Free NAVLE Practice Test: 60 Questions With Explanations

Sixty original NAVLE-style questions in two 30-question blocks, the block size the NAVLE uses starting with the October–November 2026 testing window. Across the full 60-question set, the competency and species mix follows ICVA's published blueprint weights as closely as whole-question counts allow, and every question has a full explanation and a source.

Unofficial practice questions written by Castleport Test Prep. These are not ICVA or NAVLE items.

Block 1: Questions 1–30

To match exam pace, give yourself 33 minutes for each block. Or go untimed and read each explanation as you go.

Question 1

Canine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 4-month-old intact male Labrador retriever has had vomiting and foul-smelling bloody diarrhea for 2 days. The puppy was adopted 3 weeks ago and has no vaccination history. It is lethargic and about 7% dehydrated. Rectal temperature is 103.6°F (39.8°C). The CBC shows marked leukopenia with neutropenia and lymphopenia. Which in-clinic test is most appropriate to confirm the most likely diagnosis?

Question 1 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
White blood cell count	2.1 × 10³/µL	6.0–17.0 × 10³/µL

A. Fecal flotation for parasite ova
B. Abdominal radiographs
C. Fecal parvovirus antigen ELISA
D. Serum canine pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity
E. Fecal culture for Salmonella

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Fecal parvovirus antigen ELISA

An unvaccinated young puppy with bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and leukopenia has canine parvovirus until proven otherwise. Commercial fecal antigen ELISAs have good to excellent sensitivity and specificity, including for CPV-2c, and every dog with compatible signs should be tested right away so it can be isolated. Two traps: a false positive can occur 4–10 days after a modified-live parvovirus vaccine, and a false negative can occur early (watery diarrhea dilutes the virus) or once shedding drops. If the test is negative and suspicion stays high, repeat it or use fecal PCR.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Worth running because parasites often coexist, but a positive float does not explain the leukopenia or confirm parvovirus.
B. Useful if you suspect a foreign body or intussusception, but radiographs cannot diagnose parvovirus.
D. Screens for pancreatitis, which does not fit an unvaccinated puppy with leukopenia.
E. Salmonellosis is possible, but culture is slow and the signalment, vaccine history, and leukopenia point to parvovirus first.

Exam takeaway: Young + unvaccinated + bloody diarrhea + leukopenia → fecal parvovirus antigen test and isolation. Remember the post-vaccine false-positive window.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Canine Parvovirus — Diagnosis

Question 2

Bovine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 4-year-old Holstein cow calved 9 days ago and has a decreasing appetite and milk yield. Urine ketones are strongly positive, and rectal temperature is 101.8°F (38.8°C). Simultaneous auscultation and percussion of the left abdomen reveals a high-pitched ping in the middle to upper third between the 9th and 13th ribs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Left displaced abomasum

Most displaced abomasa occur within a month of calving, and ketosis is both a risk factor and a common consequence. In left displacement, the ping is most often found between ribs 9 and 13 in the middle to upper third of the left abdomen.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. A rumen gas-cap ping sits more dorsally and extends into the left paralumbar fossa.
C. A right displacement pings on the right side.
D. Hardware disease causes cranial abdominal pain, not a left-sided ping.
E. Cecal dilatation pings on the right side.

Exam takeaway: Fresh cow + ketosis + left-sided ping between ribs 9 and 13 → left displaced abomasum.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Left or Right Displaced Abomasum and Abomasal Volvulus in Cattle — Clinical Findings; Diagnosis

Question 3

Feline · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 14-year-old neutered male domestic shorthair cat has lost weight over 4 months despite a good appetite. A small cervical nodule is palpable. The cat is also being treated for a chronic enteropathy. The total T4 result is shown. What is the most appropriate next step to evaluate thyroid function?

Question 3 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
Total T4	3.6 µg/dL	0.8–4.0

A. Start methimazole now, since the nodule and weight loss fit
B. Measure free T4 by an analog immunoassay on today's sample
C. Accept the normal total T4 and investigate only the enteropathy
D. Repeat T4 with free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) in 2–4 weeks
E. Thyroid scintigraphy as the next test

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Repeat T4 with free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) in 2–4 weeks

Concurrent nonthyroidal illness can pull total T4 down into the reference interval in a hyperthyroid cat. The AAFP guidelines advise repeating total T4 together with free T4 by equilibrium dialysis 2–4 weeks later. A total T4 in the upper half of the reference interval plus a high free T4 supports hyperthyroidism. Free T4 should always be interpreted alongside total T4.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Treatment should follow a confirmed diagnosis, not a nodule and weight loss alone.
B. Only free T4 by equilibrium dialysis is the accepted method, and even that must be read with total T4, because nonthyroidal illness can raise free T4 in a euthyroid cat.
C. About 5–10% of hyperthyroid cats have a total T4 within the reference interval, so a normal value does not end the workup when signs fit.
E. Scintigraphy is an option if suspicion persists after repeat total and free T4 are inconclusive. It is not the first next step.

Exam takeaway: Signs of hyperthyroidism + high-normal T4 + other illness → repeat T4 with free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) in 2–4 weeks.

Sources: Carney HC et al. 2016 AAFP Guidelines for the Management of Feline Hyperthyroidism. J Feline Med Surg 2016;18:400–416 — Diagnosis, Group 2 (p. 403); Merck Veterinary Manual — Hyperthyroidism in Animals — Diagnosis

Question 4

Equine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 12-year-old Quarter Horse gelding has had colic for 6 hours. Despite flunixin meglumine and xylazine, he keeps rolling and pawing. Heart rate is 72 beats/min. Nasogastric intubation yields 6 L of net reflux, and rectal palpation reveals several tight, distended loops of small intestine. Which is the most appropriate next step?

A. Repeat the flunixin and hand-walk for another 6 hours
B. Refer for emergency exploratory celiotomy
C. Give mineral oil by nasogastric tube and discharge
D. Feed a bran mash and observe overnight
E. Continue medical treatment, because the heart rate is below 80 beats/min

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Refer for emergency exploratory celiotomy

Three findings each point to surgery: pain that does not respond to analgesics, distended loops of small intestine on rectal palpation, and large-volume nasogastric reflux (more than 4 L is a common surgical indication; less than 1 L is normal). Horses whose pain does not respond to analgesia need emergency abdominal surgery.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Repeating analgesics in a horse that did not respond delays surgery, and flunixin can mask signs that surgery is needed.
C. Mineral oil is for simple impactions, not a horse with reflux and distended small intestine.
D. Feeding a horse with gastric reflux is contraindicated.
E. Not every surgical lesion produces a very high heart rate. The pain, reflux, and rectal findings decide this case.

Exam takeaway: Unrelenting pain, reflux over 4 L, or distended small intestine on rectal = surgical colic. Refer now.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Overview of Colic in Horses — Diagnosis; Treatment—surgery

Question 5

Canine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 2-year-old spayed female standard poodle has had intermittent vomiting, diarrhea, and lethargy for 6 weeks. Each episode improves briefly after fluid therapy. Today she is weak and her heart rate is 64 beats/min. She has received no glucocorticoids. Selected results are shown. Which test will confirm the most likely diagnosis?

Question 5 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
Sodium	129 mEq/L (mmol/L)	145–154
Potassium	7.4 mEq/L (mmol/L)	3.6–5.6
Na:K ratio	17.4	> 27
Urea nitrogen	58 mg/dL	8–28
Lymphocytes	3.9 × 10³/µL	1.0–4.8

A. Resting serum cortisol
B. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
C. Endogenous plasma ACTH concentration
D. Urine cortisol:creatinine ratio
E. ACTH stimulation test

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. ACTH stimulation test

Waxing-and-waning GI signs, a low Na:K ratio, azotemia, bradycardia, and no stress leukogram in a sick dog all point to hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). The ACTH stimulation test is the definitive test: a post-ACTH cortisol below 2 µg/dL confirms the diagnosis. A Na:K ratio below 27 is suggestive but not pathognomonic.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. A resting cortisol above 2 µg/dL effectively rules Addison's out, but a low value is not diagnostic. It still has to be followed by an ACTH stimulation test.
B. The LDDST is a screening test for hyperadrenocorticism, the opposite problem.
C. Endogenous ACTH helps separate primary from secondary disease after the diagnosis is made. It does not confirm it.
D. The UCCR is used to rule out hyperadrenocorticism.

Exam takeaway: Suspected Addison's: resting cortisol can rule it out; only the ACTH stimulation test rules it in.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Addison Disease (Hypoadrenocorticism) in Animals — Diagnosis

Question 6

Feline · Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness: Professional Development and Lifelong Learning

A technician discovers that a cat discharged yesterday was sent home with a bottle labeled for the cat's prescribed medication but containing a different drug meant for another patient. The owner calls today to say the cat seems lethargic. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Say lethargy is an expected side effect and recheck in a few days
B. Tell the owner about the mix-up now and have the cat brought in
C. Have the cat brought in, but describe it as a routine recheck
D. Correct the medical record first, then call after the cat is seen
E. Tell the owner to stop all medication and call back if signs continue

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Tell the owner about the mix-up now and have the cat brought in

The AVMA Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics require honesty with clients and prohibit deceit, which includes concealing the truth to mislead. Practical guidance on admitting errors is to tell the client what happened, take responsibility, apologize, explain the next steps for the patient and how a repeat will be prevented, and document it. The cat also needs to be examined now, because it may have received a harmful drug.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. This misleads the owner and delays care for a cat that may be poisoned.
C. Getting the cat in is right, but hiding the reason is deceit.
D. Disclosure shouldn't wait, and the record should document the error, not be rewritten before the owner knows.
E. Stopping the drug helps, but the owner still doesn't know what happened and the cat isn't examined.

Exam takeaway: Medical error: patient first, tell the truth promptly, apologize, fix the system, document.

Sources: AVMA — Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics — Integrity; Honesty and integrity; definition of deceit; University of Minnesota — Veterinary Communication Curriculum Guide: Admitting Medical Errors — Whole chapter

Question 7

Porcine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Veterinary Public Health

On a farrow-to-finish farm in the United States, pigs of several ages suddenly develop high fever, weakness, reddened and blotchy skin on the ears and abdomen, and deaths. African swine fever is on your differential list. What is the most appropriate first action?

A. Start herd-wide water-soluble antibiotics and reassess in 1 week
B. Submit tissues to your usual diagnostic lab and await results first
C. Hold pig movements and report only if a lab confirms the disease
D. Treat for erysipelas with penicillin, since the skin lesions look alike
E. Report the suspicion now to state and federal animal health officials

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Report the suspicion now to state and federal animal health officials

African swine fever has never been found in the United States but is present in nearby Haiti and the Dominican Republic. A suspected case of a foreign animal disease must be reported right away to the State animal health official and the APHIS Area Veterinarian in Charge, who direct sampling and movement controls. There is no treatment and no vaccine approved for use in the United States. Classical swine fever, another foreign animal disease, looks similar and is handled the same way.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Antibiotics do not treat a viral disease, and waiting lets it spread.
B. Official notification comes first; regulatory officials direct sampling and testing for suspected foreign animal diseases.
C. Reporting is triggered by suspicion, not by laboratory confirmation.
D. Erysipelas lesions can resemble swine fever, but sudden deaths across ages with a foreign animal disease on the list require a report before empirical treatment.

Exam takeaway: Suspected foreign animal disease in pigs → call the State animal health official and APHIS first.

Source: USDA APHIS — African Swine Fever — Main page

Question 8

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 5-year-old neutered male cat has been straining in the litter box for 36 hours and is now recumbent. Heart rate is 110 beats/min, and the bladder is large and firm. The ECG shows absent P waves and tall, peaked T waves. Results are shown. Which drug most rapidly protects the heart from the effects of hyperkalemia, even though it does not lower the serum potassium concentration?

Question 8 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
Potassium	9.2 mEq/L (mmol/L)	3.5–5.5
Creatinine	6.8 mg/dL	0.8–2.4

A. 10% calcium gluconate IV, given slowly with ECG monitoring
B. Sodium bicarbonate IV, given slowly over 15 minutes
C. Regular insulin IV followed by a dextrose bolus and infusion
D. Terbutaline IV to drive potassium into cells
E. Furosemide IV after urethral catheterization

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 10% calcium gluconate IV, given slowly with ECG monitoring

Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane, so it protects against hyperkalemic arrhythmias within minutes, but it does not lower potassium. Bicarbonate, insulin with dextrose, and β2-agonists such as terbutaline all work by shifting potassium into cells. These measures are all temporary. Relieving the urethral obstruction is what restores potassium excretion.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Bicarbonate lowers serum potassium by shifting it into cells; it is not direct cardioprotection.
C. Insulin with dextrose lowers potassium by shifting it into cells, more slowly than calcium protects the heart.
D. Terbutaline, a β2-agonist, also shifts potassium into cells rather than protecting the membrane directly.
E. Relieving the obstruction matters most long-term, but a diuretic does not protect the heart now.

Exam takeaway: Hyperkalemic blocked cat: calcium protects the heart, dextrose ± insulin shifts potassium, unblocking fixes it.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Urethral Obstruction in Small Animals — Treatment; Stabilization

Question 9

Canine · Communication: Communication with Clients

You have just confirmed appendicular osteosarcoma in a 9-year-old Rottweiler with a painful left forelimb. Thoracic radiographs show no visible metastases. The owner is tearful and asks, "What would you do if she were your dog?" Which response best supports the owner in making a decision?

A. "If she were mine, I'd choose euthanasia today."
B. "I can't answer that. The decision has to be yours."
C. "What matters most to you for her?" Then talk through options.
D. "Most owners choose amputation, so let me book her surgery now."
E. "Here are the survival numbers for each option. You decide."

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. "What matters most to you for her?" Then talk through options.

Relationship-centered care starts with the client's goals and values, explored with open-ended questions, before options are laid out. The owner then makes the final decision with your guidance. In a survey of 1,270 dog and cat owners, about three-quarters preferred this shared decision-making model. Sharing your view is fine once you understand what the owner wants for the dog; the error is skipping that step.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Jumps to a recommendation without learning the owner's goals, and euthanasia is not the only reasonable option for a dog without visible metastases.
B. Deflecting leaves a distressed owner without guidance. You can help without taking the decision away from them.
D. Steers the owner toward one option before learning what they want for the dog.
E. Information matters, but handing over statistics without exploring the owner's goals isn't shared decision-making.

Exam takeaway: When asked "What would you do?", explore the owner's goals first, then recommend within them.

Sources: Küper AM, Merle R. Being nice is not enough—exploring relationship-centered veterinary care with structural equation modeling. Front Vet Sci 2019;6:56 — Introduction; Shared decision-making; ICVA — NAVLE Competency Domains — p. 9, Communications with Clients

Question 10

Equine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

An 11-year-old obese Welsh pony mare with a cresty neck and fat deposits at the tailhead had an episode of laminitis 2 months ago and is now sound. Resting and post-oral-sugar insulin concentrations are high, and plasma ACTH is normal for the season. Which is the most important part of long-term management?

A. Unrestricted pasture turnout to increase daily activity
B. Daily pergolide, with no change to the diet
C. Levothyroxine, with free-choice grass hay
D. Low-NSC hay by weight, grazing restriction, exercise
E. Withdraw all feed for rapid weight loss

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Low-NSC hay by weight, grazing restriction, exercise

Insulin dysregulation with regional adiposity and laminitis is equine metabolic syndrome. Management centers on diet: hay tested at under 10% nonstructural carbohydrate, fed by weight to produce weight loss, with severe grazing restriction. Exercise is added once laminitis has resolved, as it has here.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Pasture grass can be high in sugars and is a common trigger for laminitis in these ponies.
B. Pergolide treats pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction, and this pony's ACTH is normal.
C. Levothyroxine is an adjunct at most, and free-choice hay works against weight loss.
E. Severe feed restriction risks hyperlipemia, especially in ponies. Weight loss must be gradual.

Exam takeaway: EMS: low-NSC hay by weight, no free grazing, exercise once laminitis is resolved.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Equine Metabolic Syndrome — Treatment

Question 11

Feline · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 10-month-old intact male cat adopted from a multicat shelter has had 3 weeks of fluctuating fever that has not responded to antimicrobials, along with weight loss and a distended abdomen with a fluid wave. The abdominal fluid is straw-yellow and viscous. Results of effusion analysis are shown. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Question 11 results
Test	Result
Effusion total protein	5.8 g/dL
Effusion nucleated cells	2,100/µL (mostly nondegenerate neutrophils and macrophages)
Effusion albumin:globulin ratio	0.3

A. Effusive feline infectious peritonitis
B. Septic peritonitis from a bowel perforation
C. Right-sided congestive heart failure
D. Uroabdomen from a ruptured bladder
E. Abdominal lymphoma with effusion

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Effusive feline infectious peritonitis

A young cat from a multicat environment with fever unresponsive to antimicrobials and a high-protein, low-cellularity effusion fits effusive FIP. An effusion protein above 3.5 g/dL with fewer than 5,000 cells/µL is typical, and an effusion albumin:globulin ratio below 0.4 increases the likelihood of FIP. No single number confirms it; the diagnosis rests on the whole picture, with tests such as viral RNA detection or immunostaining of the effusion for confirmation.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Septic effusions are highly cellular with degenerate neutrophils and often visible bacteria.
C. Heart-failure effusions are typically lower in protein and cells, and the cat would usually have other cardiac findings.
D. Urine in the abdomen is low in protein, with a high creatinine and potassium, and there is no trauma history.
E. Lymphomatous effusions usually contain neoplastic lymphocytes and are more cellular.

Exam takeaway: High-protein, low-cell effusion with a low A:G ratio in a young cat → think effusive FIP.

Sources: Merck Veterinary Manual — Feline Infectious Peritonitis — Diagnosis; effusion analysis; AAFP/EveryCat — Routine Diagnostic Testing for FIP: An Overview — Effusion and serum test table

Question 12

Bovine · Communication: Communication with Clients

A U.S. dairy producer asks you to approve using an antimicrobial "off-label" in a lactating cow because a neighbor says it worked for him. Under FDA's extralabel drug use rules (21 CFR Part 530), which statement should you give the producer?

A. The producer may set the dose himself if he keeps treatment records
B. Fluoroquinolones may be used extralabel if the milk is withheld
C. Extralabel use is allowed when the drug is mixed into feed
D. The labeled withdrawal time also applies to extralabel use
E. It requires a valid VCPR and a substantially longer withdrawal

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. It requires a valid VCPR and a substantially longer withdrawal

Extralabel drug use in food animals is legal only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian within a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship. The veterinarian must make a careful diagnosis, set a substantially extended withdrawal period, make sure treated animals are identified, and ensure no illegal residues occur. Some drugs, including fluoroquinolones and chloramphenicol, are prohibited for extralabel use in food-producing animals. FARAD is a useful resource for withdrawal estimates, though the rule itself does not require it.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Lay persons cannot make extralabel decisions without veterinary direction.
B. Fluoroquinolones are on the list of drugs prohibited for extralabel use in food-producing animals, whatever the withdrawal.
C. Extralabel use in animal feed is not permitted under this rule.
D. Label withdrawal times are based on label use. Extralabel use requires a substantially extended withdrawal.

Exam takeaway: ELDU in food animals: VCPR, veterinarian decides, extended withdrawal, no residues, and a prohibited-drug list.

Source: eCFR — 21 CFR Part 530, Extralabel Drug Use in Animals — §530.10, §530.11, §530.20, §530.41

Question 13

Canine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 7-year-old male Great Dane is presented 2 hours after the owner noticed repeated unproductive retching and a rapidly enlarging abdomen after a large meal. The dog is weak. Heart rate is 180 beats/min with weak femoral pulses, mucous membranes are pale, and capillary refill time is 3 seconds. The cranial abdomen is tympanic. A right lateral abdominal radiograph shows a gas-distended stomach divided by a soft-tissue band, with the pylorus displaced dorsally and cranially. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Immediate laparotomy for derotation and gastropexy
B. Shock fluids via saphenous catheters, then surgery
C. Gastric decompression alone, then elective gastropexy next week
D. Shock fluids via cephalic lines and gastric decompression
E. A ventrodorsal radiograph before starting treatment

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Shock fluids via cephalic lines and gastric decompression

The compartmentalized stomach with a dorsally and cranially displaced pylorus on the right lateral view is classic gastric dilatation-volvulus. The dog is in shock. Start shock-rate crystalloids through one or more large-bore catheters in the cephalic or jugular veins and decompress the stomach at the same time with an orogastric tube or percutaneous gastrocentesis. Once the dog is stabilized, go to surgery promptly for derotation and gastropexy, because a longer duration of signs raises mortality.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Surgery is the definitive fix, but anesthetizing an unstabilized dog in shock is dangerous. Stabilize and decompress first, then operate without long delay.
B. Fluids are right, but avoid hind-limb catheters: the distended stomach compresses the caudal vena cava, so fluid given there returns poorly to the heart.
C. Decompression without fluid resuscitation leaves the dog in shock, and a volvulus needs prompt surgery; passing a tube does not rule out or correct it.
E. The right lateral view is the diagnostic view. A ventrodorsal view adds aspiration risk and delays treatment.

Exam takeaway: GDV: front-limb or jugular catheters, shock fluids and decompression together, then derotation and gastropexy once stable.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Gastric Dilation and Volvulus in Small Animals — Diagnosis; Treatment

Question 14

Pet bird · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 3-year-old female cockatiel on a seed-only diet has been straining for 24 hours. She is fluffed up and tail-bobbing, and an egg is palpable in the caudal coelom. She is weak but responsive. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Immediate salpingohysterectomy
B. Oxytocin now, then calcium if no egg in 1 hour
C. Fluids, parenteral calcium, warmth, and humidity
D. Manual egg extraction under anesthesia right away
E. Ovocentesis to collapse the egg immediately

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Fluids, parenteral calcium, warmth, and humidity

Egg binding is common in cockatiels, and calcium deficiency from a seed-based diet is a major factor. Start with supportive care: rehydration, parenteral calcium, increased humidity, and warmth, usually in a warm, humid incubator. If the egg is not laid, drugs that induce egg-laying, manual delivery, ovocentesis, or surgery follow.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Surgery is reserved for cases that fail other measures or have an adhered egg.
B. Uterotonic drugs come after calcium and supportive care, not before.
D. Manual delivery is a later step if supportive care and medication fail.
E. Ovocentesis is used when gentle digital pressure fails, not as the first step.

Exam takeaway: Egg-bound bird: warmth, humidity, fluids, and calcium first; then escalate.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Reproductive Diseases of Pet Birds — Egg Binding

Question 15

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 2-year-old indoor cat was seen chewing the leaves of an Easter lily (Lilium longiflorum) about 1 hour ago. The cat is bright and its physical examination is normal. Which plan is most appropriate?

A. Monitor at home and treat only if vomiting starts
B. Emesis, activated charcoal, and 48 hours of IV fluids
C. Emesis and charcoal, then discharge if the cat stays bright
D. Measure creatinine now and treat only if it is high
E. IV fluids for 12 hours, then discharge if urinating

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Emesis, activated charcoal, and 48 hours of IV fluids

Any exposure to any part of a true lily (Lilium) can cause acute kidney injury in cats. When ingestion is recent, induce emesis and give activated charcoal. Then give IV fluid diuresis for at least 48 hours while monitoring renal values and electrolytes. Starting treatment more than 18 hours after exposure risks irreversible kidney damage, so do not wait for signs.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Waiting for signs wastes the window when treatment prevents kidney injury.
C. Decontamination alone is not enough; the recommended diuresis lasts at least 48 hours.
D. Azotemia lags behind the injury. A normal creatinine today does not mean the kidneys are safe.
E. Twelve hours of fluids is much shorter than the recommended 48 hours.

Exam takeaway: Cat + true lily, any amount: decontaminate early and give 48 hours of IV fluids. Don't wait for azotemia.

Source: ASPCA Pro — Lily toxicosis in cats — Treatment

Question 16

Equine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 22-year-old Morgan mare has a long, curly coat that did not shed out this spring, drinks more than usual, and has a history of laminitis. It is October. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate now?

A. TRH stimulation test with ACTH measurement
B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
C. Oral sugar test with insulin measurement
D. Resting ACTH with seasonal reference values
E. Single resting serum cortisol in the morning

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Resting ACTH with seasonal reference values

Delayed shedding and a long coat (hypertrichosis) in an older horse suggest pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction. Diagnosis rests on resting endogenous ACTH or evocative testing compared with season-specific reference values. From August through December, only endogenous ACTH should be used. TRH stimulation is considered the most sensitive test, but not in this autumn period.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. TRH stimulation is very sensitive, but from August through December resting ACTH is the test to use.
B. The dexamethasone suppression test has largely been replaced by ACTH-based testing.
C. The oral sugar test measures insulin response, not pituitary function.
E. Resting cortisol does not reliably separate horses with PPID from normal horses.

Exam takeaway: Old horse + hypertrichosis → resting ACTH with a seasonal reference interval (August–December, use ACTH).

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Hypertrichosis Associated with Adenomas of the Pars Intermedia — Diagnosis

Question 17

Canine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 6-year-old spayed female cocker spaniel has had 3 days of lethargy, and her mucous membranes are pale and slightly icteric. She has had no recent medications or travel. Tick-borne disease testing is negative and abdominal imaging is unremarkable. A blood smear shows many spherocytes, and agglutination persists after the red cells are washed in saline. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Question 17 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
PCV	14%	37–55%
Reticulocytes	280 × 10³/µL	< 60 × 10³/µL
Total bilirubin	2.4 mg/dL	0.0–0.3

A. Anemia of chronic inflammation
B. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia from chronic blood loss
D. Zinc toxicosis
E. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

The ACVIM consensus diagnosis of IMHA requires anemia, at least two markers of immune-mediated destruction (or agglutination that persists after washing), and at least one sign of hemolysis. This dog has spherocytes and persistent agglutination as immune markers, and hyperbilirubinemia as evidence of hemolysis. The strong regenerative response fits but is not required, since some dogs are nonregenerative at first. Even with a clear picture, look for triggers such as infection, neoplasia, and drugs.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Anemia of inflammation is mild and nonregenerative, with no spherocytes or agglutination.
C. Chronic blood-loss anemia becomes microcytic and hypochromic and does not cause hyperbilirubinemia or agglutination.
D. Zinc can cause hemolysis, but there is no ingestion history and imaging shows no metallic foreign body.
E. This inherited enzyme defect does not cause spherocytosis or saline agglutination.

Exam takeaway: IMHA = anemia + immune markers (spherocytes, persistent saline agglutination) + evidence of hemolysis. Then search for a trigger.

Source: Garden OA et al. ACVIM consensus statement on the diagnosis of IMHA in dogs and cats. J Vet Intern Med 2019;33:313–334 — Diagnostic approach; markers of immune-mediated destruction

Question 18

Ovine/Caprine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 2-year-old castrated Nigerian Dwarf goat (wether) was just treated for urethral obstruction. He has been fed grass hay plus a large daily portion of grain pellets. The owner asks how to prevent another episode. Which plan is best?

A. Add alfalfa hay and keep the current grain portion
B. Ammonium chloride alone, with no change to the current diet
C. Add a phosphorus supplement to the ration
D. Restrict water so the urine is more concentrated
E. More forage, less grain, Ca:P 2–2.5:1, salt, and water

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. More forage, less grain, Ca:P 2–2.5:1, salt, and water

High-grain diets supply excess phosphorus and promote phosphate stones in castrated males. Prevention combines a high-forage diet with limited grain, a total ration calcium:phosphorus ratio of 2–2.5:1, urinary acidification with ammonium chloride (checking urine pH), and salt plus clean, palatable water to increase water intake.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Keeping the grain keeps the phosphorus excess, and alfalfa's high calcium is linked to calcium carbonate stones.
B. Urinary acidification helps, but without cutting grain and fixing the Ca:P ratio the main cause remains.
C. Extra phosphorus feeds phosphate stone formation.
D. Less water concentrates the urine and promotes stones.

Exam takeaway: Wether urolithiasis prevention: more forage, less grain, Ca:P 2–2.5:1, acidify urine, drive water intake.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Urolithiasis in Ruminants — Control and Prevention

Question 19

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 6-year-old spayed female cat weighing 6.8 kg stopped eating 12 days ago after a new dog came into the household. She is icteric and dehydrated. Ultrasound shows a diffusely hyperechoic liver. Results are shown. After fluid and electrolyte deficits are corrected, which is the most important component of treatment?

Question 19 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
ALP	410 U/L	10–80
GGT	4 U/L	0–5
Total bilirubin	6.1 mg/dL	0.0–0.4

A. Assisted enteral nutrition through a feeding tube
B. Withhold food for 72 hours to rest the liver
C. An appetite stimulant alone while waiting for voluntary eating
D. High-dose prednisolone
E. Surgical liver biopsy before any feeding begins

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Assisted enteral nutrition through a feeding tube

An obese cat that stopped eating after a stressful change, with a markedly high ALP but normal GGT and a hyperechoic liver, fits hepatic lipidosis. Nutrition is the treatment. A feeding tube, often esophagostomy once the cat is a reasonable anesthetic risk, allows reliable feeding. Correct potassium and phosphorus and give thiamine before feeding starts, because refeeding can drop these further.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Fasting is what caused the disease; more fasting makes it worse.
C. Appetite stimulants alone rarely deliver enough calories to reverse lipidosis.
D. Corticosteroids do not treat hepatic lipidosis.
E. Biopsy is not needed to start treatment, and invasive procedures in these cats need vitamin K1 first because of bleeding risk.

Exam takeaway: Fat, anorexic, icteric cat with ALP up and GGT normal → hepatic lipidosis → feed through a tube; watch potassium, phosphorus, thiamine.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Feline Hepatic Lipidosis — Clinicopathology; Nutritional support; Refeeding

Question 20

Bovine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 6-year-old dairy cow calved 12 hours ago. She is in sternal recumbency and cannot rise. Her ears are cold, her muzzle is dry, she is mildly bloated, and her neck has an S-shaped curve. Rectal temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C). Which treatment is most appropriate?

A. Rapid IV calcium bolus over about 1 minute
B. Oral calcium gel by drench, then recheck in 1 hour
C. Slow IV calcium over 10–20 min, listening to the heart
D. Subcutaneous calcium alone, then lift her with hip lifters
E. IV dexamethasone and hip lifters

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Slow IV calcium over 10–20 min, listening to the heart

A recently calved cow that is down, cold, and holding her neck in an S-curve is in stage 2 milk fever. Give calcium IV slowly, over 10–20 minutes, while listening to the heart or monitoring the pulse. Stop if a severe arrhythmia or bradycardia develops, because calcium given too fast can cause a fatal arrhythmia.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. A rapid bolus risks a fatal cardiac arrhythmia.
B. Oral treatment is contraindicated in a recumbent cow because of aspiration risk.
D. Subcutaneous calcium can be used in stage 1, but a recumbent stage 2 cow needs IV calcium.
E. Corticosteroids do not correct the calcium deficit.

Exam takeaway: Down fresh cow, cold, S-neck → slow IV calcium with the stethoscope on her heart.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Parturient Paresis in Cows — Clinical Findings; Treatment

Question 21

Non-species-specific · Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness: Veterinary Practice Management

A practice owner is writing a policy on which tasks credentialed veterinary technicians may perform under veterinary supervision. According to AVMA guidance on veterinary technicians, which task remains the veterinarian's responsibility?

A. Collecting blood samples
B. Taking radiographs
C. Inducing anesthesia under supervision
D. Recording physical exam findings
E. Diagnosing and prescribing

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Diagnosing and prescribing

AVMA guidance describes veterinary technicians as working under veterinarian supervision and not diagnosing, prescribing, or performing surgery. Each state's practice act controls the actual scope and supervision levels, so a real clinic policy must follow the applicable state rules.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Sample collection is routinely delegated under supervision.
B. Radiography is routinely delegated under supervision.
C. Anesthetic induction can be delegated at the supervision level the state requires.
D. Gathering and recording exam findings can be delegated; interpreting them into a diagnosis cannot.

Exam takeaway: Diagnosis, prognosis, prescribing, and surgery stay with the veterinarian. State law sets the details.

Source: American Veterinary Medical Association — Veterinary Technicians — Veterinary Technician section

Question 22

Feline · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 9-year-old neutered male domestic shorthair cat is presented 1 hour after it suddenly cried out and began dragging both hind limbs. Both hind limbs are cold, the paw pads are pale to purple, and no femoral pulses are palpable. The gastrocnemius muscles are firm and painful. A gallop rhythm is heard. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Aortic thromboembolism

Sudden painful paresis with cold, pulseless limbs, discolored pads, and firm gastrocnemius muscles is the picture of feline arterial thromboembolism. Most thrombi form in an enlarged left atrium in cats with cardiomyopathy, which fits the gallop rhythm. Clopidogrel is used to reduce the risk of recurrence.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. A spinal lesion causes paresis, but the limbs stay warm with normal pulses.
C. Fibrocartilaginous embolism is acute and spinal, but it is usually nonpainful after onset and does not cause pulseless limbs.
D. Hypokalemic myopathy causes generalized weakness and neck ventroflexion, not cold, pulseless hind limbs.
E. There is no trauma history, and a fracture would not cause absent pulses and cyanotic pads.

Exam takeaway: Cold + pulseless + painful + purple pads = arterial thromboembolism. Look for the heart disease behind it.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Arterial Thromboembolism in Dogs and Cats — Feline arterial thromboembolism

Question 23

Equine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Veterinary Public Health

In the United States, a routine pre-show Coggins test on a clinically normal 9-year-old gelding comes back positive for equine infectious anemia. Which is the required response?

A. Treat with doxycycline, then retest in 30 days to confirm
B. Vaccinate herdmates and keep the horse at home
C. Report it; quarantine the horse as officials direct
D. Allow showing, since the horse is clinically normal
E. Retest privately in 6 months before reporting

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Report it; quarantine the horse as officials direct

Equine infectious anemia is reportable in all U.S. states, so a positive result goes to animal health officials, who direct quarantine and any further testing. There is no treatment or vaccine. Infected horses are lifelong carriers, so they must be permanently isolated and quarantined or euthanized. The virus spreads through biting flies and, increasingly, through human practices such as reused needles.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. There is no effective treatment.
B. There is no vaccine, and the horse still has to be reported.
D. A positive horse is a carrier even without signs and cannot move freely.
E. A reportable result can't be held back for months.

Exam takeaway: Positive Coggins = reportable, lifelong carrier, no treatment or vaccine.

Source: USDA APHIS — Equine Infectious Anemia — Main page

Question 24

Canine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 5-year-old neutered male mixed-breed dog that has never received heartworm preventive tests positive for heartworm antigen, confirmed by a second, different test. It coughs mildly with exercise, and thoracic radiographs show mild pulmonary artery enlargement. No microfilariae are found. The owner agrees to the American Heartworm Society (AHS)–recommended adulticide protocol. Which plan best describes what should happen before the first melarsomine injection?

A. Melarsomine today, with doxycycline started at the same time
B. Preventive, 28 days of doxycycline, rest, then melarsomine
C. Melarsomine after 1 week of doxycycline, without a preventive
D. Monthly ivermectin alone, with normal exercise
E. Prednisone alone for 3 months, then retest

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Preventive, 28 days of doxycycline, rest, then melarsomine

In the AHS-recommended protocol, the macrocyclic lactone preventive, doxycycline, and activity restriction all start on Day 0. Doxycycline runs for 28 days and is followed by a one-month wait. Melarsomine is then given on Days 60, 90, and 91, with strict exercise restriction continuing after the injections. The preventive and doxycycline reduce new infections and weaken the adult worms before they are killed.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Skipping the preventive lead-in and the wait before melarsomine is not the recommended protocol.
C. Too short a lead-in, and it leaves out the macrocyclic lactone preventive.
D. The 2024 AHS guidelines describe alternatives when the recommended protocol isn't possible, but this drops activity restriction and isn't the recommended plan for an owner who has agreed to it.
E. Prednisone is used around melarsomine injections to manage inflammation; on its own it does not treat the infection.

Exam takeaway: AHS protocol: Day 0 preventive + doxycycline (28 days) + rest → wait → melarsomine on Days 60, 90, 91.

Sources: American Heartworm Society — Canine Guidelines (2024 revision) — AHS-Recommended Protocol table; American Heartworm Society — Guidelines index — Canine guidelines

Question 25

Porcine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

In a farrowing barn, several litters of 3-week-old piglets have pale skin, rough hair coats, and poor growth. The producer recently stopped giving piglets iron to save labor. Which measure prevents this problem?

A. Add iron to the sows' ration in late gestation
B. Oral iron paste at weaning
C. Vitamin E and selenium injection at birth
D. Iron dextran IM in the first 3 days of life
E. Creep feed from day 1 instead of injections

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Iron dextran IM in the first 3 days of life

Sow's milk is very low in iron and piglets are born with small stores, so suckling piglets need supplemental iron. The standard is an intramuscular injection of iron dextran or gleptoferron during the first 3 days of life.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Supplementing the sow does not increase piglet iron stores at birth.
B. Weaning is far too late; deficiency develops during the suckling period.
C. Vitamin E and selenium do not supply iron.
E. Newborn piglets eat very little creep feed, so it does not replace an iron injection.

Exam takeaway: Piglets need injected iron in the first 3 days. Feeding the sow more iron doesn't help.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Nutritional Requirements of Pigs — Minerals—Iron

Question 26

Feline · Communication: Communication with Clients

One cat in a three-cat household has confirmed progressive feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection. The other two cats tested negative, including on a repeat test 30 days later. The owner asks how to protect them. Which advice is most appropriate?

A. Euthanize the infected cat to protect the others
B. Separate the infected cat; vaccinate the negative cats
C. Vaccinate the infected cat to clear the virus
D. Vaccinate the negative cats; separation isn't needed after that
E. Separate the cats; vaccination won't add protection

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Separate the infected cat; vaccinate the negative cats

The AAFP retrovirus guidelines recommend keeping an FeLV-infected cat indoors and separated from uninfected cats, with no shared bowls or litter boxes, because these spread the virus. Uninfected housemates should be vaccinated even if the infected cat is separated, and owners should be told that vaccination is not fully protective.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Many FeLV-infected cats live for years with good care. Euthanasia is not needed to protect housemates.
C. Vaccinating an infected cat does not clear the infection.
D. The vaccine is not fully protective, so separation is still needed.
E. The guidelines recommend vaccinating the negative cats even when the infected cat is separated.

Exam takeaway: FeLV-positive cat at home: indoors, separate, no shared bowls or litter, vaccinate negatives, and tell owners the vaccine isn't perfect.

Source: Little S et al. 2020 AAFP Feline Retrovirus Testing and Management Guidelines. J Feline Med Surg 2020;22:5–30 — Limiting transmission in the home; Vaccination

Question 27

Camelid/Cervidae · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

An 18-month-old alpaca in Pennsylvania grazes a pasture bordering woods where white-tailed deer are often seen. Over 1 week he has developed progressive hind-limb weakness and ataxia with a mild head tilt. He is afebrile. Cerebrospinal fluid shows an eosinophilic pleocytosis (35% eosinophils). A fecal Baermann test is negative. Which is the most likely cause?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Meningeal worm (P. tenuis)

White-tailed deer are the definitive host of P. tenuis, and snails and slugs are the intermediate hosts. In camelids the larvae migrate abnormally through the spinal cord and brain, causing ataxia, weakness, and head tilt. In an endemic area, CSF eosinophils above 17% make P. tenuis highly likely, although definitive diagnosis usually requires necropsy. Camelids do not pass the larvae in feces, so a negative Baermann test is expected. Rabies should always remain on the list for a camelid with neurologic signs.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Listeriosis causes asymmetric cranial nerve deficits and is not associated with CSF eosinophilia.
B. Polioencephalomalacia causes cortical blindness and head pressing, not eosinophilic CSF.
C. West Nile virus can cause neurologic disease in camelids, but the eosinophilic CSF and deer exposure point to P. tenuis.
E. Copper deficiency causes ataxia mainly in young animals, without CSF eosinophilia.

Exam takeaway: Camelid + deer exposure + neurologic signs + eosinophilic CSF → meningeal worm. A negative fecal doesn't rule it out.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Nematodes Causing CNS Disease in Animals — Meningeal worm (Parelaphostrongylus tenuis)

Question 28

Equine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 24-hour-old Thoroughbred filly is bright and nursing. The mare leaked milk for 2 days before foaling. The foal's serum IgG concentration is below 400 mg/dL. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

A. IV equine plasma transfusion
B. Oral colostrum by nasogastric tube
C. No treatment, because the foal is bright and nursing
D. Tetanus antitoxin only
E. Recheck IgG at 48 hours before deciding

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. IV equine plasma transfusion

An IgG concentration below 400 mg/dL at 24 hours is complete failure of passive transfer, and the mare's pre-foaling milk leakage explains it. Oral colostrum has only minimal benefit after 18–24 hours, so the foal needs IV equine plasma.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. By 24 hours the foal absorbs very little antibody from the gut.
C. Looking healthy now does not protect a foal without antibodies from sepsis.
D. Tetanus antitoxin provides tetanus protection only, not the broad immunity colostrum supplies.
E. Waiting leaves the foal unprotected and changes nothing about the decision.

Exam takeaway: Foal IgG under 400 mg/dL at 24 hours → IV plasma, not oral colostrum.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Failure of Transfer of Passive Immunity in Large Animals — Whole page

Question 29

Canine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Environmental Health and Safety

A 3-year-old unvaccinated hunting dog is hospitalized with acute kidney injury. Leptospirosis is suspected, and PCR results are pending. Which instruction to hospital staff is most appropriate?

A. Standard handling; dogs don't spread leptospirosis to people
B. Respirators and negative-pressure isolation for airborne spread
C. Barrier precautions, but delay antimicrobials until PCR returns
D. Gloves only for injections; urine needs no special handling
E. Gloves and splash protection, with closed urine collection

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Gloves and splash protection, with closed urine collection

Leptospirosis is zoonotic, and people are infected mainly through contact with urine. Strict isolation is not required, but staff should nurse the dog with barrier precautions and avoid skin and mucous-membrane contact with urine and blood. The ACVIM consensus recommends an indwelling urinary catheter with a closed system rather than intermittent catheterization to reduce staff exposure. Common hospital disinfectants kill leptospires.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Leptospirosis is a well-known zoonosis.
B. Transmission is through contact with infected urine, not aerosols.
C. Start antimicrobials as soon as leptospirosis is suspected; waiting delays treatment and prolongs shedding.
D. Urine is the main source of infection for people, so it is exactly what needs barrier precautions.

Exam takeaway: Suspected lepto: treat now, protect staff from urine with barrier precautions and a closed collection system.

Sources: Merck Veterinary Manual — Leptospirosis in Dogs — Zoonotic risk; Control; Sykes JE et al. Updated ACVIM consensus statement on leptospirosis in dogs. J Vet Intern Med 2023;37:1966–1982 — Introduction; Treatment

Question 30

Bovine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Veterinary Public Health

A 300-cow dairy has confirmed several clinical cases of paratuberculosis (Johne's disease). Which management change most directly reduces new infections in the herd?

A. Vaccinate the herd and keep current calf practices
B. Test and cull adults, but keep pooling colostrum
C. Clean calving, prompt calf removal, safe colostrum
D. Treat clinical cows with antimicrobials and keep them
E. Feed calves unpasteurized waste milk to build immunity

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Clean calving, prompt calf removal, safe colostrum

Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis spreads mainly by the fecal-oral route, and calves are most susceptible early in life. Control therefore centers on keeping newborns away from adult feces and contaminated colostrum or milk, combined with repeated testing and culling of positive adults.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Vaccination does not replace good management and sanitation.
B. Testing and culling help, but pooled colostrum can still expose calves to infected cows' milk.
D. Antimicrobials do not cure Johne's disease, and keeping shedders spreads it.
E. Waste milk from infected cows is a direct route of infection for calves.

Exam takeaway: Johne's control is a calf-hygiene program: clean calving, immediate separation, safe colostrum and milk.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Paratuberculosis in Ruminants — Control

Block 2: Questions 31–60

Same pace: 33 minutes for 30 questions.

Question 31

Canine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 10-year-old spayed female dachshund has increased thirst and urination, a ravenous appetite, a pot-bellied appearance, thin skin, and bilateral flank alopecia. She has not received glucocorticoids and has no other known illness. Results are shown. Which is the preferred screening test for the most likely diagnosis?

Question 31 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
ALP	980 U/L	20–150
Cholesterol	390 mg/dL	135–270
Urine specific gravity	1.008	—

A. ACTH stimulation test
B. Endogenous plasma ACTH concentration
C. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
D. Abdominal radiographs to look for adrenal changes
E. A single resting serum cortisol

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, a pot belly, skin changes, and a markedly high ALP fit hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease). The low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is the screening test of choice. The ACTH stimulation test is less sensitive but more specific, and it is the better choice when iatrogenic disease is suspected. A normal urine cortisol:creatinine ratio makes the disease unlikely because that test is highly sensitive, but a high result is not specific.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. A reasonable test, but less sensitive than the LDDST for spontaneous disease. It is preferred when iatrogenic Cushing's is a concern, which this dog's history rules out.
B. Endogenous ACTH helps tell pituitary from adrenal disease after the diagnosis is made.
D. Radiographs may show hepatomegaly or adrenal mineralization but cannot diagnose the disease.
E. A single cortisol value cannot diagnose hyperadrenocorticism.

Exam takeaway: Suspected spontaneous Cushing's: screen with the LDDST; use the ACTH stim test when iatrogenic disease is possible.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Cushing Disease (Pituitary-Dependent Hyperadrenocorticism) in Animals — Diagnosis

Question 32

Bovine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

Several feedlot steers on a high-concentrate ration that recently added a by-product feed, and that drink high-sulfate well water, are blind, head pressing, and show dorsomedial strabismus. The menace response is absent, but pupillary light reflexes are normal. Which treatment is most appropriate?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Thiamine

Cortical blindness (absent menace with normal pupillary reflexes), dorsomedial strabismus, and head pressing in cattle on a high-sulfur diet fit polioencephalomalacia. High dietary sulfur increases thiamine demand. Treat early with thiamine and correct the sulfur sources in feed and water.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Vitamin A deficiency causes blindness with absent pupillary light reflexes.
B. Hypocalcemia is not the cause of these signs.
C. Lead poisoning is a differential, but the history points to sulfur.
D. Ammonium chloride prevents urolithiasis and has no role here.

Exam takeaway: Blind cattle with normal PLRs on high-sulfur feed or water → polioencephalomalacia → thiamine.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Polioencephalomalacia in Ruminants — Etiology; Clinical Findings; Treatment

Question 33

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 3-year-old, 4-kg cat was given half of a 325-mg acetaminophen tablet by its owner 6 hours ago for a limp. The cat now has facial and paw swelling, brown mucous membranes, and rapid breathing. Which is the specific antidote?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. N-acetylcysteine

Cats have little glucuronyl transferase activity, so acetaminophen is quickly diverted into a toxic metabolite that causes methemoglobinemia (brown mucous membranes), Heinz body anemia, and facial and paw edema. This cat received about 40 mg/kg, within the range that usually causes toxicosis; signs have been reported at doses as low as 10 mg/kg. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote. Ascorbic acid and other measures are adjuncts.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Cimetidine should be avoided in cats with acetaminophen toxicosis because it may prolong methemoglobinemia.
C. Fomepizole is used for ethylene glycol toxicosis.
D. Atropine is used for organophosphate and carbamate toxicosis.
E. Methylene blue can be an adjunct for methemoglobinemia, but it is not the antidote.

Exam takeaway: Cat + acetaminophen = methemoglobinemia and facial edema → N-acetylcysteine.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Toxicoses From Human Analgesics in Animals — Acetaminophen

Question 34

Equine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 7-year-old Standardbred gelding has progressive asymmetric ataxia and weakness, worse in the left hind limb, with focal atrophy of the right gluteal muscles. He is bright and afebrile. Opossums are often seen in the barn. Which test best supports the most likely diagnosis?

A. Serum:CSF antibody titer ratio
B. Serum antibody titer alone, repeated in 2 weeks
C. Cervical radiographs alone
D. CSF cytology alone
E. Fecal flotation for sporocysts

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Serum:CSF antibody titer ratio

Asymmetric ataxia with focal muscle atrophy in a bright, afebrile horse is the typical picture of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis, usually caused by Sarcocystis neurona, whose definitive host is the opossum. Paired serum and CSF testing shows antibody being produced inside the central nervous system. A low serum:CSF ratio is highly supportive.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. A positive serum test shows only exposure, which is common. A negative serum result makes EPM unlikely.
C. Cervical stenotic myelopathy is a differential, but radiographs cannot diagnose EPM.
D. CSF cytology is often normal in EPM, so it cannot confirm or exclude it.
E. Horses are dead-end hosts and do not shed the parasite.

Exam takeaway: EPM: asymmetric signs + focal atrophy. Positive serum = exposure only; the serum:CSF ratio supports disease.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis — Etiology; Clinical Findings; Diagnosis

Question 35

Canine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Veterinary Public Health

In the United States, a healthy-appearing 2-year-old dog with no rabies vaccination history bit a neighbor's child yesterday. The owner wants to keep the dog. According to current CDC guidance, which is the appropriate management of the dog?

A. Euthanize now and submit the head to the state lab for testing
B. Vaccinate today and observe for 10 days
C. Vaccinate today and release to the owner
D. 10-day observation from the bite; report to health officials
E. Confine under quarantine for 4 months

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. 10-day observation from the bite; report to health officials

CDC guidance says that, in coordination with public health authorities, a healthy dog, cat, or ferret that exposes a person should be confined and observed for 10 days after the exposure regardless of vaccination history. Any illness during that period should be reported immediately to the local health department and evaluated by a veterinarian. If signs consistent with rabies develop, the animal should be euthanized and tested. Rabies vaccination is not recommended during the observation period because a vaccine reaction could be confused with signs of rabies.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Immediate euthanasia is not required for a healthy owned animal, though it may be used for strays or unwanted animals.
B. Observation is right, but vaccinating during observation is specifically discouraged.
C. The dog must be observed, and vaccination during observation is discouraged.
E. Months-long confinement applies to animals that were themselves exposed to rabies, not to a healthy animal that bit someone.

Exam takeaway: Healthy dog bites a person → 10-day observation from the bite, report to public health, no vaccine during observation.

Source: CDC — Information for Veterinarians: Managing an animal that has bitten a person — Dogs, cats, and ferrets

Question 36

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 10-year-old neutered male overweight domestic shorthair cat has newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. He is not ketotic, has no other disease, and is not receiving glucocorticoids. The owner asks what gives the best chance of diabetic remission. Which advice is most appropriate?

A. Early glycemic control with insulin and a low-carb diet
B. Insulin with a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet
C. Wait 6 months to see whether the diabetes resolves
D. Start insulin only after weight loss is complete
E. Choose the right insulin brand; diet doesn't matter much

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Early glycemic control with insulin and a low-carb diet

Remission in cats means normal glucose for more than 4 weeks without insulin or oral drugs, and most remissions happen within the first 6 months. AAHA's 2026 cat guidelines emphasize achieving good glycemic control early as more important than the choice of insulin product. A low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet (typically canned) supports that goal.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. High-carbohydrate diets raise blood glucose after meals and work against remission.
C. Delaying treatment is the opposite of what improves remission.
D. Weight loss helps, but insulin is needed now to get early glycemic control.
E. AAHA's 2026 guidelines put early control ahead of the insulin product, and diet supports that control.

Exam takeaway: Feline diabetic remission: tight control early with insulin and a low-carb diet. Timing matters more than the insulin brand.

Sources: AAHA — 2026 Diabetes Management Guidelines for Cats, Section 9: Diabetic Remission — Section 9; Merck Veterinary Manual — Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats — Treatment—cats

Question 37

Porcine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

Grower pigs on an outdoor farm have a fever of 106°F (41.1°C), reluctance to move, and raised, red, diamond-shaped skin lesions on the flanks and back. A few pigs have died. Which organism is most likely responsible?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Acute erysipelas causes high fever and the characteristic diamond-shaped skin lesions, which are almost diagnostic. Chronic forms cause arthritis and valvular endocarditis. Penicillin is the drug of choice for acute cases, vaccination prevents disease, and the organism can infect people who handle infected pigs or carcasses. Because African and classical swine fever can also cause skin discoloration and high mortality, keep foreign animal diseases in mind in an unusual outbreak.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. S. suis causes meningitis, arthritis, and septicemia, typically in young pigs, without diamond skin lesions.
B. S. hyicus causes greasy pig disease (exudative epidermitis), mainly in young piglets.
C. Porcine parvovirus causes reproductive failure in sows.
E. M. hyopneumoniae causes chronic pneumonia.

Exam takeaway: Diamond-shaped skin lesions + fever in pigs → erysipelas → penicillin; it's zoonotic.

Sources: Merck Veterinary Manual — Swine Erysipelas — Clinical Findings; Treatment; Prevention; Merck Veterinary Manual — Overview of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Infection — Zoonotic risk

Question 38

Canine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

An 8-year-old neutered male dog with diabetes mellitus ran out of insulin 5 days ago. He is now vomiting, will not eat, and is about 8% dehydrated. Results are shown. Which should be started first?

Question 38 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
Glucose	480 mg/dL (26.6 mmol/L)	70–120 mg/dL (3.9–6.7 mmol/L)
Urine ketones	3+	Negative
Venous pH	7.08	7.35–7.45
Potassium	3.4 mEq/L (mmol/L)	3.6–5.6
Phosphorus	2.2 mg/dL	2.5–6.0

A. Long-acting insulin subcutaneously now, then start IV fluids
B. IV sodium bicarbonate before any fluids
C. IV isotonic fluids with K and P support, then insulin
D. Regular insulin IV immediately, before fluids
E. Withhold fluids until the glucose falls

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. IV isotonic fluids with K and P support, then insulin

The first priority in diabetic ketoacidosis is correcting dehydration with IV isotonic fluids such as 0.9% NaCl or lactated Ringer's. Potassium and phosphorus need supplementing and close monitoring, because insulin will drive both further into cells. This dog is already low in both. Absorption of injected insulin depends on hydration, so short-acting insulin is started after initial fluid therapy, and long-acting insulin resumes once the dog is rehydrated and eating.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Subcutaneous insulin is poorly absorbed while the dog is dehydrated, and fluids come first.
B. Bicarbonate is not the first step; fluids and then insulin correct most of the acidosis.
D. Insulin before fluids can drop the already-low potassium and phosphorus further and is poorly effective while dehydrated.
E. Fluids are the foundation of treatment.

Exam takeaway: DKA: fluids first, watch potassium and phosphorus, then insulin.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats — Treatment—diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 39

Equine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Animal Welfare Issues and Concerns

A new horse owner asks which vaccines the American Association of Equine Practitioners (AAEP) considers core for all adult horses. Which answer is correct?

A. Tetanus, influenza, EHV, West Nile virus
B. Tetanus, EEE/WEE, strangles, influenza
C. Rabies, EHV, strangles, Potomac horse fever
D. Tetanus and rabies only
E. Tetanus, EEE/WEE, West Nile virus, rabies

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Tetanus, EEE/WEE, West Nile virus, rabies

The AAEP classifies tetanus, Eastern/Western equine encephalomyelitis, West Nile virus, and rabies as core vaccines for adult horses. Core vaccines protect against diseases that are endemic, severe, of public-health significance, or legally required, with efficacy and safety that justify use in all horses. All others, including influenza, equine herpesvirus, and strangles, are risk-based.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Influenza and equine herpesvirus are widely used but classified as risk-based.
B. Strangles and influenza are risk-based vaccines.
C. Only rabies on this list is core.
D. Tetanus and rabies are core, but so are EEE/WEE and West Nile virus.

Exam takeaway: AAEP core = tetanus, EEE/WEE, West Nile, rabies. Everything else is risk-based.

Source: AAEP — Equine Vaccination Guidelines — Core Vaccination Guidelines

Question 40

Feline · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 15-year-old spayed female cat suddenly went blind yesterday. Fundic examination shows bilateral retinal detachment with retinal hemorrhage. Creatinine is mildly increased, and total T4 is within the reference interval. Which is the most appropriate next step?

A. Topical ophthalmic corticosteroids only
B. Measure systolic blood pressure
C. An electroretinogram before any other test
D. Start enalapril and recheck in 1 month
E. Bilateral enucleation

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Measure systolic blood pressure

Retinal detachment and hemorrhage in an older cat are classic signs of target-organ damage from systemic hypertension, often linked to chronic kidney disease or hyperthyroidism. Measure systolic blood pressure now. Under the ACVIM consensus, a systolic pressure of 160 mmHg or more with target-organ damage justifies treatment after a single measurement session, acute ocular damage is treated as an emergency, and amlodipine is the first-choice drug in cats.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. This does not address the cause.
C. Not needed to make the diagnosis, and it delays urgent treatment.
D. ACE inhibitors are not first-line for lowering blood pressure in cats, and a month's delay risks permanent blindness.
E. Vision may return with prompt treatment.

Exam takeaway: Sudden blindness with retinal detachment in an old cat → measure blood pressure; amlodipine is first-line.

Source: Acierno MJ et al. ACVIM consensus statement: guidelines for the identification, evaluation, and management of systemic hypertension in dogs and cats. J Vet Intern Med 2018 — Blood pressure categories; Treatment; Emergencies

Question 41

Other small mammals · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 5-year-old neutered male rabbit stopped eating 24 hours ago and has produced few fecal pellets. He sits hunched and is mildly dehydrated. Ultrasound shows no gastrointestinal obstruction, and the abdomen is not distended. Which is the most appropriate initial plan?

A. A prokinetic and fluids, holding analgesics so pain can be monitored
B. Mineral oil by mouth plus fluids
C. Withhold food for 24 hours, then offer hay
D. Gastrotomy to remove a suspected hairball
E. Fluids, opioids, hay, and assisted feeding; then a prokinetic

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Fluids, opioids, hay, and assisted feeding; then a prokinetic

Treatment for gastrointestinal stasis in rabbits rests on fluid therapy, analgesia (which is essential), and nutritional support, with hay available throughout and assisted feeding of a critical-care formula when the gut is not distended. Prokinetic drugs are used only after true obstruction has been excluded and after hydration and pain control have started. Surgery is reserved for cases that fail medical management.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Analgesia is essential in these rabbits; withholding it is not appropriate.
B. Mineral oil and laxatives are ineffective.
C. Rabbits need continued food intake to restore gut motility.
D. Surgery is not first-line when there is no obstruction.

Exam takeaway: Rabbit GI stasis: fluids, pain control, food. Prokinetics only after obstruction is ruled out.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Noninfectious Diseases of Rabbits — Gastric Stasis, Hair Chewing, and Hairballs

Question 42

Canine · Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness: Professional Development and Lifelong Learning

In the United States, a practice's monthly controlled-substance count shows a significant amount of ketamine missing, and theft is suspected. Under DEA regulations, what is required?

A. DEA Form 106 within 45 days; no earlier notice is required
B. Written DEA notice in 1 business day; Form 106 in 45 days
C. Written DEA notice within 7 days; Form 106 within 30 days
D. File DEA Form 41 to record the loss
E. Report the loss at the next biennial inventory

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Written DEA notice in 1 business day; Form 106 in 45 days

Under 21 CFR 1301.76(b), a registrant must notify the DEA Field Division Office in writing within one business day of discovering a theft or significant loss of controlled substances, and must file a complete DEA Form 106 electronically within 45 days after discovery. State boards and pharmacy rules may add their own reporting duties.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Form 106 is due within 45 days, but written notice must go to the DEA within one business day first.
C. Both deadlines are wrong.
D. Form 41 records the destruction of controlled substances, not theft or loss.
E. The deadline runs from discovery, not from the next inventory.

Exam takeaway: U.S. controlled-substance theft or significant loss: written DEA notice within 1 business day, Form 106 within 45 days.

Source: eCFR — 21 CFR 1301.76, Other security controls for practitioners — §1301.76(b)

Question 43

Bovine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

On a 400-cow dairy, cases of clinical mastitis have increased. Most cases are mild, with abnormal milk but no systemic signs. To identify the cause and guide treatment decisions, what should be done first for each new case?

A. Aseptic quarter milk sample for culture before treating
B. Treat every case with the same intramammary antibiotic, no culture
C. California Mastitis Test to identify the pathogen
D. Bulk-tank somatic cell count to find each cow's pathogen
E. Culture the milk after antibiotic treatment ends

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Aseptic quarter milk sample for culture before treating

Culturing milk from the affected quarter is the only reliable way to identify the cause of clinical mastitis. Culture-guided programs hold treatment of mild cases until results return in about 24–48 hours, which does not harm cure rates or milk production and avoids unnecessary antimicrobial use.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Blanket treatment ignores the pathogen and wastes antimicrobials on cases that do not need them.
C. The CMT estimates somatic cell count; it cannot identify the organism.
D. Bulk-tank values describe the herd, not an individual cow's infection.
E. Antibiotics suppress growth, so culture after treatment is unreliable.

Exam takeaway: Mild clinical mastitis: culture the quarter first; treat based on the result.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Mastitis in Cattle — Mild clinical mastitis

Question 44

Feline · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 4-year-old Siamese cat has had an intermittent cough and expiratory wheeze for 6 months. Thoracic radiographs show a diffuse bronchial pattern with hyperinflation. Heartworm antigen and antibody tests and a fecal flotation are negative, and Baermann tests on 3 consecutive days are negative. Bronchoalveolar lavage shows 40% eosinophils and no organisms. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Feline asthma

A young adult Siamese with episodic cough, wheeze, a bronchial pattern, hyperinflation, and eosinophilic airway inflammation fits feline asthma. Because heartworm-associated respiratory disease and lungworm can look the same, every case should be tested for them, as was done here. Corticosteroids are the main treatment; bronchodilators are added but never used alone.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Heart failure produces pulmonary edema or pleural effusion, not a bronchial pattern with eosinophilic lavage.
B. Lungworm also causes eosinophilic airway disease, but three Baermann tests and the lavage found no larvae.
D. Pyothorax causes pleural effusion and systemic illness, not intermittent wheeze.
E. Laryngeal paralysis causes inspiratory noise, not expiratory wheeze with a bronchial pattern.

Exam takeaway: Coughing, wheezing cat with eosinophilic airways → asthma, after ruling out heartworm and lungworm.

Sources: Merck Veterinary Manual — Feline Bronchial Asthma — Overview; Treatment; Nafe LA. Feline Asthma. Clinician's Brief, July 2020 — Diagnosis; Differentials

Question 45

Aquatics · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A new koi pond was filled 10 days ago, and 30 fish were added the same day. The fish are now lethargic, darkened, and gasping, and several have died. Water testing shows total ammonia nitrogen of 3.0 mg/L, pH 8.6, and a temperature of 82°F (28°C). Which statement is correct?

A. Raise the pH so more ammonia shifts to its nontoxic form
B. Cooler water raises the toxic fraction, so warm the pond
C. Add nitrifying bacteria only; a water change isn't needed
D. High pH and warmth raise toxic NH₃; do a big water change
E. Ammonia is unlikely; test for nitrate toxicity instead

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. High pH and warmth raise toxic NH₃; do a big water change

Test kits measure total ammonia nitrogen. The un-ionized form, NH₃, is the toxic one, and its share rises with higher pH and higher temperature, with pH having the larger effect. New tank syndrome is a spike in ammonia during the first 2–3 weeks, before nitrifying bacteria are established. Treat with a large water change of at least 50%, using dechlorinated, temperature-matched water, stop or reduce feeding, and support the biofilter. Prevent it by adding fish gradually.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Raising the pH converts more ammonium to toxic NH₃.
B. Warmer, not cooler, water increases the toxic fraction.
C. Bacteria help establish the biofilter, but fish dying from ammonia now need the level lowered immediately.
E. Nitrate builds up in mature systems; a new pond with high total ammonia nitrogen points to ammonia.

Exam takeaway: Fish dying in a new system → check ammonia; high pH and warm water make it more toxic → big water change, less feeding.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Environmental Diseases of Aquatic Animals in Aquatic Systems — Nitrogenous compounds: Ammonia; New tank syndrome

Question 46

Canine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 5-year-old dachshund became paraplegic over the past 12 hours. Deep pain perception is absent in both pelvic limbs, there is spinal pain at the thoracolumbar junction, and the thoracic limbs are normal. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

A. Advanced imaging and decompressive surgery promptly
B. Strict cage rest for 4–6 weeks as first-line treatment
C. Euthanasia, because recovery is not possible
D. Discharge on an NSAID and recheck in 2 weeks
E. Acupuncture as the only treatment

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Advanced imaging and decompressive surgery promptly

For paraplegic dogs that have lost deep pain perception from disc extrusion, the ACVIM consensus recommends surgical decompression, done as early as possible. Pooled data in the consensus show about 61% of these dogs regain walking after surgery, compared with about 21% with medical management. The consensus also notes that surgery should not be refused just because time has passed.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Medical management has much poorer outcomes in dogs without deep pain perception.
C. Many deep-pain-negative dogs recover with surgery.
D. Sending home a dog with a surgical emergency loses the best chance of recovery.
E. Acupuncture alone is not a substitute for decompression in this situation.

Exam takeaway: Paraplegic and deep-pain-negative from a disc: decompress as soon as possible. Prognosis is guarded, not hopeless.

Source: Olby NJ et al. ACVIM consensus statement on diagnosis and management of acute canine thoracolumbar intervertebral disc extrusion. J Vet Intern Med 2022 — Surgical vs medical management of deep-pain-negative dogs

Question 47

Equine · Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness: Professional Development and Lifelong Learning

A buyer asks you to perform a purchase examination on a horse. You have been the horse's veterinarian for 5 years, and the seller is a long-time client. According to AAEP ethical guidance, what should you do?

A. Do the exam and tell neither party about the history
B. Disclose only to the buyer, then perform the exam
C. Disclose to both parties; refer if either objects
D. Do the exam and certify suitability for the buyer's use
E. Accept a fee that is payable only if the sale closes

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Disclose to both parties; refer if either objects

The AAEP equine addendum to the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics says the veterinarian must stay impartial and avoid conflicts of interest. If the veterinarian has a prior relationship with the horse or seller, both buyer and seller should be informed, and referral to another veterinarian is recommended if anyone is uncomfortable. The veterinarian works for the buyer.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Concealing the relationship is exactly the conflict the guidance addresses.
B. AAEP guidance says both buyer and seller should be informed.
D. AAEP guidelines say the veterinarian should not judge suitability for the intended use; that is the buyer's decision.
E. A contingency fee creates a conflict of interest and should be avoided.

Exam takeaway: Purchase exam with a prior relationship: disclose to both parties, offer referral, report everything, no suitability verdict.

Sources: AAEP — Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics: Equine Addendum — Pre-purchase examination; AAEP — Guidelines for Reporting Purchase Examinations — Guidelines

Question 48

Feline · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Animal Welfare Issues and Concerns

You are setting your clinic's feline vaccination protocol to reduce the harm of feline injection-site sarcoma. Which approach follows the 2020 AAHA/AAFP Feline Vaccination Guidelines?

A. Interscapular injections, alternating left and right
B. Distal-limb sites, using half the usual vaccine volume
C. All vaccines together in a single distal limb
D. A standard, recorded distal-limb site per vaccine
E. Intramuscular injections in the lumbar muscles

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A standard, recorded distal-limb site per vaccine

Vaccinating low on the limbs means that if a sarcoma develops, amputation can achieve wide margins. The guidelines list panleukopenia, herpesvirus-1, and calicivirus below the right elbow; FeLV below the left stifle; and rabies below the right stifle, and they recommend recording the site, product, and route. Use the 3-2-1 rule to decide when to biopsy a post-vaccination mass.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. The interscapular site makes complete excision very difficult, and the guidelines specifically do not recommend it.
B. Reducing the vaccine volume is not recommended.
C. Each vaccine has its own recommended site, so a sarcoma can be traced to a product.
E. Masses deep in the lumbar muscles are hard to detect and excise.

Exam takeaway: Feline vaccines go low on the limbs, in standard, recorded sites. Not between the shoulders, and don't halve the dose.

Sources: 2020 AAHA/AAFP Feline Vaccination Guidelines — Feline injection-site sarcoma; AAHA — 2020 AAHA/AAFP Feline Vaccination Guidelines FAQs — Injection sites

Question 49

Ovine/Caprine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A flock of ewes has been fed a mineral mix formulated for cattle for several months. A few days after shearing and transport, one ewe becomes weak and icteric, passes red-brown urine, and dies. Necropsy shows dark "gunmetal" kidneys and an enlarged, yellow, friable liver. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Chronic copper toxicosis

Sheep are the species most susceptible to copper toxicosis. Copper builds up silently in the liver, often from feeds not formulated for sheep, until stress such as shearing or transport triggers a sudden release and hemolytic crisis with icterus and hemoglobinuria. Gunmetal kidneys are typical. Diagnosis is confirmed by liver and kidney copper concentrations, and ammonium tetrathiomolybdate is used to treat at-risk sheep.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Pregnancy toxemia causes neurologic signs in late-gestation ewes, not hemolysis.
C. Leptospirosis can cause hemolysis, but the cattle-mineral history, stress trigger, and gunmetal kidneys point to copper.
D. Haemonchus causes pale, not icteric, membranes and no hemoglobinuria.
E. Selenium deficiency causes white muscle disease.

Exam takeaway: Sheep + cattle mineral + stress → hemolytic crisis → copper toxicosis.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Copper Toxicosis in Animals — Clinical Findings; Lesions; Diagnosis; Treatment

Question 50

Canine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 7-year-old neutered male golden retriever has gained weight, is lethargic, and has bilateral truncal alopecia with recurrent pyoderma. He takes no medications and has no other illness. Results are shown. Which is the most appropriate next step?

Question 50 results
Test	Result	Reference interval
Total T4	0.7 µg/dL	1.0–4.0
Cholesterol	420 mg/dL	135–270
PCV	34%	37–55%

A. Start levothyroxine based on the low total T4 result
B. Free T4 by an analog assay
C. Canine TSH alone
D. Repeat total T4 in 6 months
E. Free T4 by equilibrium dialysis plus canine TSH

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Free T4 by equilibrium dialysis plus canine TSH

The signs fit hypothyroidism, and hypercholesterolemia and mild nonregenerative anemia are common. But a low total T4 alone is not diagnostic, because nonthyroidal illness, many drugs, and breed (for example, sighthounds) also lower it. Free T4 by equilibrium dialysis is more specific, and TSH adds support; TSH should never be interpreted alone.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Treating on a low total T4 alone risks treating a euthyroid dog.
B. Analog free T4 assays are no better than total T4. Only equilibrium dialysis has the specificity advantage.
C. TSH is normal in a substantial share of hypothyroid dogs and should never be interpreted alone.
D. Waiting leaves a dog with consistent signs undiagnosed.

Exam takeaway: Low total T4 + compatible signs → confirm with free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) and TSH before treating.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Hypothyroidism in Animals — Diagnosis

Question 51

Bovine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A third-lactation Holstein cow, 10 days after calving, has reduced feed intake (refusing grain first), a drop in milk production, and firm feces. Rectal temperature is normal, rumen motility is present, and no ping is heard. Blood β-hydroxybutyrate is 2.6 mmol/L. Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Oral propylene glycol for several days
B. Dexamethasone alone
C. A single IV dextrose bolus, then no further treatment
D. IV calcium borogluconate
E. Penicillin

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Oral propylene glycol for several days

A blood BHB at or above 1.2 mmol/L in early lactation indicates hyperketonemia (ketosis). Oral propylene glycol, given for several days, is the first-line treatment. IV dextrose raises glucose only briefly and relapse is common, so it does not stand alone. Glucocorticoids are not recommended.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Glucocorticoids are not recommended for treating ketosis.
C. The effect of a single bolus is transient, and relapse is common.
D. Nothing here suggests hypocalcemia.
E. Ketosis is metabolic, not bacterial.

Exam takeaway: Fresh cow, BHB ≥ 1.2 mmol/L → oral propylene glycol for several days.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Hyperketonemia in Cattle — Clinical Findings; Diagnosis; Treatment

Question 52

Feline · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 2-year-old cat developed full-body tremors 6 hours after the owner applied a flea spot-on product labeled for dogs only that contains permethrin. Rectal temperature is 104.1°F (40.1°C). Which initial plan is most appropriate?

A. Atropine IV, then a bath with flea shampoo
B. Methocarbamol IV, then a lukewarm dish-soap bath
C. A cold-water bath first to lower the temperature
D. Diazepam alone, without bathing
E. Activated charcoal by mouth only

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Methocarbamol IV, then a lukewarm dish-soap bath

Cats are highly sensitive to permethrin, and concentrated dog spot-on products are a common cause of tremors and seizures. Methocarbamol is first-line for the tremors. Once the tremors are controlled, bathe the cat with lukewarm water and liquid dishwashing detergent to remove the product, and give IV fluids and temperature support. The fever here comes from muscle activity and resolves as the tremors are controlled.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Atropine is for organophosphate and carbamate toxicosis, and flea shampoo adds insecticide.
C. Cold water can cause hypothermia once tremors stop, which worsens signs.
D. Benzodiazepines are for refractory cases, and the product still has to be washed off.
E. The exposure is through the skin, so removing the product from the coat matters most.

Exam takeaway: Cat + dog permethrin spot-on: methocarbamol, then dish-detergent bath in lukewarm water, fluids, temperature control.

Source: ASPCA Pro — Five tips for treating cat permethrin toxicosis — Whole article

Question 53

Poultry · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Veterinary Public Health

In the United States, an owner of a 25-hen backyard flock calls you. Eight hens died suddenly over 2 days, several others have swollen, purple combs and wattles, and egg production has dropped. What is the most appropriate first step?

A. Antibiotics in the water and a recheck in a week
B. Wait for another round of deaths before reporting it
C. Vaccinate the surviving hens to stop the outbreak
D. Cull the sick hens and keep the rest laying
E. Report to the State Veterinarian or USDA APHIS now

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. Report to the State Veterinarian or USDA APHIS now

Sudden death, swelling and purple discoloration of the comb and wattles, and a drop in egg production are signs of highly pathogenic avian influenza. Sick birds and unusual deaths should be reported through the State Veterinarian or to USDA APHIS at its toll-free number, 1-866-536-7593. Until officials respond, the owner should keep the flock isolated and follow strict biosecurity.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Antibiotics do not treat a viral disease.
B. Delay lets the virus spread to other flocks.
C. Avian influenza vaccination in U.S. poultry is not available as an owner-administered option.
D. Culling on the owner's own decides nothing about the cause and leaves a possible outbreak unreported.

Exam takeaway: Sudden deaths + swollen purple combs in poultry → report to the State Veterinarian or APHIS right away.

Sources: USDA APHIS — Report Sick Birds (card) — Contact list; USDA APHIS — Avian Influenza — Signs of HPAI

Source link update: the original USDA reporting-card address is unavailable. This citation now opens APHIS’s current “Report Sick Birds” guidance, including State-veterinarian contacts and USDA’s reporting number.

Question 54

Canine · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 3-year-old Labrador retriever is lethargic and breathing rapidly. Three days ago the owner found a chewed bait station of a second-generation anticoagulant rodenticide. Thoracic ultrasound shows pleural fluid consistent with hemorrhage. The prothrombin time is markedly prolonged, the activated partial thromboplastin time is prolonged, and the platelet count is normal. Which treatment plan is most appropriate?

A. Oral vitamin K1 alone, starting today
B. Vitamin K1 as a rapid IV bolus
C. Induce emesis, then start oral vitamin K1
D. Plasma now, plus oral vitamin K1 with food for 4 weeks
E. Plasma now, plus vitamin K1 for 3 days until bleeding stops

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Plasma now, plus oral vitamin K1 with food for 4 weeks

Anticoagulant rodenticides block vitamin K–dependent activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. A dog that is bleeding needs clotting factors immediately from fresh frozen plasma or whole blood, because vitamin K1 takes hours to restore factor production. Give vitamin K1 orally with a fatty meal (subcutaneously until the dog can take oral medication), typically for 28 days, and recheck the PT 2–3 days after the last dose. The PT prolongs first because factor VII has the shortest half-life of the affected factors.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Vitamin K1 is needed, but an actively bleeding dog needs clotting factors from plasma now.
B. IV vitamin K1 is not advised because of the risk of anaphylactoid reactions.
C. Ingestion was 3 days ago, so emesis is too late, and the dog is already bleeding.
E. Second-generation anticoagulants persist; 3 days is far too short.

Exam takeaway: Bleeding rodenticide dog: plasma now for factors, vitamin K1 (oral or SC, not IV) for weeks, recheck PT after stopping.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Anticoagulant Rodenticides (Warfarin and Congeners) — Pathogenesis; Diagnosis; Treatment

Question 55

Equine · Clinical Practice: Data Gathering and Interpretation

A 2-month-old Quarter Horse foal has a fever of 104.5°F (40.3°C), cough, and rapid breathing. Thoracic ultrasound shows multiple peripheral pulmonary abscesses. Several foals on the farm had similar problems last year. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rhodococcus equi pneumonia
B. Strangles
C. Equine herpesvirus-1 respiratory disease
D. Lawsonia intracellularis proliferative enteropathy
E. Equine influenza

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Rhodococcus equi pneumonia

R. equi pneumonia affects foals 1–5 months old and causes pyogranulomatous pneumonia with pulmonary abscesses, often recurring on endemic farms. Definitive diagnosis is by culture or VapA PCR of a tracheobronchial aspirate. Clinically affected foals are treated with a macrolide plus rifampin. Treating small subclinical lesions found on screening is debated, because many resolve on their own.

Why the other choices are wrong:

B. Strangles causes upper respiratory infection and lymph node abscesses, not peripheral lung abscesses in a 2-month-old.
C. EHV-1 causes viral respiratory disease without pulmonary abscesses.
D. Lawsonia causes protein-losing enteropathy in weanlings, not pneumonia.
E. Influenza does not cause pulmonary abscesses.

Exam takeaway: Foal 1–5 months + fever + lung abscesses on ultrasound → R. equi. Confirm with a tracheal aspirate.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Rhodococcus equi Pneumonia in Foals — Clinical Findings; Diagnosis; Treatment

Question 56

Feline · Communication: Communication with Clients

A 4-year-old indoor neutered male cat has had his third episode in a year of straining and bloody urine without obstruction. Urinalysis, urine culture, and imaging find no infection or uroliths. He lives in an apartment with two other cats. The owner asks how to reduce future episodes. Which advice is most appropriate?

A. Long-term antibiotics to prevent the next recurrence
B. Daily amitriptyline as the first step
C. Less stress, better litter setup, and canned food
D. A dry urinary diet, with no other changes
E. Restrict water to concentrate the urine

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Less stress, better litter setup, and canned food

Recurrent, sterile lower urinary signs without uroliths fit feline idiopathic cystitis, which is closely linked to stress. Management aims to reduce the frequency and severity of episodes through environmental changes that lower stress, good litter box management, attention to conflict between cats, and dietary changes such as canned food. Pheromones and analgesia during flares are add-ons.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Idiopathic cystitis is sterile, so antibiotics do not help.
B. Results with antidepressants are mixed, and they are not first-line.
D. Canned food is the dietary measure recommended, and diet alone ignores the stress component.
E. More dilute urine, not less, is the goal.

Exam takeaway: Recurrent sterile cystitis in a cat: reduce stress, manage litter boxes and cat conflict, feed canned food.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Lower Urinary Tract Disease in Cats — Feline idiopathic cystitis—treatment

Question 57

Other small mammals · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

A 1-year-old guinea pig has been fed rabbit pellets and timothy hay. It is reluctant to move, has swollen, painful joints and a rough coat, and is eating less. Which is the most likely cause?

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Vitamin C deficiency

Guinea pigs lack a functional L-gulonolactone oxidase enzyme, so they need dietary vitamin C at every age. Rabbit pellets do not provide it. Signs include reduced appetite, rough coat, lameness, swollen joints, generalized pain, and poor wound healing. Treatment is vitamin C supplementation, correcting the diet, and analgesia.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Nothing in the diet or history suggests vitamin D excess.
C. Calcium deficiency does not explain the full picture, and the diet history points to a missing vitamin.
D. Multiple swollen joints with poor coat and diet history point to a nutritional cause, not infection.
E. Nothing in the history points to vitamin E deficiency, while a rabbit-pellet diet points directly to missing vitamin C.

Exam takeaway: Guinea pig + rabbit pellets + sore swollen joints → vitamin C deficiency.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Noninfectious Diseases of Guinea Pigs — Hypovitaminosis C in Guinea Pigs

Question 58

Canine · Communication: Communication with Veterinary and Other Professionals

At the end of your shift, you are transferring a dog recovering from abdominal surgery to the overnight veterinarian. The dog had a period of hypotension under anesthesia and has a heart murmur. Which approach to the handoff is most appropriate?

A. A quick verbal update in the hallway as you leave
B. Detailed written notes on the cage card only
C. Ask a technician to relay the key points
D. Structured handoff (e.g., I-PASS) with read-back
E. Email a full summary after you leave

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Structured handoff (e.g., I-PASS) with read-back

Transitions of care are high-risk moments, and veterinary literature recommends standardized, structured handoff tools adapted from human medicine, such as I-PASS (illness severity, patient summary, action list, situation awareness and contingency planning, synthesis by the receiver). A published veterinary case report linked a patient's death to serial handoffs in which later caregivers did not know about earlier hypotension and heart disease. The receiver's read-back confirms that the key information landed.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. An unstructured hallway handoff is how critical details get lost.
B. Written notes help but do not allow questions or confirm understanding.
C. An indirect relay adds another chance for information to be lost.
E. A message after you leave removes the chance for questions.

Exam takeaway: Use a structured handoff with read-back, and always pass on events like intraoperative hypotension.

Sources: Barry L. Improving handovers with I-PASS. Veterinary Nursing Journal 2025;40(4):54–58 — Article summary; Rupp V, Henze IS. Case report on handover failure. Vet Anaesth Analg 2025;52:652–655 — Abstract

Question 59

Bovine · Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare: Animal Welfare Issues and Concerns

A dairy producer plans to disbud this year's heifer calves and asks for your recommendation. Which plan is consistent with AVMA policy?

A. Disbud before about 8 weeks with sedation only
B. Dehorn at 6 months with local anesthesia
C. Disbud before ~8 weeks with a local block and an NSAID
D. Disbud before about 8 weeks with an NSAID only
E. Disbud without drugs, since young calves feel little pain

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Disbud before ~8 weeks with a local block and an NSAID

AVMA policy calls for disbudding or dehorning at the earliest practical age, notes that horn tissue attaches to the skull at about 8 weeks, and prefers disbudding over dehorning. Local anesthesia and NSAIDs are the standard of care, with sedation recommended when appropriate. The policy also encourages polled genetics.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. Sedation does not provide analgesia on its own.
B. AVMA prefers early disbudding over later dehorning.
D. The standard of care pairs local anesthesia with the NSAID.
E. Pain control is the standard of care at any age.

Exam takeaway: Disbud early (before about 8 weeks) with local anesthesia + NSAID.

Source: AVMA — Bovine disbudding and dehorning (policy) — Policy text

Question 60

Reptile · Clinical Practice: Health Maintenance and Prevention

An 8-month-old bearded dragon is housed under a heat lamp with no UVB bulb and is fed crickets without supplements. It has a soft, swollen lower jaw, muscle twitching, and reluctance to walk. Radiographs show generalized loss of bone density. Which is the most important long-term correction?

A. UVB lighting alone, with no change to the insect diet
B. Calcium-dusted insects, with no UVB
C. Vitamin A supplementation
D. Antibiotics for a bone infection
E. UVB light, proper heat, and calcium supplements

Check answer

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. UVB light, proper heat, and calcium supplements

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (metabolic bone disease) is a disease of mismanagement: a low dietary calcium:phosphorus ratio, too little vitamin D3, and lack of UVB light or adequate heat in fast-growing insect-eating or plant-eating lizards. Signs include swollen or distorted jaws, fractures, and muscle fasciculations. The mainstay of treatment is correcting husbandry and diet; hypocalcemic animals may also need calcium.

Why the other choices are wrong:

A. UVB is essential, but the unsupplemented diet still supplies too little calcium.
B. Calcium helps, but without UVB the lizard cannot make enough vitamin D3 to use it.
C. Vitamin A does not correct calcium or vitamin D deficiency.
D. This is not an infectious disease.

Exam takeaway: Soft jaw + no UVB + unsupplemented insects → metabolic bone disease → fix UVB, heat, and calcium.

Source: Merck Veterinary Manual — Nutritional, Metabolic, and Endocrine Diseases of Reptiles — Metabolic Bone Diseases—secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism

Score your practice blocks

Count your correct answers for each block, then use the keys below to see where your misses cluster. As you work, it helps to mark each answer Sure, Unsure, or Guessing. That turns your score into a review list:

Wrong and sure: a misconception. Reread the explanation and the source before anything else.
Wrong and unsure or guessing: a knowledge gap. Study the topic, then try a similar question.
Right but guessing: fragile knowledge. Treat it as a miss until you can explain why the answer wins.

Block 1 answer key

Block 1 answer key
Question	Answer	Species	Competency domain
1	C	Canine	Clinical Practice
2	A	Bovine	Clinical Practice
3	D	Feline	Clinical Practice
4	B	Equine	Clinical Practice
5	E	Canine	Clinical Practice
6	B	Feline	Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness
7	E	Porcine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
8	A	Feline	Clinical Practice
9	C	Canine	Communication
10	D	Equine	Clinical Practice
11	A	Feline	Clinical Practice
12	E	Bovine	Communication
13	D	Canine	Clinical Practice
14	C	Pet bird	Clinical Practice
15	B	Feline	Clinical Practice
16	D	Equine	Clinical Practice
17	B	Canine	Clinical Practice
18	E	Ovine/Caprine	Clinical Practice
19	A	Feline	Clinical Practice
20	C	Bovine	Clinical Practice
21	E	Non-species-specific	Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness
22	A	Feline	Clinical Practice
23	C	Equine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
24	B	Canine	Clinical Practice
25	D	Porcine	Clinical Practice
26	B	Feline	Communication
27	D	Camelid/Cervidae	Clinical Practice
28	A	Equine	Clinical Practice
29	E	Canine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
30	C	Bovine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare

Block 2 answer key

Block 2 answer key
Question	Answer	Species	Competency domain
31	C	Canine	Clinical Practice
32	E	Bovine	Clinical Practice
33	B	Feline	Clinical Practice
34	A	Equine	Clinical Practice
35	D	Canine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
36	A	Feline	Clinical Practice
37	D	Porcine	Clinical Practice
38	C	Canine	Clinical Practice
39	E	Equine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
40	B	Feline	Clinical Practice
41	E	Other small mammals	Clinical Practice
42	B	Canine	Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness
43	A	Bovine	Clinical Practice
44	C	Feline	Clinical Practice
45	D	Aquatics	Clinical Practice
46	A	Canine	Clinical Practice
47	C	Equine	Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness
48	D	Feline	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
49	B	Ovine/Caprine	Clinical Practice
50	E	Canine	Clinical Practice
51	A	Bovine	Clinical Practice
52	B	Feline	Clinical Practice
53	E	Poultry	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
54	D	Canine	Clinical Practice
55	A	Equine	Clinical Practice
56	C	Feline	Communication
57	B	Other small mammals	Clinical Practice
58	D	Canine	Communication
59	C	Bovine	Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare
60	E	Reptile	Clinical Practice

What your score means (and what it doesn't)

Your result is your performance on these 60 questions. It is not a NAVLE score, and there is no honest way to convert it to one.

The NAVLE reports a scaled score from 200 to 800, and 425 is the minimum passing score (ICVA Candidate FAQ). The passing standard is criterion-referenced: candidates pass by meeting a fixed standard set by veterinarian experts, not by beating other candidates, so the exam is not curved. Raw scores are equated across test forms before being converted to the 200–800 scale (ICVA, NAVLE 101).

Small samples also limit what you can read into a category. This set has 15 canine questions but only one aquatics question, so one miss in a small group tells you to check that topic, not that it's a weakness.

What to study after this test

What to study after this test
Your miss pattern	What to do next
Misses cluster in one species	Open ICVA's Species and Diagnoses outline for that species and review the conditions you didn't recognize. Canine, feline, equine, and bovine together make up about 78% of the blueprint, so gaps there matter most.
Misses on "which test confirms" questions	Review how tests differ in role: screening, confirming, and ruling out (for example, resting cortisol vs. the ACTH stimulation test).
Misses on management questions	Practice naming the first step. Several questions here turn on order: stabilize, then treat; fluids before insulin; supportive care before surgery.
Misses on public-health and regulatory questions	Learn what is reportable and who gets the call. Questions 7, 23, 35, and 53 cover four different reportable diseases.
Misses on communication and professionalism	Review ICVA's Competency Domains outline, which lists the client, colleague, and practice tasks the exam draws from.
Correct answers you guessed on	Treat them as misses and review them before you retake the block.

When you retake a block, wait a few days so you are answering from understanding, not from memory of the answer letters.

How this practice test compares with the real NAVLE

How this practice test compares with the real NAVLE
Row label	Real NAVLE (2026–2027 cycle)	This practice test
Questions	360	60
Blocks	12 blocks of 30	2 blocks of 30
Time per block	33 minutes	33 minutes, if you time yourself
Average pace	About 66 seconds per question	Same if timed
Question style	Clinical vignette with one best answer; about 15–20% include photos or radiographs	Clinical vignette with one best answer; some questions use lab tables, none use images
Content basis	ICVA blueprint	Proportioned to ICVA's species and competency weights
Score	Scaled 200–800; 425 passes	Number correct only

Sources: ICVA NAVLE Candidate Handbook 2026–2027, pp. 25 and 29. The pace figure is our calculation: 33 minutes ÷ 30 questions = 66 seconds.

We matched the four competency domains and all 13 species groups at the whole-question level, as shown below. We did not match the smaller sub-domain weights exactly, and a 60-question set cannot sample every diagnosis on ICVA's list. ICVA describes its outlines as guides, not exhaustive lists: real exam items can include conditions or tasks the outlines don't name (ICVA Candidate FAQ).

How this practice test compares with the real NAVLE (table 15)
Competency domain	Blueprint weight	Questions in this set
Clinical Practice	70%	42
Preventive Medicine and Animal Welfare	15%	9
Communication	8%	5
Professionalism, Practice Management and Wellness	7%	4

How this practice test compares with the real NAVLE (table 16)
Species group	Blueprint weight	Questions in this set
Canine	25.6%	15
Feline	24.3%	15
Equine	14.7%	9
Bovine	13.3%	8
Porcine	5%	3
Other small mammals	3.3%	2
Ovine/Caprine	3.3%	2
Pet bird	2.3%	1
Poultry	2%	1
Non-species-specific	2%	1
Camelid/Cervidae	1.7%	1
Reptile	1.5%	1
Aquatics	1%	1

Blueprint weights are from the Candidate Handbook, p. 25. The question counts are our rounding of each weight × 60. ICVA is conducting a 2026 practice analysis and says the updated blueprint is slated to take effect with the 2027–2028 NAVLE testing cycle; candidates testing in 2026–2027 should use the current blueprint shown here (ICVA, 2026 NAVLE Practice Analysis).

Free and paid NAVLE practice from ICVA

ICVA, which owns and develops the NAVLE, offers three free practice resources and one paid one.

Free and paid NAVLE practice from ICVA
Resource	Size	Answers shown?	Cost
Web sample questions	5 questions	Answer key, no explanations	Free
Computer-based NAVLE tutorial	20 sample questions, plus a walkthrough of the testing software	—	Free
Self-Assessment sample	10 questions (English or French)	Answer key	Free
NAVLE Self-Assessment	200 questions in 4 blocks of 50	Regular: score report only. Expanded Feedback: review of questions you got wrong	$50 regular; $65 expanded feedback

The paid Self-Assessment runs on the same platform as the NAVLE and gives a projected NAVLE score range plus a breakdown by blueprint area. ICVA says the projected range from the standard-paced mode (55 minutes per 50-question section) has been shown to predict later NAVLE performance. It must be completed within 30 days of purchase, and fees are nonrefundable (ICVA Self-Assessments).

A practical order: use the free sets here and on ICVA's site for repeated practice and review, then take a standard-paced ICVA Self-Assessment when you want an official projected score range.

NAVLE format and dates for 2026–2027

NAVLE format and dates for 2026–2027
Item	Detail
Questions	360 multiple-choice questions
Structure	12 blocks of 30 questions, beginning with the October–November 2026 window
Time per block	33 minutes
Tutorial	10 minutes. Starting it marks the start of your exam
Breaks	50 minutes total, only between blocks. Time left over from a block or the tutorial is added to your break time
Total time	7 hours 36 minutes under the current standard structure
Images	About 15–20% of questions include graphics such as photos or radiographs, with zoom, contrast, and pan tools
Scoring	Scaled score from 200 to 800; 425 is passing
Attempts	Five lifetime attempts. Beginning with the March 2026 window, every candidate received five new attempts; attempts before December 1, 2025, don't count. Students at AVMA COE–accredited schools can test up to twice before graduating
Fee	$825 for testing in the U.S., U.S. territories, or Canada; $1,220 for testing elsewhere

NAVLE format and dates for 2026–2027 (table 19)
Testing window	Application period	Testing dates	Approximate score release
October–November 2026	June 1 – July 15	October 12 – November 14	December 14–25
March 2027	December 1 – January 7	March 1–20	April 19 – May 3
July–August 2027	April 1 – May 7	July 12 – August 7	September 6–20

These are ICVA's dates for candidates applying in the U.S. or through ICVA's "No Board" option. If you are applying for licensure in Canada, you apply through the Canadian National Examining Board, which publishes its own dates (CVMA NAVLE page).

Sources: ICVA NAVLE Candidate Handbook 2026–2027, pp. 15–17, 25, 29, 37; ICVA Get Ready for Exam Day; ICVA retake policy announcement; ICVA Candidate FAQ. ICVA's current FAQ and structure-update notice explicitly give the standard total as 7 hours 36 minutes.

On exam day, take breaks only between blocks. Leaving during a block is an unauthorized break: the clock keeps running, the proctor files an incident report, and it can be investigated as a security issue (Handbook, p. 29).

How we built these questions

Original items. Every question, answer choice, and explanation was written by Castleport Test Prep for this page. None is a real, recalled, or reconstructed NAVLE question. ICVA's Candidate Agreement prohibits reconstructing or sharing exam content and studying from leaked content, and violations can be reported to licensing boards (Candidate Handbook, pp. 45–48).
Mapped to ICVA's outlines. Each question tests a condition or task listed in ICVA's Species and Diagnoses or Competency Domains outlines, in the proportions shown above.
Answers checked against sources. The blueprint tells us what to cover, not what the right answer is. Each answer is paired with the clinical reference, guideline, or regulation used for this set, mostly the Merck Veterinary Manual, ACVIM and AAFP/AAHA consensus guidelines, USDA APHIS, CDC, and the Code of Federal Regulations. This audit rechecked current authoritative support for the set on October 19, 2026 and replaced stale or secondary links where a stronger current source was available.
How it was produced. This set was drafted and source-checked with AI assistance and edited by the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team. It has not been reviewed by a veterinarian. Source checking is not the same as review by a practicing clinician.
What it isn't. It is not psychometrically validated and doesn't predict a NAVLE result. Answers reflect the cited sources as of the date checked; guidelines change, so when your coursework or a newer guideline differs, go with the current source.

Spot an error or an ambiguous question? Tell us through our corrections page and include the question number.

NAVLE pass rates by veterinary school
Studying for the veterinary technician exam instead? Try the free VTNE practice test.

Sources

Official NAVLE information (checked October 19, 2026):

International Council for Veterinary Assessment. NAVLE Candidate Handbook, 2026–2027 Testing Cycle. Eligibility p. 15; testing windows p. 16; fees p. 17; blueprint p. 25; Self-Assessments p. 26; tutorial p. 27; exam structure p. 29; results p. 35; attempts p. 37; Candidate Agreement pp. 45–48.
ICVA. Get Ready for Exam Day.
ICVA. Candidate FAQ. Passing score; attempt limits; outlines as guides.
ICVA. NAVLE 101: How the Exam Is Created, Administered, and Scored. Scoring, equating, and blueprint update.
ICVA. NAVLE Preparation Resources, NAVLE Self-Assessments, Tutorial and Sample Questions, and Sample Questions.
ICVA. NAVLE Species and Diagnoses and NAVLE Competency Domains.
ICVA. NAVLE Retake Policy Changes Effective December 1, 2025.
Canadian Veterinary Medical Association, National Examining Board. NAVLE information.

The clinical and regulatory source for each answer is cited with its question.

Last verified: October 19, 2026, for NAVLE format, blueprint weights, testing dates, fees, attempt policy, ICVA practice resources, and the sources cited for each question.

By the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.

Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the International Council for Veterinary Assessment (ICVA), the National Board of Medical Examiners, or Prometric. NAVLE and other exam and organization names are used only to identify their subjects; trademarks belong to their respective owners. The practice questions on this page are original and unofficial. No practice result guarantees a NAVLE score, a passing result, or licensure.

Block 1: Questions 1–30

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

Block 2: Questions 31–60

Question 31

Question 32

Question 33

Question 34

Question 35

Question 36

Question 37

Question 38

Question 39

Question 40

Question 41

Question 42

Question 43

Question 44

Question 45

Question 46

Question 47

Question 48

Question 49

Question 50

Question 51

Question 52

Question 53

Question 54

Question 55

Question 56

Question 57

Question 58

Question 59

Question 60

Score your practice blocks

Block 1 answer key

Block 2 answer key

What your score means (and what it doesn't)

What to study after this test

How this practice test compares with the real NAVLE

Free and paid NAVLE practice from ICVA

NAVLE format and dates for 2026–2027

How we built these questions

Related free resources

Sources