous band goes superior to the slab; in multislice 2D TOF it “walks” with each slice at a fixed offset. A band below the slab would saturate the arteries you're trying to show. TOF depicts any unsaturated inflowing blood, so veins appear unless suppressed.

Review next: TOF MRA and where to place saturation bands.

Sources: 38; 1

Question 25

Procedures · Musculoskeletal

Which sequence is among the most sensitive for detecting meniscal tears in the knee?
Show answer and explanation for Question 25

Answer: A. Short-TE images are the most sensitive for meniscal tears. ACR teaching materials list non-fat-suppressed proton density FSE with a short effective TE (under about 20 ms), T1-weighted, and gradient echo sequences as having high sensitivity and specificity for the menisci. Long-TE sequences are less sensitive for meniscal tears, and phase contrast measures flow.

Review next: Knee MRI: sequences for the menisci.

Sources: 54; 1

Question 26

Procedures · Neurological

On dynamic contrast-enhanced coronal T1 imaging of the pituitary, how does a typical microadenoma appear compared with the normal gland?
Show answer and explanation for Question 26

Answer: D. On rapid dynamic imaging, a microadenoma typically shows up as an area of lesser enhancement than the surrounding gland. Some microadenomas are clearest on the dynamic series and others on the routine post-contrast images, which is why pituitary protocols acquire both. A flow void is a vascular finding, not an adenoma feature.

Review next: Pituitary protocol: dynamic contrast imaging.

Sources: 56; 1

Question 27

Procedures · Musculoskeletal

For a direct shoulder MR arthrogram, which combination is standard?
Show answer and explanation for Question 27

Answer: A. Direct MR arthrography distends the joint with an intra-articular dilute gadolinium-containing solution placed under image guidance. T1-weighted fat-suppressed imaging makes the contrast-filled joint bright while suppressing fat, helping outline labral and chondrolabral abnormalities. The exact mixture and injection technique are protocol-dependent, so this item does not assume one universal dilution. Intravenous gadolinium is the indirect technique, and STIR is generally avoided after gadolinium because it can suppress enhancing short-T1 tissue.

Review next: Direct MR arthrography: contrast and sequences.

Sources: 59; 34; 1

Question 28

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

On an apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) map, how does an area of truly restricted diffusion appear?
Show answer and explanation for Question 28

Answer: C. The ADC map displays diffusivity directly. Restricted diffusion means a low ADC, so the area is dark, the reverse of its bright appearance on trace DWI. Checking the ADC map is how you separate true restriction from T2 shine-through, which is bright on DWI but not dark on ADC.

Review next: DWI and ADC maps: how restricted diffusion looks on each.

Sources: 40; 1

Question 29

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

On a sagittal lumbar spine, abdominal tissue outside the field of view wraps into the image along the phase-encoding direction. Which change most directly eliminates it while keeping the same displayed FOV and resolution?
Show answer and explanation for Question 29

Answer: D. Wrap-around (aliasing) occurs when anatomy outside the phase FOV is mapped back into the image. Phase oversampling acquires extra phase-encoding steps beyond the displayed FOV and discards them during reconstruction, which largely eliminates the wrap without changing displayed FOV or resolution, usually at some cost in scan time. Shrinking the FOV makes wrap worse, and NEX and bandwidth don't change the phase FOV. Other remedies: enlarge the phase FOV, swap phase and frequency directions, saturate tissue outside the FOV, or use a surface coil that sees less distant tissue.

Review next: Aliasing (wrap-around): causes and every remedy.

Sources: 24; 1

Question 30

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

Parallel imaging is applied with an acceleration factor (R) of 2. Compared with the unaccelerated scan, what is the expected trade-off?
Show answer and explanation for Question 30

Answer: C. Parallel imaging skips phase-encoding lines and uses coil sensitivity information to reconstruct the image, cutting time by roughly R. SNR falls by √R (about 0.71 for R = 2) because fewer samples are taken, and further by the geometry factor (g-factor), which depends on coil arrangement and can make noise uneven across the image. Higher R and poorly placed coils increase the penalty.

Review next: Parallel imaging: acceleration factor, SNR loss, and g-factor.

Sources: 36; 1

Question 31

Procedures · Body

After injecting gadoxetate disodium for liver MRI, when is the hepatobiliary (hepatocyte) phase most commonly acquired?
Show answer and explanation for Question 31

Answer: C. Gadoxetate is taken up by functioning hepatocytes and excreted into bile, and most published protocols acquire the hepatobiliary phase about 20 minutes after injection. One study found adequate hepatocyte-phase enhancement in 80% of patients by 15 minutes and 93% by 20 minutes. Uptake depends on liver function, so cirrhosis can delay or weaken it. The earlier timings belong to the dynamic vascular phases.

Review next: Liver MRI with hepatobiliary agents: phase timing.

Sources: 51; 1

Question 32

Patient Care · Patient Interactions and Management

A patient with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis needs an urgent MRI. Which precautions should staff use?
Show answer and explanation for Question 32

Answer: B. CDC recommends Airborne Precautions for known or suspected infectious pulmonary tuberculosis. Healthcare personnel entering the patient's room use a fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 or higher-level respirator; the patient should wear a mask during medically necessary transport. Standard Precautions still apply, but they are not sufficient by themselves for suspected airborne TB. The MRI department must coordinate transport and room handling with the facility's infection-control policy.

Review next: CDC transmission-based precautions: contact, droplet, and airborne, and the PPE for each.

Sources: 45; 1

Question 33

Procedures · Musculoskeletal

Which criterion is commonly used to call a definite meniscal tear on MRI?
Show answer and explanation for Question 33

Answer: A. Meniscal signal that reaches the articular surface on at least two images indicates a definite tear; surface contact on only one image is treated as a possible tear. Internal signal that doesn't reach the surface doesn't meet this rule, and the other choices aren't tear criteria. Knowing the rule helps you prescribe thin, contiguous slices that cover the whole meniscus.

Review next: Meniscal tear criteria and slice coverage.

Sources: 54; 1

Question 34

Procedures · Neurological

A brain lesion is moderately bright on trace diffusion-weighted images, bright (not dark) on the ADC map, and bright on T2-weighted images. What best explains the DWI brightness?
Show answer and explanation for Question 34

Answer: A. Trace DWI images are both diffusion-weighted and T2-weighted, so a lesion with a very long T2 can look bright even when diffusion isn't restricted. The ADC map settles it: true restriction is dark on ADC, but this lesion is bright on ADC, pointing to increased diffusivity and T2 shine-through. Susceptibility artifact causes signal loss and distortion, and chemical shift causes fat–water misregistration; neither fits.

Review next: T2 shine-through vs. true restricted diffusion.

Sources: 40; 1

Question 35

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

To detect small amounts of blood products such as hemosiderin in the brain, which type of sequence is most sensitive?
Show answer and explanation for Question 35

Answer: D. Gradient echo sequences have no 180° refocusing pulse, so dephasing from local susceptibility differences, such as iron in blood products, isn't reversed. Those areas lose signal and “bloom,” which makes T2*-weighted GRE and SWI the most sensitive choices. Spin echo and fast spin echo refocus static susceptibility effects, so small deposits are easy to miss. STIR is a fat-suppression technique, not a susceptibility-sensitive one.

Review next: Magnetic susceptibility and why GRE and SWI show blood products.

Sources: 21; 1

Question 36

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

A patient positioned for a pelvis MRI rests with hands clasped together over the abdomen. What should the technologist do before scanning?
Show answer and explanation for Question 36

Answer: B. Clasped hands, crossed legs, or touching thighs can form a conductive loop that concentrates RF-induced current at a small contact point and causes a burn, with no metal involved. Use MR-specific foam padding to separate body parts and to keep skin off the bore and coil cables. Hospital bedding shouldn't go on the MR table; use MR-provided linens. Slice count doesn't affect the loop, and acoustic noise is a separate gradient issue.

Review next: RF heating: conductive loops, proximity burns, and padding.

Sources: 16; 12; 1

Question 37

Procedures · Neurological

Sagittal cervical spine images show artifact across the spinal canal from the patient swallowing. Which adjustment most directly reduces it?
Show answer and explanation for Question 37

Answer: D. A saturation band suppresses signal from moving tissue before readout, so it can't propagate as artifact across the canal. Placing it over the anterior neck is the standard way to reduce swallowing artifact over the cervical spine; coaching the patient not to swallow during each acquisition helps too. Thicker slices, a shorter TR, or a larger FOV don't remove the moving signal source.

Review next: Cervical spine motion control: saturation bands.

Sources: 38; 1

Question 38

Procedures · Neurological

A brain MRI is ordered to evaluate multiple sclerosis. Which sequence is a core part of consensus MS protocols and best shows lesions oriented perpendicular to the lateral ventricles?
Show answer and explanation for Question 38

Answer: A. Consensus MS brain protocols include sagittal T2-FLAIR (often 3D, with reformats), axial T2, and post-contrast T1. FLAIR is more sensitive than T2 for periventricular and juxtacortical plaques, and lesions radiating perpendicular to the ventricles (Dawson fingers) are best seen on parasagittal images. Non-contrast T1 and T2* GRE aren't core lesion-detection sequences, and cervical spine STIR belongs to a separate spine exam.

Review next: Brain MRI for MS: core sequences and imaging planes.

Sources: 57; 58; 1

Question 39

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

What does a T2-FLAIR sequence suppress, and roughly what TI is used?
Show answer and explanation for Question 39

Answer: B. FLAIR (fluid-attenuated inversion recovery) uses a long TI, on the order of 2,500 ms in typical examples, to null free water such as CSF, so periventricular and cortical lesions stand out on T2-weighted images. A TI near 180 ms is STIR, which nulls fat, and about 650 ms would null gray matter at 1.5 T. Exact TIs vary with TR and field strength.

Review next: Inversion recovery sequences: STIR and FLAIR.

Sources: 33; 32; 1

Question 40

Procedures · Neurological

For a seizure-protocol brain MRI, how should the high-resolution coronal T2 images be angled?
Show answer and explanation for Question 40

Answer: C. Epilepsy protocols use a thin, high in-plane-resolution coronal T2 angled perpendicular to the long axis of the hippocampus, so each slice cuts across the hippocampus and its internal structure can be compared side to side, as in suspected mesial temporal sclerosis. AC–PC alignment is used for the axial plane. Slices parallel to the hippocampal axis would run along it instead of across it.

Review next: Brain MRI for seizure: hippocampal angulation.

Sources: 55; 1

Question 41

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

Why does tissue that takes up gadolinium appear brighter on T1-weighted images?
Show answer and explanation for Question 41

Answer: C. Gadolinium is paramagnetic and shortens both T1 and T2, but at clinical doses the dominant visible effect is T1 shortening: tissue recovers more longitudinal magnetization between excitations and appears brighter on T1-weighted images. It doesn't add protons or lengthen T2, and the gadolinium ion isn't imaged directly; we see its effect on nearby water protons. At high concentrations, T2 and T2* shortening can cause signal loss instead.

Review next: How gadolinium changes T1 and T2.

Sources: 22; 1

Question 42

Procedures · Body

On a T1-weighted axial abdomen, pulsatile flow artifact from the aorta propagates across the liver. Which technique most directly reduces it?
Show answer and explanation for Question 42

Answer: D. A superior saturation pulse saturates blood before it flows down the aorta into the imaged slices, which reduces aortic signal and removes the flow artifact it causes. A slice gap, longer TE, or smaller FOV doesn't remove the moving signal source, and a smaller FOV can add wrap-around.

Review next: Flow artifact control in the abdomen: superior saturation pulses.

Sources: 38; 24; 1

Question 43

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

Which TR and TE combination produces T1 weighting in a spin echo sequence?
Show answer and explanation for Question 43

Answer: A. Short TR emphasizes differences in T1 recovery, and short TE minimizes T2 effects, giving T1 weighting. Long TR with short TE minimizes both effects and gives proton density weighting; long TR with long TE gives T2 weighting. Short TR with long TE isn't a combination used in practice.

Review next: TR and TE choices for T1, T2, and PD weighting.

Sources: 31; 1

Question 44

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

For STIR fat suppression at 1.5 T, approximately what inversion time (TI) is used?
Show answer and explanation for Question 44

Answer: B. STIR nulls fat by reading out when fat's recovering longitudinal magnetization crosses zero, about 0.69 × the T1 of fat when TR is long, which is roughly 180 ms at 1.5 T. About 650 ms would null gray matter at 1.5 T, and about 2,500 ms is in the range used for FLAIR to null CSF. Null times move upward at 3.0 T.

Review next: Inversion times that null fat, gray matter, and CSF.

Sources: 32; 33; 1

Question 45

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

For a cylindrical superconducting scanner, where is translational force on a ferromagnetic object generally greatest?
Show answer and explanation for Question 45

Answer: A. Translational force depends on both the static magnetic field and its spatial field gradient, so it is greatest where their relevant product is greatest. For many cylindrical systems this occurs near a bore opening, where the field changes rapidly, but the exact location is magnet-specific and must be taken from the manufacturer's spatial-gradient information. Torque is a different effect and tends to track field strength rather than the spatial gradient alone.

Review next: Translational force vs. torque, and the spatial gradient of the static field.

Sources: 14; 1

Question 46

Patient Care · Patient Interactions and Management

Bacteria from one patient's skin survive on an inadequately cleaned surface coil and infect the next patient. How is this transmission classified?
Show answer and explanation for Question 46

Answer: D. A fomite is an inanimate object, such as a coil, positioning sponge, or bedding, that carries an infectious agent from one host to another. CDC classifies this as indirect, vehicleborne transmission. Direct contact requires person-to-person contact; vectorborne transmission uses a living carrier such as a mosquito or tick; airborne transmission uses droplet nuclei or dust suspended in air. The fix is disinfecting equipment between patients.

Review next: The chain of infection and direct vs. indirect (vehicleborne, vectorborne, airborne) transmission.

Sources: 46; 1

Question 47

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

In a spin echo sequence, what does the 180° refocusing pulse correct?
Show answer and explanation for Question 47

Answer: B. The 180° pulse reverses phase spread caused by static, time-independent frequency differences (magnet inhomogeneity, static susceptibility gradients, chemical shift), so those spins rephase at TE. It can't undo true T2 decay, which comes from random, time-varying field fluctuations between spins; the spin–spin and molecular-motion options both describe that. T1 recovery is longitudinal and isn't what the refocusing pulse addresses. This is why spin echo images reflect T2 while gradient echo images reflect T2*.

Review next: T2 vs. T2* decay and what the 180° refocusing pulse does.

Sources: 21; 1

Question 48

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

In a fast spin echo sequence, which parameter primarily determines the T2 weighting of the image?
Show answer and explanation for Question 48

Answer: D. FSE contrast is set mainly by the echo that fills central k-space, the effective TE. Changing ETL alone doesn't change contrast if effective TE stays the same, although longer trains shorten scan time and increase blurring. Slice number affects coverage and timing, and receiver bandwidth changes chemical shift displacement, not T2 weighting.

Review next: Effective TE and how FSE contrast is set.

Sources: 30; 23; 26; 1

Question 49

Procedures · Musculoskeletal

A supraspinatus tendon shows increased signal on a short-TE proton density image, but the signal disappears on a T2-weighted image with a TE of 80 ms. What is the most likely explanation?
Show answer and explanation for Question 49

Answer: D. Tightly ordered collagen fibers, such as tendon, can show artificially increased signal on short-TE sequences when they lie at about 55° (54.7°) to B0. In tendons the effect usually fades once TE exceeds about 40 ms, so signal that disappears on long-TE images is consistent with magic angle rather than pathology; a true tear would stay abnormal on T2-weighted images. Chemical shift and partial volume don't depend on fiber orientation.

Review next: The magic angle effect and TE.

Sources: 42; 1

Question 50

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

In contrast-enhanced MRA with centric or elliptical-centric k-space ordering, why is acquisition timed to peak arterial enhancement?
Show answer and explanation for Question 50

Answer: B. Central k-space largely determines image contrast. Acquiring it first, at the arterial peak, maximizes arterial signal, while venous enhancement arriving later lands mostly in peripheral k-space, which affects edge detail more than overall signal, so venous contamination drops. Mistiming lowers arterial contrast and can raise venous signal. The view ordering doesn't change total scan time or the dose given.

Review next: Contrast-enhanced MRA timing and centric k-space ordering.

Sources: 39; 23; 1

Question 51

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

The same sequence (TR 500 ms, 256 phase-encoding steps, 2 NEX) is run as fast spin echo with an echo train length of 4. Ignoring slice-coverage limits, about how long will it take?
Show answer and explanation for Question 51

Answer: A. Fast spin echo acquires several phase-encoding lines per TR, so imaging time is roughly the conventional time divided by ETL: 256 s ÷ 4 = 64 s, about 1 min 4 s. The 17 min 4 s choice multiplies instead of divides. In practice, long echo trains can limit how many slices fit in each TR, which can eat into the savings.

Review next: How echo train length changes FSE scan time.

Sources: 30; 43; 1

Question 52

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

In the American College of Radiology four-zone model, in which zone do patients typically change and complete MR safety screening under supervision?
Show answer and explanation for Question 52

Answer: B. In the ACR four-zone model, Zone II is the supervised interface between the freely accessible public area (Zone I) and the more tightly controlled Zones III and IV. Patient preparation and MR screening commonly occur there before a patient enters Zone III. Zone IV is the magnet room itself.

Review next: ACR Zones I–IV and who may enter each.

Sources: 14; 1

Question 53

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

Why is wrap-around rarely seen along the frequency-encoding direction on modern scanners?
Show answer and explanation for Question 53

Answer: D. Modern receivers sample the readout more finely than the displayed resolution requires (frequency oversampling) and filter out signal beyond the receiver bandwidth before digitizing it. Together these keep frequency-direction wrap uncommon, though it can still occur if those safeguards fail, so it isn't impossible. Phase-direction wrap is the one that needs active remedies such as phase oversampling.

Review next: Frequency oversampling and anti-alias filtering.

Sources: 25; 24; 1

Question 54

Procedures · Body

Under ACR breast MRI accreditation parameters, when must the early post-contrast T1-weighted series be completed?
Show answer and explanation for Question 54

Answer: C. ACR requires a multiphase T1 series (pre-contrast, early post-contrast, and delayed post-contrast), with the early post-contrast series completed within 4 minutes of the end of the injection; the saline flush isn't counted. A T2-weighted or bright-fluid series is also required. Subtraction images are needed when chemical-shift fat suppression isn't used, but they don't replace correct timing.

Review next: Breast MRI: required series and post-contrast timing.

Sources: 52; 1

Question 55

Patient Care · Patient Interactions and Management

A patient with known stage 4 chronic kidney disease is scheduled for contrast-enhanced MRI. Which laboratory value is used to estimate kidney function when deciding whether, and which, gadolinium agent to give?
Show answer and explanation for Question 55

Answer: C. eGFR is the standard laboratory estimate used to describe kidney function and is calculated from serum creatinine together with patient variables used by the equation. Current ACR contrast guidance strongly prefers Group II gadolinium-based contrast agents for patients at risk for NSF and emphasizes that acute kidney injury cannot be ruled out by eGFR alone. Hemoglobin, INR, and potassium do not estimate renal filtration. The actual contrast decision follows current facility policy and physician/radiologist judgment.

Review next: Lab values before contrast: BUN, creatinine, eGFR, and what each tells you.

Sources: 41; 1

Question 56

Patient Care · Patient Interactions and Management

Under the ACR classification of gadolinium-based contrast agents, which group accounts for most reported cases of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) and is no longer recommended for use?
Show answer and explanation for Question 56

Answer: B. ACR Group I agents are the agents associated with the greatest number of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) cases. Current ACR guidance lists gadodiamide, gadopentetate dimeglumine, and gadoversetamide in Group I. Group II agents are associated with few, if any, unconfounded NSF cases and now include gadobenate dimeglumine, gadobutrol, gadoteric acid, gadoteridol, gadopiclenol, and gadoxetate disodium. “Macrocyclic” describes molecular structure; it is not itself an ACR NSF risk group.

Review next: ACR gadolinium agent groups and NSF risk.

Sources: 41; 1

Question 57

Image Production · Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage

Compared with time-of-flight MRA, what additional information can phase-contrast imaging provide?
Show answer and explanation for Question 57

Answer: A. Phase-contrast imaging encodes velocity as a phase shift scaled to the VENC you choose, so it can quantify flow speed and show direction (and aliases if velocity exceeds VENC). Time-of-flight relies on inflow of unsaturated spins to make vessels bright; it shows where blood flows but doesn't measure velocity. Phase contrast depends on choosing an appropriate VENC, and it needs flow to generate the velocity signal.

Review next: MRA methods: time-of-flight vs. phase contrast.

Sources: 37; 38; 1

Question 58

Image Production · Sequence Parameters and Options

Slice thickness is reduced from 6 mm to 3 mm with FOV, matrix, and all other parameters unchanged. How does SNR change?
Show answer and explanation for Question 58

Answer: A. SNR is proportional to voxel volume, and halving slice thickness halves the voxel volume, so SNR drops by about half. The square-root relationship (about a 29% loss) applies to NEX, not to voxel size. Thinner slices improve through-plane resolution and reduce partial volume averaging, so you often buy back SNR with more NEX or a better coil.

Review next: Voxel volume and SNR: slice thickness, FOV, and matrix.

Sources: 29; 1

Question 59

Safety · MRI Screening and Safety

A protocol is moved from a 1.5 T scanner to a 3.0 T scanner with the same RF pulses and timing. Approximately how does the specific absorption rate (SAR) change?
Show answer and explanation for Question 59

Answer: D. RF power deposition tends to rise substantially at higher field strength because the Larmor frequency is higher; under otherwise comparable pulse conditions, SAR is commonly approximated as increasing with the square of field strength. Moving from 1.5 T to 3.0 T can therefore raise SAR by about fourfold, which is why 3 T protocols may need changes such as lower flip/refocusing angles, longer TR, fewer slices per TR, or other low-SAR strategies. Actual scanner-reported SAR depends on the full pulse sequence, patient model, coil, and system implementation, so the fourfold figure is an approximation for the stated comparison.

Review next: SAR, what raises it, and how 3 T protocols reduce it.

Sources: 12; 1

Question 60

Image Production · Physical Principles of Image Formation

Fine parallel lines appear next to the spinal cord at the cord–CSF boundary on a sagittal T2 image, mimicking a thin syrinx. Which change is most likely to reduce them?
Show answer and explanation for Question 60

Answer: A. This is Gibbs (truncation) ringing. Only a finite portion of k-space is sampled, so sharp, high-contrast edges ring, usually most in the phase direction, where fewer samples are taken. Sampling more of k-space (more phase-encoding steps, or a smaller FOV with the same matrix) reduces it; filtering also helps at some cost to sharpness. Slice thickness, NEX, and fat suppression don't address truncation.

Review next: Gibbs (truncation) artifact: cause and compensation.

Sources: 28; 1

Answer key and section tally

Mark each miss, then count your misses by section in the second table. The subcategory where you missed the most is your first review priority.

Q Answer Section
1 C Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
2 C Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
3 D Procedures — Neurological
4 C Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
5 D Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
6 B Procedures — Body
7 C Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
8 D Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
9 A Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
10 C Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management
11 B Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
12 A Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
13 D Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
14 B Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
15 C Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
16 A Procedures — Musculoskeletal
17 A Procedures — Body
18 B Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
19 B Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
20 C Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
21 D Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
22 B Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
23 C Procedures — Neurological
24 B Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
25 A Procedures — Musculoskeletal
26 D Procedures — Neurological
27 A Procedures — Musculoskeletal
28 C Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
29 D Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
30 C Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
31 C Procedures — Body
32 B Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management
33 A Procedures — Musculoskeletal
34 A Procedures — Neurological
35 D Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
36 B Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
37 D Procedures — Neurological
38 A Procedures — Neurological
39 B Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
40 C Procedures — Neurological
41 C Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
42 D Procedures — Body
43 A Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
44 B Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
45 A Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
46 D Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management
47 B Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
48 D Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
49 D Procedures — Musculoskeletal
50 B Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
51 A Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
52 B Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
53 D Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
54 C Procedures — Body
55 C Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management
56 B Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management
57 A Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
58 A Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options
59 D Safety — MRI Screening and Safety
60 A Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation
ARRT section Questions on this page Items here Scored items on the real exam
Patient Care — Patient Interactions and Management 10, 32, 46, 55, 56 5 16
Safety — MRI Screening and Safety 1, 14, 36, 45, 52, 59 6 21
Image Production — Physical Principles of Image Formation 2, 4, 9, 11, 13, 18, 22, 29, 35, 41, 47, 60 12 40
Image Production — Sequence Parameters and Options 8, 12, 15, 20, 21, 30, 43, 44, 48, 51, 58 11 36
Image Production — Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage 5, 7, 19, 24, 28, 39, 50, 53, 57 9 30
Procedures — Neurological 3, 23, 26, 34, 37, 38, 40 7 25
Procedures — Body 6, 17, 31, 42, 54 5 15
Procedures — Musculoskeletal 16, 25, 27, 33, 49 5 17
Total 60 200

Your percentage here is feedback on these 60 questions only, and with five to twelve questions per subcategory, one or two misses can swing a section a lot. It isn't an ARRT score or a pass prediction (see Is 75% on this practice test a passing score?).

How to learn from the questions you miss

  1. Read the whole explanation before you retry. The point is why the right answer works, not which letter it was.
  2. Say the rule in your own words. For a calculation, redo it on paper without looking.
  3. Explain why each wrong option fails. If you can't, that distractor is a second topic to review.
  4. Study the “Review next” topic, then retest it later with a differently worded question, such as from your program's materials or another source. Re-answering the same item after you've seen the key mostly tests memory of the wording.

How this practice test matches the real exam

The 60 questions follow ARRT's current MRI content specifications, which took effect February 1, 2025 (1). Each of the eight subcategories gets roughly 30% of its scored-question count on the real exam, rounded to whole questions, so Image Production carries the most weight here just as it does on test day.

Section Scored questions (ARRT) Share of scored exam Questions here
Patient Care 16 8% 5
Safety 21 10.5% 6
Image Production 106 53% 32
Procedures 57 28.5% 17
Total 200 60

What it can't copy: ARRT exams are mostly single-best-answer multiple choice, but some questions ask you to select several answers, sort items into order, click an area of an image, or answer after watching a short video (2 p. 37). This set is text-only and single-best-answer. Use it to find weak topics, then practice image-based recognition (anatomy, artifacts, coil and slice placement) with your own clinical images and your program's materials.

ARRT MRI exam at a glance

Exam facts last verified Oct 27, 2026 against ARRT's published documents.

Item Current rule Source
Credential ARRT Registered Technologist in Magnetic Resonance Imaging, R.T.(MR); earned through the primary or postprimary pathway 8
Content specifications Effective February 1, 2025 1
Questions 200 scored plus 30 unscored pilot questions; pilots aren't identified 1, 2 p. 43
Exam length 200 scored questions. ARRT's current MRI content specifications also state 30 unscored pilot questions, but the 2026 Primary and Postprimary handbooks conflict on MRI pilot count and test time; use the handbook for your pathway and your on-screen timer 1 p. 1; 2 p. 43; 3 p. 47
Passing standard Scaled score of 75 on a 1–99 scale; not a percentage 4
Section scores 0.1 to 9.9, showing relative strengths; not averaged into your total 4, 2 p. 53
Application fee $225; $450 if your supporting credential is from NMTCB or ARDMS 5
Attempts Three attempts within three years of the date your first exam window opens; each attempt needs a new application and fee 3 p. 18
Where Pearson VUE test centers, computer-based 2 p. 31

ARRT's current publications are inconsistent about MRI pilot count and test time. The MRI content specifications and 2026 Primary handbook show 30 pilot questions, while the 2026 Postprimary handbook chart shows 20. Because candidates may enter through different pathways, this page does not convert that conflict into a universal pacing rule. Use the current handbook for your pathway and the on-screen timer on test day (1 p. 1; 2 p. 43; 3 p. 47; 6).

On scaled scoring, ARRT gives this example: on one exam version you might need 131 of 200 scored questions right to reach 75, and on a harder version 130 (4). Passing the exam also doesn't make you certified by itself; you must meet ARRT's education and ethics requirements too (3 p. 57).

Is the ARRT MRI exam changing?

Not yet. ARRT has proposed new MRI documents with a scheduled implementation date of February 1, 2028. The proposal would expand the Safety section from 21 to 40 questions and require a passing score on the Safety section in addition to the overall exam. ARRT collected feedback through an online survey that closed October 2, 2026; the July 17, 2026 announcement describes the documents as proposed and schedules implementation for February 1, 2028. Until a new version takes effect, the February 2025 specifications this practice test follows are the ones that apply (7). Testing on or after February 1, 2028? Recheck ARRT's content specifications before relying on this version of the set.

If you're taking the Imaging Assistant, Magnetic Resonance (I.A.) exam, this isn't your test. That is a separate ARRT credential with its own content specifications, and it already requires a section score of at least 7.5 in MRI Screening and Safety along with an overall 75 (4, 10).

Frequently asked questions

Are these real ARRT MRI exam questions?

No. Every question here is original and written to the public content specifications. ARRT exam questions are confidential and copyrighted, and ARRT warns candidates to be careful with any material that claims to contain its test questions (2 pp. 38, 46).

Does ARRT offer an official MRI practice test?

No standalone practice test. ARRT doesn't endorse review programs, mock registries, or study guides, and it points candidates to the content specifications as the list of what the exam covers. On test day, a tutorial at the start of the exam lets you answer a few practice questions to get used to the formats and the on-screen calculator (9; 2 pp. 38, 41).

Is 75% on this practice test a passing score?

No. ARRT's 75 is a scaled score on a 1–99 scale, not 75% correct, and the number of right answers needed to reach it varies by exam version (4). A percentage on 60 practice questions can't be converted into that scale. Use your result to rank your weak subcategories instead; misses in Image Production deserve the most time, since it makes up 106 of the 200 scored questions.

Which section is the biggest?

Image Production, at 106 scored questions (53%): Physical Principles of Image Formation (40), Sequence Parameters and Options (36), and Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage (30). Procedures has 57, Safety 21, and Patient Care 16.

Can I use this for the ARMRIT exam?

It wasn't built for it. ARMRIT is a different registry with its own exam outline; this set follows ARRT's MRI specifications only.

Is the Safety section scored separately now?

Not on the current R.T.(MR) exam; you need an overall scaled score of 75. A separate Safety passing requirement is part of ARRT's proposal for February 2028, and the separate Imaging Assistant, MR exam already has one.

Next steps

Sources

  1. ARRT — Magnetic Resonance Imaging Examination Content Specifications (Board approved Jan. 2024; implementation Feb. 1, 2025), pp. 1–9
  2. ARRT — 2026 Primary Eligibility Pathway Handbook (pp. 14, 37–38, 40–43, 53–54, 57)
  3. ARRT — 2026 Postprimary Eligibility Pathway Handbook
  4. ARRT — Exam Scoring
  5. ARRT — Application Fees
  6. ARRT News — Updated MRI Documents (Mar. 27, 2024)
  7. ARRT News — ARRT Seeks Comments on Proposed Changes to MRI Documents (July 17, 2026)
  8. ARRT — Magnetic Resonance Imaging credential page
  9. ARRT — Preparing for Your Exam
  10. ARRT — Examination Content Specifications (all disciplines, incl. Imaging Assistant, MR)
  11. U.S. FDA — Criteria for Significant Risk Investigations of Magnetic Resonance Diagnostic Devices (guidance issued June 20, 2014)
  12. Panych LP, Madore B. The Physics of MRI Safety. J Magn Reson Imaging. 2018;47:28–43
  13. Shah A, Aran S. A Review of Magnetic Resonance (MR) Safety: The Essentials to Patient Safety. Cureus. 2023;15(10):e47345
  14. ACR — Manual on MR Safety (2026 current resource page)
  15. ACR — Manual on MR Safety (2026 current resource page)
  16. ACR — Manual on MR Safety (2026 current resource page)
  17. FDA — Testing and Labeling Medical Devices for Safety in the MR Environment (Oct. 2023)
  18. Questions and Answers in MRI — Larmor frequency
  19. Questions and Answers in MRI — Magnetic shimming
  20. Questions and Answers in MRI — Gradient specifications
  21. Questions and Answers in MRI — SE and T2
  22. Questions and Answers in MRI — Gadolinium and T1
  23. Questions and Answers in MRI — k-space: center
  24. Questions and Answers in MRI — Eliminate wrap-around
  25. Questions and Answers in MRI — Frequency wrap-around (Nyquist)
  26. Questions and Answers in MRI — Chemical shift artifact
  27. Questions and Answers in MRI — Zipper artifact
  28. Questions and Answers in MRI — Gibbs artifact
  29. Questions and Answers in MRI — SNR, voxel size, and NEX
  30. Questions and Answers in MRI — FSE parameters (echo train length)
  31. Questions and Answers in MRI — Image contrast: TR/TE
  32. Questions and Answers in MRI — Inversion time to null a tissue
  33. Questions and Answers in MRI — Inversion recovery parameters
  34. Questions and Answers in MRI — Fat suppression methods
  35. Questions and Answers in MRI — T1-weighted spoiled GRE
  36. Questions and Answers in MRI — Parallel imaging: noise
  37. Questions and Answers in MRI — Velocity encoding (VENC)
  38. Questions and Answers in MRI — Saturation pulses
  39. Questions and Answers in MRI — View ordering in MRA
  40. Questions and Answers in MRI — T2 shine-through
  41. ACR — Manual on Contrast Media (current; NSF chapter updated 2025)
  42. Questions and Answers in MRI — Magic angle
  43. National Taiwan University course notes — Fast scan techniques (scan time = TR × phase-encoding steps × NEX)
  44. DICOM Standard — About DICOM
  45. CDC — Transmission-Based Precautions (updated Apr. 3, 2024)
  46. CDC — Principles of Epidemiology, Lesson 1, Section 10: Chain of Infection
  47. Cornell Law School LII — Respondeat superior
  48. Radiopaedia — Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
  49. Applied Radiology — Adrenal imaging: a practical guide to diagnostic workup
  50. Applied Radiology — ACR committee classifies Guerbet's Elucirem (gadopiclenol) a Group II agent (May 9, 2023)
  51. Optimal Timing and Diagnostic Adequacy of Hepatocyte Phase Imaging with Gadoxetate-Enhanced Liver MRI. Acad Radiol. 2014
  52. ACR Accreditation Support — MRI Exam-Specific Parameters: Breast (rev. Mar. 19, 2025)
  53. ACR Accreditation Support — Quality Control: MRI/Breast MRI (rev. Jul. 3, 2024)
  54. ACR MSK MR course materials — Menisci
  55. Radiopaedia — MRI protocol for epilepsy
  56. Endotext — Radiology of the Pituitary
  57. Federal Practitioner supplement — MRI for MS (summarizes the 2021 MAGNIMS–CMSC–NAIMS protocol)
  58. Radiopaedia — Multiple sclerosis
  59. Radiopaedia — Arthrogram (MRI)

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) or Pearson VUE. ARRT and other exam and credential names are used only to identify the exam this resource covers; trademarks belong to their respective owners. These are original, unofficial practice questions, not real, recalled, or reconstructed ARRT exam items. This page is a study resource and doesn't replace your facility's MR safety policies, protocols, or your supervising radiologist's direction.

Free ARRT MRI Practice Test: 60 Questions With Answers