Castleport Test Prep

Free NREMT AEMT Practice Test

Forty original, unofficial questions in this free NREMT AEMT practice test, with an explanation and source under every question. Free, no signup.

Question 1

Cardiology · Multiple choice

You are doing chest compressions on an adult in cardiac arrest. The CPR feedback device shows a rate of 132 per minute and a depth of 2.7 inches (about 6.9 cm). What correction should you make?

  • A. Keep the rate and push deeper, to at least 3 inches
  • B. Slow to 100–120 per minute and reduce depth to 2–2.4 inches (5–6 cm)
  • C. Slow to 80–100 per minute and keep the current depth
  • D. Change nothing until the next rhythm check
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

Both numbers are outside the 2025 AHA targets for adult compressions: a rate of 100–120 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) without going past 2.4 inches (6 cm). Use the feedback device to bring both the rate and depth into the recommended ranges while allowing full chest recoil.

Why not the others:

  • A: Deeper than 2.4 inches is specifically discouraged, and the rate stays too fast.
  • C: Below 100 per minute is too slow.
  • D: Waiting leaves both errors in place for every compression until then.

Source: 2025 AHA Guidelines, Adult BLS (§7.3).

How to use it: Pick an answer, then open Show answer and explanation under the question. Want a timed practice run? Answer all 40 before checking any, and don't go back — the real AEMT exam doesn't let you return to a submitted question. An average budget of 80 seconds per question (3 hours ÷ 135 items) gives 53 minutes 20 seconds for all 40; this is a pacing exercise, not an official per-question limit. Your score here is practice feedback, not a pass prediction.

The set follows the current National Registry AEMT test plan and includes multiple-response, build-list, classification, and options-box practice and two clinical-judgment scenarios. These are text-based practice versions, not the official testing interface.

Practice questions

Question 2

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A 29-year-old man is found on a bathroom floor with a syringe nearby. He responds only to pain. Respirations are 6 per minute and shallow, SpO2 is 84% on room air, pupils are pinpoint, and he has a carotid pulse of 64. What is the best initial management?

  • A. Give naloxone, then wait for him to wake up fully before doing anything else
  • B. Place him in the recovery position and transport without other intervention
  • C. Apply a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min and monitor
  • D. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, and give naloxone titrated to restore adequate breathing
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

He has a pulse but is barely breathing, so hypoxia is the immediate threat. Support ventilation now with a bag-valve mask and oxygen. Naloxone is titrated to reverse respiratory depression and restore protective airway reflexes — adequate breathing, not full arousal, is the goal.

Why not the others:

  • A: Waiting on naloxone while he stays hypoxic delays the one thing he needs right now: ventilation.
  • B: Positioning alone does not treat respiratory failure.
  • C: A nonrebreather only helps a patient who is moving enough air; at 6 shallow breaths per minute he is not.

Source: 2025 AHA Guidelines, Opioid Overdose (§21.11); NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17).

Question 3

Airway · Multiple choice

A 24-year-old with asthma is sitting upright, speaking in two-word sentences, with diffuse expiratory wheezes. RR 30, HR 118, SpO2 89% on room air. She is alert. Which treatment best fits her presentation and AEMT scope?

  • A. Nebulized inhaled beta-agonist bronchodilator (such as albuterol) with oxygen, titrating SpO2 toward 94–98%
  • B. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual
  • C. Oral glucose
  • D. Withhold oxygen so you do not suppress her respiratory drive
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

Wheezing and hypoxemia in a known asthmatic point to bronchospasm. Inhaled beta-agonist bronchodilators for dyspnea and wheezing appear in the national scope of practice model, and the national model guideline titrates oxygen to an SpO2 of 94–98%. Your local protocol and medical director decide the exact drug and dose.

Why not the others:

  • B: Nitroglycerin is for chest pain of suspected cardiac origin, not bronchospasm.
  • C: Nothing suggests hypoglycemia.
  • D: She is hypoxemic at 89%; the target range is what guides titration.

Source: National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021; NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17); NASEMSO v3.0, Respiratory Distress (pp. 190–191).

Question 4

Trauma · Multiple response

A 72-year-old driver was in a moderate-speed collision. He is alert and follows commands. BP 104/70, HR 118, RR 24, SpO2 93% on room air, motor GCS 6. Which TWO findings meet a red (high-risk) criterion in the 2021 National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients?

Select 2.

  • A. Respiratory rate of 24
  • B. Systolic BP of 104 mmHg
  • C. Room-air SpO2 of 93%
  • D. Heart rate greater than systolic BP
  • E. Motor GCS of 6
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B, D. (Both must be selected for credit.)

For patients 65 and older, the red criteria include SBP below 110 mmHg or a heart rate greater than the systolic BP. He has both: 104 is under 110, and 118 is greater than 104. Normal-looking numbers in older adults can hide shock.

Why not the others:

  • A: The respiratory red criterion is a rate below 10 or above 29.
  • C: The oxygen red criterion is room-air SpO2 below 90%.
  • E: The mental-status red criterion is being unable to follow commands (motor GCS below 6).

Source: ACS-COT 2021 Field Triage Guideline (p. 2).

Question 5

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple response

A 66-year-old woman developed right-sided facial droop and arm drift 40 minutes ago, witnessed by her husband. BP 196/104, HR 88, SpO2 96% on room air. Using the cited NASEMSO national model stroke guideline, which THREE actions are appropriate?

Select 3.

  • A. Give nitroglycerin to bring the blood pressure down
  • B. Check her blood glucose
  • C. Give oral glucose before checking her blood glucose
  • D. Elevate the head of the stretcher 15–30 degrees, keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment
  • E. Apply high-flow oxygen regardless of her SpO2
  • F. Document the time she was last known well and who reported it
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B, D, F. (All 3 must be selected for credit.)

The national model stroke guideline calls for a glucose check (hypoglycemia is a stroke mimic), a precise last-known-well time and its source, and raising the head of the stretcher 15–30 degrees when SBP is above 100 to reduce aspiration risk. It specifically says not to treat the hypertension in the field.

Why not the others:

  • A: Lowering BP in a suspected stroke is not a prehospital goal and can worsen brain perfusion.
  • C: In this model stroke guideline, treat glucose only after you measure it and it is below 60 mg/dL.
  • E: Oxygen is titrated to 94–98%; she is already at 96%.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Suspected Stroke/TIA (pp. 48–50); NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17).

Question 6

Clinical judgment — Evaluation · Multiple choice

Ten minutes after a protocol-approved dose of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain, your patient says he feels lightheaded. BP has fallen from 132/84 to 86/56. He is pale but alert, and his lungs are clear. What is the best next step?

  • A. Give a second nitroglycerin dose because the pain has not fully resolved
  • B. Have him stand and walk to the stretcher to save time
  • C. Withhold further nitroglycerin, keep him lying down, give an isotonic fluid bolus per protocol, and reassess
  • D. Stop monitoring, because hypotension is an expected side effect
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

This is the evaluation step of clinical judgment: the intervention changed the patient, so the plan changes. The cited national model guideline permits repeat nitroglycerin when SBP is above 100 mmHg, and the national model guideline says to be ready to respond to nitrate-related hypotension with a fluid bolus.

Why not the others:

  • A: An SBP of 86 rules out another dose.
  • B: Standing a hypotensive, lightheaded patient invites syncope and a fall.
  • D: New hypotension calls for closer monitoring, not less.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Chest Pain/ACS (pp. 31–33); NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications.

Question 7

EMS Operations · Multiple choice

At a bus crash you are using START triage. An adult cannot walk. She is breathing at 34 per minute without airway repositioning. What category does she receive?

  • A. Minor (green)
  • B. Delayed (yellow)
  • C. Immediate (red)
  • D. Expectant (black)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

START uses a respiratory-rate threshold of 30 per minute. A non-ambulatory patient breathing faster than 30 is tagged Immediate; you do not need to go on to the perfusion and mental-status checks to categorize her.

Why not the others:

  • A: Minor is for the walking wounded.
  • B: Delayed requires breathing 30 or less per minute, adequate perfusion, and the ability to obey commands.
  • D: Expectant is for patients unlikely to survive given their injuries and the care available — not a breathing, fast-breathing patient.

Source: HHS CHEMM START Triage.

Question 8

Cardiology · Options box

Each patient has ongoing chest pain of suspected cardiac origin. Assume nitroglycerin is authorized and all other contraindications have been excluded. Applying only the cited national model guideline’s blood-pressure and recent-PDE-inhibitor criteria, mark each patient Give or Withhold.

Question 8: options
Patient Give Withhold
1. BP 148/92; no erectile dysfunction or pulmonary hypertension medication ☐ ☐
2. BP 86/60; no erectile dysfunction medication ☐ ☐
3. BP 142/88; took sildenafil 20 hours ago ☐ ☐
4. BP 134/80; took a single dose of sildenafil 4 days ago and is not on daily PDE-5 therapy ☐ ☐
Show answer and explanation

Answer:

Question 8: answer key
Patient Decision
1. BP 148/92; no erectile dysfunction or pulmonary hypertension medication Give
2. BP 86/60; no erectile dysfunction medication Withhold
3. BP 142/88; took sildenafil 20 hours ago Withhold
4. BP 134/80; took a single dose of sildenafil 4 days ago and is not on daily PDE-5 therapy Give

The national model guideline allows nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual every 3–5 minutes when SBP is above 100 mmHg, and says to avoid nitrates within 48 hours of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor such as sildenafil, vardenafil, or tadalafil. Patient 2 fails the blood pressure test; patient 3 took sildenafil inside the 48-hour window; patients 1 and 4 meet both criteria. Credit requires all four rows correct, just like the real exam.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Chest Pain/ACS (pp. 31–33); NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications.

Question 9

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A 58-year-old insulin-dependent man is confused and cannot follow commands to swallow. His blood glucose is 38 mg/dL. Two IV attempts have failed. Which intervention is best?

  • A. Oral glucose gel between his cheek and gum
  • B. Glucagon by intramuscular injection per protocol
  • C. No treatment until IV access is obtained at the hospital
  • D. Have him drink orange juice
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

He needs glucose now, but he cannot safely take anything by mouth. Glucagon is the option for people who are unable to take carbohydrate orally, and it is listed among AEMT medications in the national scope of practice model. Follow your protocol for route and dose.

Why not the others:

  • A: Anything by mouth in a patient who cannot follow commands to swallow risks aspiration.
  • C: A glucose of 38 mg/dL needs treatment now; delay risks seizure and brain injury.
  • D: Same problem as A — he cannot safely drink.

Source: ADA Hypoglycemia Guidelines (2025); National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021; NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86).

Question 10

Airway · Multiple choice

A 6-year-old in cardiac arrest now has a supraglottic airway in place, and two-rescuer CPR continues with uninterrupted compressions. How often should you ventilate?

  • A. 1 breath every 2–3 seconds
  • B. 1 breath every 6 seconds
  • C. 2 breaths after every 15 compressions, pausing compressions
  • D. 1 breath every 10 seconds
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

The 2025 AHA pediatric guideline suggests 20–30 breaths per minute (1 breath every 2–3 seconds) for infants and children receiving CPR with an advanced airway, adjusted for age and clinical condition. Compressions continue without pauses for breaths.

Why not the others:

  • B: One breath every 6 seconds is the adult rescue-breathing rate.
  • C: Pausing for 15:2 cycles applies before an advanced airway is placed.
  • D: Every 10 seconds under-ventilates a child.

Source: 2025 AHA/AAP Pediatric BLS, Take-Home Message 3.

Question 11

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

Medical direction orders 250 mL of normal saline over 30 minutes. Your administration set delivers 10 drops/mL. What drip rate should you set? Round to the nearest whole drop per minute.

  • A. 42 gtt/min
  • B. 8 gtt/min
  • C. 125 gtt/min
  • D. 83 gtt/min
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

Drip rate = volume × drop factor ÷ time in minutes. 250 mL × 10 gtt/mL = 2,500 drops; 2,500 ÷ 30 min = 83.3, so set about 83 gtt/min. Check your units: the time must be in minutes and the drop factor must match the tubing in your hand.

Why not the others:

  • A: This divides by 60 minutes instead of 30.
  • B: This leaves out the drop factor (250 ÷ 30).
  • C: This uses a 15 gtt/mL set, not the 10 gtt/mL set you have.

Source: Worked calculation (shown above).

Question 12

Trauma · Multiple choice

You applied a windlass tourniquet 2–3 inches above a gushing thigh wound and tightened it until the windlass will not turn any further. Bright red bleeding continues. What should you do next?

  • A. Remove the tourniquet and use direct pressure only
  • B. Loosen the tourniquet slightly to relieve the patient's pain
  • C. Apply a second tourniquet above the first, closer to the heart
  • D. Place the second tourniquet directly over the wound
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

If bleeding continues after the first tourniquet is fully tightened, apply a second one above the first, closer to the heart. Pain is expected with an effective tourniquet and is not a reason to loosen it.

Why not the others:

  • A: Removing a needed tourniquet restarts life-threatening bleeding.
  • B: Loosening defeats the purpose and can worsen bleeding.
  • D: Tourniquets go above the wound, not on it.

Source: American Red Cross: How to Apply a Tourniquet.

Question 13

Medical/OB-GYN · Classification (text version of drag-and-drop)

Classify each patient by the highest-severity American Diabetes Association hypoglycemia level met.

Categories: Level 1, Level 2, Level 3.

  1. Glucose 66 mg/dL; alert, shaky, eating a snack on her own
  2. Glucose 49 mg/dL; alert and talking and able to treat the low glucose without assistance
  3. Glucose 58 mg/dL; confused and needs another person's help to treat it
  4. Glucose 52 mg/dL; sweaty and anxious but able to drink juice without assistance
Show answer and explanation

Answer:

Question 13: answer key
Patient Category
1. Glucose 66 mg/dL; alert, shaky, eating a snack on her own Level 1
2. Glucose 49 mg/dL; alert and talking and able to treat the low glucose without assistance Level 2
3. Glucose 58 mg/dL; confused and needs another person's help to treat it Level 3
4. Glucose 52 mg/dL; sweaty and anxious but able to drink juice without assistance Level 2

Level 1 is below 70 mg/dL but at least 54; Level 2 is below 54. Level 3 is defined by altered mental or physical status that requires another person's help, regardless of the glucose number — so the 58 mg/dL patient is Level 3, not Level 1. The lesson for the field: mental status and ability to self-treat, not the meter alone, tells you how sick the patient is. Your EMS protocol's treatment threshold is a separate question from this classification.

Source: ADA 2026 Hypoglycemia Level Definitions (p. 1).

Question 14

Clinical judgment — Recognize cues · Multiple choice

From the doorway you see a 2-year-old lying limp on the couch. She does not look at you, is grunting with retractions between her ribs, and her skin is mottled. Using the pediatric assessment triangle, what is your general impression?

  • A. Critically ill — appearance, work of breathing, and circulation are all abnormal; begin immediate intervention and prepare for rapid transport
  • B. Stable — complete a full head-to-toe exam before deciding on urgency
  • C. Respiratory distress only, because her appearance is normal
  • D. Circulation is adequate because the skin is mottled rather than pale
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

The pediatric assessment triangle looks at appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin before you touch the child. Limp and not tracking (appearance), grunting with retractions (work of breathing), and mottling (circulation) are all abnormal — that combination signals a critically ill child.

Why not the others:

  • B: A full exam before acting delays care for a child whose first impression already shows a life threat.
  • C: Limp and not tracking is an abnormal appearance.
  • D: Mottling is a sign of poor perfusion, not adequate circulation.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17).

Question 15

Cardiology · Multiple choice

A 61-year-old has had 30 minutes of crushing substernal chest pressure. He is alert, speaking in full sentences, SpO2 97% on room air, BP 146/90, lungs clear. He has no aspirin allergy and no bleeding history. Which medication should he get first?

  • A. Naloxone
  • B. High-flow oxygen by nonrebreather mask
  • C. Oral glucose
  • D. Chewable, non-enteric-coated aspirin, 162–325 mg
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

For suspected acute coronary syndrome, the national model guideline calls for chewable, non-enteric-coated aspirin 162–325 mg. Oxygen is indicated when the patient is short of breath, hypoxemic, or shows heart failure — not at an SpO2 of 97% with clear lungs. Get a 12-lead ECG quickly if your system can.

Why not the others:

  • A: There is no sign of opioid toxicity.
  • B: He is not hypoxemic or dyspneic; oxygen is titrated to 94–98% only when needed.
  • C: There is no sign of hypoglycemia.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Chest Pain/ACS (pp. 31–33).

Question 16

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A man calls 911 at 06:40 because his wife woke up with slurred speech and left arm weakness. She was normal when they went to bed at 22:15. She woke at 06:20. What time do you report as last known well?

  • A. 06:40
  • B. 06:20
  • C. 22:15
  • D. The time you arrived
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

Last known well is the last time she was seen without symptoms — 22:15, when she went to bed — not the time she woke up with symptoms. The national model guideline defines last known well this way for patients who wake with symptoms. The time drives eligibility for stroke treatments, so record it precisely along with who gave it.

Why not the others:

  • A: That is when 911 was called.
  • B: That is when the symptoms were discovered, not when she was last normal.
  • D: Your arrival time has no bearing on stroke onset.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Suspected Stroke/TIA (pp. 48–50).

Question 17

Airway · Build list

An unresponsive adult medical patient with no trauma has a definite pulse, inadequate breathing, gurgling, and visible oral secretions. The gag reflex is absent. Suction, an appropriately sized OPA, and the bag-valve mask are ready, and the OPA can be inserted promptly without delaying ventilation. Put these steps for preparing and ventilating this patient's airway in order.

Arrange in order, first to last.

  • A. Insert an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway
  • B. Open the airway with a head tilt–chin lift
  • C. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, observing chest rise
  • D. Suction the mouth and oropharynx
Show answer and explanation

Correct order: B → D → A → C.

For this contaminated airway, open it and suction the visible secretions. With an absent gag reflex, promptly place the ready OPA to help keep the airway open, then ventilate and check chest rise. Adjunct placement must not delay needed breaths; this is the sequence for the conditions given, not a mandatory sequence for every airway.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Airway Management (pp. 179–183).

Question 18

EMS Operations · Multiple choice

You are dispatched to a tanker truck rollover with a visible vapor cloud. How should you approach and stage?

  • A. From downwind and downhill so you can see the vapor clearly
  • B. From upwind, uphill, and/or upstream, staying clear of vapor, smoke, and spills
  • C. Straight to the driver, because patient care comes first
  • D. Through the vapor cloud quickly with the windows up
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

The Emergency Response Guidebook tells responders to approach cautiously from upwind, uphill, and/or upstream and to stay clear of vapors, fumes, smoke, and spills. You cannot help anyone if you become a patient.

Why not the others:

  • A: Downwind and downhill put you in the path of the release.
  • C: Scene safety comes before patient contact.
  • D: Vehicle windows do not protect you from a hazardous release.

Source: 2024 Emergency Response Guidebook, Safety Precautions.

Question 19

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A 26-year-old woman fainted at work. She now has lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding; her last period was 7 weeks ago. HR 126, BP 86/58, skin pale and cool. Which impression and plan fit best?

  • A. Likely a simple faint; obtain a refusal
  • B. Menstrual cramps — advise an over-the-counter pain reliever
  • C. Kidney stone — position of comfort and routine transport
  • D. Possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy with hemorrhagic shock — treat for shock, establish IV access, and transport rapidly with early notification
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

Syncope plus abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a missed period in a woman of childbearing age raises urgent concern for ruptured ectopic pregnancy with hemorrhagic shock. The national model guideline lists ruptured ectopic among high-risk hemorrhagic causes of syncope, and her tachycardia and hypotension show shock.

Why not the others:

  • A: Her vital signs show shock; a refusal would be unsafe.
  • B: Cramps do not explain fainting with hypotension and tachycardia.
  • C: A kidney stone does not explain the missed period, bleeding, and shock.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Syncope and Abdominal Pain (pp. 27–28, 51–52).

Question 20

Trauma · Multiple choice

You are ventilating a 45-year-old with an isolated severe head injury through a supraglottic airway. There are no signs of brain herniation. Blood pressure and perfusion remain stable, and the airway seal and capnography waveform are satisfactory. Review the trend, then choose the best action.

Question 20: options
Time Ventilation rate (/min) ETCO2 (mmHg) SpO2
10:02 10 38 97%
10:06 18 33 99%
10:10 22 29 99%
  • A. Slow the ventilation rate to bring ETCO2 back toward normal (about 35–45 mmHg)
  • B. Continue as you are — the SpO2 is excellent
  • C. Ventilate even faster to push ETCO2 below 25
  • D. Stop ventilating until the ETCO2 rises
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

In this trend, the rising ventilation rate and falling ETCO2 support concern for excessive ventilation. The Brain Trauma Foundation's prehospital guidelines (3rd edition, 2023) call for keeping ETCO2 at 35–45 mmHg. A good SpO2 does not make the ventilation rate correct.

Why not the others:

  • B: SpO2 tells you about oxygenation, not about over-ventilation.
  • C: Deliberate hyperventilation is reserved for signs of herniation, which are absent.
  • D: Stopping ventilation in a patient who needs it causes hypoxia.

Source: Brain Trauma Foundation Prehospital TBI Guidelines, 3rd ed. (pp. 4–5).

Scenario 1 — A confused man at home (Questions 21–25)

Dispatch: 67-year-old man "not acting right."

Scene: His wife says he takes insulin, skipped lunch, and was fine 45 minutes ago. He is sitting in a kitchen chair, confused and sweaty, with slurred speech and weakness in his right arm. He can say his name but not where he is. There is no sign of trauma.

Vital signs: HR 104, BP 152/88, RR 18, SpO2 96% on room air, skin cool and diaphoretic, blood glucose 41 mg/dL.

The next five questions follow this patient from scene to handoff.

Question 21

Clinical judgment — Recognize cues · Multiple response

Which THREE findings are most relevant to his most immediate threat?

Select 3.

  • A. BP of 152/88
  • B. Insulin use with a skipped meal
  • C. SpO2 of 96%
  • D. Blood glucose of 41 mg/dL
  • E. His age of 67
  • F. Cool, sweaty skin with confusion
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B, D, F. (All 3 must be selected for credit.)

Recognizing cues means sorting the findings that explain the immediate problem from the background noise. A glucose of 41, insulin with a missed meal, and cool, sweaty skin with confusion all point the same way: hypoglycemia.

Why not the others:

  • A: Mildly high and not the immediate threat.
  • C: Normal and reassuring.
  • E: Age adds background risk but is less specific to this immediate problem than the selected findings.

Source: ADA Hypoglycemia Guidelines (2025); NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86); NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications.

Question 22

Clinical judgment — Define hypothesis · Multiple choice

What best explains his slurred speech and right arm weakness right now?

  • A. An acute stroke — go straight to the stroke center without addressing glucose
  • B. Bell's palsy
  • C. Hypoglycemia, which can mimic a stroke — correct the glucose, then repeat the stroke assessment
  • D. Hypertensive emergency that needs blood pressure lowering
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

Hypoglycemia is a classic stroke mimic, and the national model stroke guideline routes a glucose below 60 mg/dL to hypoglycemia treatment first. If the deficits persist after the glucose is corrected, you treat it as a possible stroke.

Why not the others:

  • A: Skipping a correctable cause of the deficits risks missing the real problem.
  • B: Bell's palsy causes facial nerve weakness; it does not explain his arm weakness or confusion.
  • D: His BP is only mildly elevated, and the stroke guideline says not to treat hypertension in the field.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Suspected Stroke/TIA (pp. 48–50); NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86); NIH: Bell's Palsy.

Question 23

Clinical judgment — Take action · Multiple choice

Your partner established an IV in his left forearm. He still cannot reliably follow commands to swallow. Which treatment is best?

  • A. Oral glucose gel
  • B. IV dextrose per protocol
  • C. Hold treatment until the hospital
  • D. Nitroglycerin for the blood pressure
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

With a working IV and a patient who cannot safely swallow, IV dextrose per protocol is the direct fix. Dextrose is within the AEMT IV medication list in the national scope of practice model; your protocol sets the concentration and dose.

Why not the others:

  • A: Unsafe in a patient who cannot follow commands to swallow.
  • C: A glucose of 41 needs treatment now.
  • D: He has no chest pain, and his BP does not need treatment.

Source: National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021; NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86).

Question 24

Clinical judgment — Evaluation · Multiple choice

Ten minutes later he is alert and oriented, his speech is clear, grip strength is equal, and glucose is 108 mg/dL. He says he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. What is the best approach?

  • A. Assess his decision-making capacity, explain the risks of refusing (including the low glucose coming back), involve medical direction per protocol, and document thoroughly
  • B. Leave right away, since he is alert
  • C. Tell him he is not allowed to refuse after receiving any medication
  • D. Transport him against his will because he received dextrose
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

Re-evaluation shows the deficits resolved with glucose — strong support for your hypothesis. Resolution after glucose does not by itself exclude stroke or TIA; recommend hospital assessment and explain that remaining uncertainty during the refusal discussion. Now that he is alert, the question becomes capacity. The national model refusal guideline says to assess capacity, explain the risks clearly, contact medical direction if capacity is in doubt or protocol requires it, and document the conversation and his plan.

Why not the others:

  • B: Leaving without a capacity assessment and risk discussion is not a safe refusal.
  • C: No such blanket rule exists in the national model guideline; capacity decides.
  • D: An adult with decision-making capacity can refuse care.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Patient Refusals (pp. 23–25); NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86); American Stroke Association: TIA.

Question 25

Clinical judgment — Communication · Multiple response

He agrees to transport. Which THREE items belong in your verbal handoff at the hospital?

Select 3.

  • A. Glucose readings with their times
  • B. Only the final set of vital signs, since the earlier ones no longer matter
  • C. The dextrose given, when it was given, and how he responded
  • D. A diagnosis of stroke, because that was your first impression
  • E. His initial stroke-like findings and the reassessment after treatment
  • F. Leave out the dextrose, since his glucose is now normal
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A, C, E. (All 3 must be selected for credit.)

A good handoff tells the story, not just the ending. The national model guideline's transfer-of-care list includes vital signs with times and the assessment and interventions with their timing and the patient's response. The ED needs to know he was hypoglycemic and had deficits that resolved.

Why not the others:

  • B: Trends matter; the earlier values show what happened.
  • D: Report the initial stroke concern, the findings, and the response to glucose without presenting an unconfirmed stroke diagnosis as established.
  • F: Omitting a medication given is a patient-safety error.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17); NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications; American Stroke Association: TIA.

Question 26

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

After a precipitous delivery at home, you dry, warm, and stimulate a term newborn. At 45 seconds the baby is apneic with a heart rate of 80 per minute. What should you do next?

  • A. Keep drying and stimulating for 2 more minutes
  • B. Give blow-by oxygen and reassess in 5 minutes
  • C. Begin chest compressions at a 3:1 ratio
  • D. Begin positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-mask
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

The 2025 neonatal guideline: a newborn who is apneic, gasping, or has a heart rate below 100 after the initial steps needs positive-pressure ventilation, started within 60 seconds of birth. Ventilation is the most important intervention in newborn resuscitation.

Why not the others:

  • A: More stimulation delays ventilation the baby needs now.
  • B: Blow-by oxygen does not breathe for an apneic baby.
  • C: Compressions start only if the heart rate stays below 60 after 30 seconds of ventilation that moves the chest.

Source: 2025 AHA/AAP Neonatal Resuscitation Guidelines.

Question 27

Cardiology · Multiple choice

A 17-year-old soccer player collapsed while sprinting and was briefly unresponsive. He is now alert and says he feels fine; his parent is with him and his vital signs are normal. Which statement best guides your care?

  • A. Fainting in a young, healthy athlete is almost always harmless; release him to his parent
  • B. Have him run a short sprint to see if it happens again
  • C. Fainting during exertion often signals a dangerous cardiac cause — acquire and transmit a 12-lead ECG if your system does, request ALS per protocol, and transport for emergency department evaluation
  • D. Give oral glucose and release him if he feels better
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

The national model syncope guideline says syncope during exercise often indicates an ominous cardiac cause and these patients should be evaluated in the emergency department. Looking well now does not rule out a rhythm problem.

Why not the others:

  • A: This is exactly the presentation the guideline flags as high risk.
  • B: Provoking another episode could be fatal.
  • D: Check glucose as part of the assessment, but feeling better does not remove the cardiac risk from syncope during exertion.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Syncope (pp. 27–28); National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021.

Question 28

Trauma · Multiple choice

A 4-year-old fell from a second-story window. He is crying, pale, with a capillary refill of 4 seconds. HR 158, BP 76/48. How should you read the blood pressure?

  • A. Normal for a 4-year-old
  • B. Hypotensive — the lower limit for ages 1–10 is about 70 + (2 × age), which is 78 mmHg here
  • C. Hypertensive
  • D. Not useful in children, so ignore it
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

For children 1–10 years old, hypotension is an SBP below 70 + (2 × age in years). For a 4-year-old that is 78 mmHg, so 76 is hypotensive. In children, falling blood pressure is a late sign of shock, and the 2021 field triage guideline makes it a red criterion.

Why not the others:

  • A: 76 is below the age-based limit of 78.
  • C: The value is low, not high.
  • D: Pediatric BP matters — a low reading is an ominous finding.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Pediatric Shock and Vital Signs (pp. 110, 405); ACS-COT 2021 Field Triage Guideline (p. 2).

Question 29

EMS Operations · Multiple choice

A 41-year-old man cut his wrist and told his roommate he wanted to end his life. The bleeding is controlled. He is alert and oriented and firmly refuses transport. Which statement is correct?

  • A. Because he is alert and oriented he can refuse; get a signature and leave
  • B. Leave and ask the roommate to drive him in later
  • C. Restrain him immediately by yourself
  • D. Under the national model refusal guideline, do not accept this as a routine refusal; contact medical direction, follow applicable law and local protocol for emergency evaluation and transport, and request law enforcement if needed without putting yourself in danger
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

The national model refusal guideline is explicit: people who have attempted suicide or voiced suicidal intent should not be regarded as having decision-making capacity and may not decline transport. The model also notes that legal definitions and authority vary by state; apply the relevant law and local protocol. It also says not to put yourself in danger and to request law enforcement when needed.

Why not the others:

  • A: Alert and oriented does not equal decision-making capacity here.
  • B: Leaving without arranging a safe emergency evaluation is not an appropriate response to this suicide attempt.
  • C: Acting alone against a resisting patient endangers both of you.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Patient Refusals (pp. 23–25).

Question 30

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A 34-year-old with type 1 diabetes feels shaky and sweaty after a long run. She is alert, swallows normally, and her blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. Your protocol uses the ADA's 15–15 approach for a patient who can safely swallow. Which plan is most appropriate?

  • A. Give about 15 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrate (such as oral glucose) and recheck glucose in about 15 minutes
  • B. Start an IV and give dextrose before anything else
  • C. Give intramuscular glucagon right away
  • D. No treatment, since she is alert
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

A conscious patient who can swallow is treated by mouth: the ADA recommends 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and a recheck in 15 minutes, repeating until the low resolves. Her 58 mg/dL is also below the national model guideline's 60 mg/dL treatment threshold.

Why not the others:

  • B: IV dextrose is for patients who cannot safely take sugar by mouth; it is not the first step here.
  • C: Glucagon is for people unable or unwilling to take carbohydrate orally.
  • D: She is symptomatic and below the treatment threshold.

Source: ADA Hypoglycemia Guidelines (2025); NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86); ADA: Hypoglycemia Symptoms and Treatment.

Question 31

Airway · Multiple choice

You insert a supraglottic airway in an apneic adult with a pulse. With bag ventilation you see no chest rise, hear no breath sounds, and waveform capnography shows a flat line. What should you do?

  • A. Assume the capnography is faulty and keep ventilating
  • B. Remove the device, reopen the airway, ventilate with a bag-valve mask and airway adjunct, then reattempt or manage per protocol
  • C. Increase the ventilation rate to 30 per minute
  • D. Increase the oxygen flow to 25 L/min
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

No chest rise, no breath sounds, and no capnography waveform all agree: the device is not ventilating the lungs. The national model guideline treats waveform capnography as essential for patients who need invasive airway management precisely so you catch this. Go back to an airway that works.

Why not the others:

  • A: Three independent signs point to a failed airway; do not explain them away.
  • C: Faster ventilation through an ineffective airway still does not reach the lungs.
  • D: More oxygen does not help if no gas is reaching the lungs.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Airway Management (pp. 179–183); National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021.

Question 32

Cardiology · Multiple choice

A 63-year-old with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) called for weakness. He is alert and talking, and his skin is warm and dry. You cannot feel a radial pulse, the pulse oximeter will not give a reading, and you hear a continuous mechanical hum over his chest. What is the best interpretation and action?

  • A. He is pulseless — start CPR
  • B. Disconnect the controller to get an accurate pulse
  • C. These findings can be expected with a continuous-flow pump; judge perfusion clinically, check the device for alarms, and contact the VAD coordinator or trained companion
  • D. Wait until a pulse can be felt before transporting
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C.

Many VADs move blood continuously, so patients may have no palpable pulse and unreliable pulse oximetry. The national model guideline says to assess for alarms and the pump hum, look at perfusion signs such as mental status and skin, and contact the VAD coordinator. This patient is alert and warm, so he is perfusing; CPR is not indicated.

Why not the others:

  • A: He is alert with warm skin and a running pump — not in arrest.
  • B: Disconnecting the controller can stop the pump.
  • D: A palpable pulse may never be present with this device.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, VAD Assessment (p. 39); 2025 AHA Guidelines, LVADs (§18).

Question 33

Medical/OB-GYN · Build list

After the initial birth assessment identifies a term newborn who needs resuscitation, put these selected steps in order. Follow the pathway in which apnea or bradycardia persists, and perform later steps only when their stated conditions are met.

Arrange in order, first to last.

  • A. Reassess breathing and heart rate after the initial steps
  • B. Begin chest compressions (3:1 with ventilations) if the heart rate stays below 60 after 30 seconds of ventilation that moves the chest
  • C. Warm, dry, and stimulate; position the airway
  • D. Begin positive-pressure ventilation for apnea, gasping, or a heart rate below 100
Show answer and explanation

Correct order: C → A → D → B.

On this selected pathway, complete the initial steps, reassess, and provide ventilation when indicated — the single most important newborn intervention. Compressions come only after effective ventilation fails to raise a heart rate below 60, at the 3:1 ratio the 2025 neonatal guideline suggests.

Source: 2025 AHA/AAP Neonatal Resuscitation Guidelines; 2025 AHA/AAP Neonatal Resuscitation Algorithm.

Question 34

Clinical judgment — Leadership and communication · Multiple choice

Your EMT partner is about to squeeze oral glucose gel into the mouth of a hypoglycemic patient who responds only to pain. What should you do?

  • A. Speak up right away and directly: stop the oral glucose, explain that the patient cannot safely swallow, and propose IV dextrose or glucagon per protocol
  • B. Say nothing; correcting a partner on scene undermines teamwork
  • C. Let it happen and mention it in your documentation
  • D. Step away to get the stretcher
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

The NREMT's clinical judgment domain includes communication and leadership. Here that means clear, immediate, respectful intervention to prevent harm. Oral sugar is for people who can take carbohydrate by mouth; a patient responding only to pain cannot.

Why not the others:

  • B: Silence lets a preventable harm happen.
  • C: Documentation after the fact does not protect the patient.
  • D: Leaving avoids the problem instead of solving it.

Source: NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications; NASEMSO v3.0, Hypoglycemia (pp. 84–86); National EMS Scope of Practice Model 2019, updated August 2021.

Question 35

Medical/OB-GYN · Multiple choice

A 71-year-old man has sudden severe abdominal and back pain. You feel a pulsating mass in his abdomen, and his left femoral pulse is weaker than his right. HR 112, BP 96/60. What is the most likely cause?

  • A. Kidney stone
  • B. A leaking or ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
  • C. Appendicitis
  • D. Inflamed gallbladder
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

A pulsatile abdominal mass with sudden severe abdominal and back pain, unequal femoral pulses, and early shock signs raises concern for an abdominal aortic emergency, particularly a leaking or ruptured AAA. With early shock signs, this calls for gentle handling, IV access, and rapid transport with early notification.

Why not the others:

  • A: A stone causes flank pain but not a pulsatile mass or unequal femoral pulses.
  • C: Appendicitis usually brings right-lower-quadrant tenderness and fever.
  • D: Gallbladder disease causes right-upper-quadrant pain.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Abdominal Pain (pp. 51–52); NHLBI: Aortic Aneurysm; NHLBI: Aortic Aneurysm Symptoms.

Scenario 2 — A reaction at a restaurant (Questions 36–40)

Dispatch: 34-year-old woman with trouble breathing at a restaurant.

Scene: She has a known shellfish allergy and ate a dish containing shrimp 15 minutes ago. She has widespread hives, says her throat feels tight, and has audible wheezing. She is anxious but alert. She did not bring her epinephrine auto-injector.

Vital signs: HR 128, BP 84/50, RR 28, SpO2 91% on room air.

The next five questions follow this patient from initial assessment through treatment and reassessment.

Question 36

Clinical judgment — Recognize cues · Multiple response

Which THREE findings show this is more than a skin-only allergic reaction?

Select 3.

  • A. Her age of 34
  • B. BP of 84/50
  • C. Throat tightness and wheezing
  • D. That she is anxious
  • E. That she is alert and talking
  • F. SpO2 of 91% on room air
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B, C, F. (All 3 must be selected for credit.)

Skin involvement plus respiratory compromise (throat tightness, wheeze, hypoxemia) or reduced blood pressure meets the clinical criteria for anaphylaxis. Her hypotension, airway symptoms, and low SpO2 are the cues that change everything about your priorities.

Why not the others:

  • A: Age is not a criterion.
  • D: Anxiety is common and nonspecific.
  • E: Being alert is reassuring but does not rule out anaphylaxis.

Source: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance (2021 poster).

Question 37

Clinical judgment — Define hypothesis · Multiple choice

What is your working impression?

  • A. Mild allergic reaction limited to hives
  • B. Panic attack
  • C. Asthma attack unrelated to the meal
  • D. Anaphylaxis with shock
Show answer and explanation

Answer: D.

Rapid onset after a known allergen, with skin, respiratory, and blood pressure involvement, is anaphylaxis — and an SBP below 90 mmHg means it is already causing shock.

Why not the others:

  • A: Her airway symptoms and hypotension go beyond the skin.
  • B: Panic does not cause hives, wheezing, and an SBP of 84.
  • C: The timing after shrimp and the hives and hypotension point to anaphylaxis, not isolated asthma.

Source: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance (2021 poster).

Question 38

Clinical judgment — Take action · Build list

Starting just before first patient contact, arrange these selected milestones through reassessment after the first epinephrine dose. Other urgent care may occur concurrently.

Arrange in order, first to last.

  • A. Give intramuscular epinephrine (1 mg/mL) into the mid-anterolateral thigh per protocol
  • B. Reassess her symptoms and vital signs after the first epinephrine dose
  • C. Rapidly identify the life threats involving airway, breathing, and circulation
  • D. Confirm scene safety and use appropriate PPE
Show answer and explanation

Correct order: D → C → A → B.

Scene safety and PPE come before patient contact; the primary assessment confirms the life threats; IM epinephrine is the first-line drug for anaphylaxis; and reassessment tells you whether it worked. WAO guidance gives epinephrine 1 mg/mL at 0.01 mg/kg IM in the mid-anterolateral thigh, up to 0.5 mg in an adult. Keep her supine if tolerated; use a supported semi-recumbent position if necessary for breathing, and prevent sudden sitting, standing, or walking. Do not delay IM epinephrine for a complete examination, IV placement, or monitoring. Provide oxygen, IV fluids for shock, and arrange additional help and transport alongside urgent treatment as staffing permits.

Source: NASEMSO v3.0, Universal Care (pp. 9–17); World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance (2021 poster); Resuscitation Council UK, Anaphylaxis (§§4–5); 2023 Anaphylaxis Practice Parameter.

Question 39

Clinical judgment — Evaluation · Multiple choice

During initial care, oxygen and protocol-directed IV fluid resuscitation were started, and transport with ALS support was arranged. Seven minutes after the first epinephrine dose her BP is 88/54, wheezing persists, and SpO2 is 92% on oxygen. What is the best next step?

  • A. Wait 30 minutes for the first dose to take full effect
  • B. Repeat IM epinephrine per protocol, continue oxygen and IV fluids with reassessment, assist ventilation if breathing becomes inadequate, and continue urgent transport with ALS support if available
  • C. Give an oral antihistamine instead and cancel further epinephrine
  • D. Sit her bolt upright and walk her to the ambulance
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B.

She is still hypotensive and wheezing, so the initial treatment has not adequately resolved her anaphylaxis. WAO guidance allows repeating epinephrine every 5–15 minutes as needed and lists IV access with fluid resuscitation when indicated. Asking for higher-level input fits the NREMT expectation that AEMTs adjust care with input from higher-trained providers.

Why not the others:

  • A: Thirty minutes of persistent shock is too long; repeat dosing begins at 5–15 minutes.
  • C: Antihistamines do not treat shock or airway swelling and do not replace epinephrine.
  • D: Do not have her stand or walk; use a supported position suited to her breathing and circulation.

Source: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance (2021 poster); Resuscitation Council UK, Anaphylaxis (§§4–5); NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications.

Question 40

Clinical judgment — Leadership and communication · Multiple choice

As you prepare the repeat dose, your partner hands you a vial and says, "Here's the epi." What should you do before giving it?

  • A. Read the vial label yourself, verify the drug, concentration, protocol dose and IM route, then confirm the checked details out loud with your partner
  • B. Give it immediately; your partner already checked it
  • C. Draw up the full vial so you don't need a third dose
  • D. Ask your partner to give it IV instead to save time
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A.

Closed-loop communication — say it back, get confirmation — is how teams catch errors before they reach the patient. For this vial-based IM dose, verify the 1 mg/mL product and the protocol-specified dose. Confirming the checked drug, concentration, dose, and route out loud helps catch dangerous mix-ups.

Why not the others:

  • B: A second check is the point; assuming defeats it.
  • C: Overdosing epinephrine is dangerous; the dose is weight-based with an adult maximum.
  • D: Changing the route of a 1 mg/mL product on the fly is a serious error risk; follow your protocol.

Source: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance (2021 poster); AHRQ TeamSTEPPS: Check-Back; ISMP: Independent Double Checks; NREMT AEMT Examination Specifications.

Score your practice test

Give yourself one point only when an item is fully correct — every required choice selected, every row placed, every step in order. The real exam scores each item the same all-or-nothing way, with no partial credit.

For a partial run, divide the number correct by the number checked and record how many remain unanswered. For a completed run, use 40 as the denominator and count unanswered items as wrong. For example, 8 correct out of 10 checked is 80% with 30 unanswered; ending the full test there gives 8/40, or 20%.

Score your practice test
Q Answer Domain Q Answer Domain
1 B Cardiology 21 B, D, F Clinical judgment
2 D Medical/OB-GYN 22 C Clinical judgment
3 A Airway 23 B Clinical judgment
4 B, D Trauma 24 A Clinical judgment
5 B, D, F Medical/OB-GYN 25 A, C, E Clinical judgment
6 C Clinical judgment 26 D Medical/OB-GYN
7 C EMS Operations 27 C Cardiology
8 Give / Withhold / Withhold / Give Cardiology 28 B Trauma
9 B Medical/OB-GYN 29 D EMS Operations
10 A Airway 30 A Medical/OB-GYN
11 D Medical/OB-GYN 31 B Airway
12 C Trauma 32 C Cardiology
13 L1 / L2 / L3 / L2 Medical/OB-GYN 33 C→A→D→B Medical/OB-GYN
14 A Clinical judgment 34 A Clinical judgment
15 D Cardiology 35 B Medical/OB-GYN
16 C Medical/OB-GYN 36 B, C, F Clinical judgment
17 B→D→A→C Airway 37 D Clinical judgment
18 B EMS Operations 38 D→C→A→B Clinical judgment
19 D Medical/OB-GYN 39 B Clinical judgment
20 A Trauma 40 A Clinical judgment

Domain tally (write your number correct in each):

Score your practice test (table 6)
Domain Questions Your correct
Airway, Respiration & Ventilation 3, 10, 17, 31 (4) ___ / 4
Cardiology & Resuscitation 1, 8, 15, 27, 32 (5) ___ / 5
Trauma 4, 12, 20, 28 (4) ___ / 4
Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology 2, 5, 9, 11, 13, 16, 19, 26, 30, 33, 35 (11) ___ / 11
EMS Operations 7, 18, 29 (3) ___ / 3
Clinical Judgment 6, 14, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 34, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 (13) ___ / 13

Read your result as feedback on these 40 questions, not a prediction. The real exam reports pass or fail against a standard set by expert panels, and 40 items — a handful per domain — cannot estimate your score on it. What it can do is point you at what to review: a miss in one domain is worth a look; repeated misses on the same idea are worth a study session. A percentage on a practice test doesn't convert to the official scaled score. Details are on our NREMT exam results page.

How the real NREMT AEMT exam works

The AEMT Certification Examination has been a single exam since July 1, 2024; there is no separate National Registry AEMT psychomotor exam anymore. Your course must still verify your competency, and your state may have its own requirements. Here is what you will face, from the National Registry's handbook, test plan, and full-education requirements:

How the real NREMT AEMT exam works
Item AEMT Certification Examination
Questions 135, of which 35 are unscored pilot items you cannot identify
Time 3 hours, after a tutorial on item types with up to 10 minutes allotted
Format Fixed-length linear computer test — not adaptive. Everyone gets 135 items; it does not stop early.
Going back Not allowed. You can change an answer before you submit it, but not after.
Item types Multiple choice (1 of 4), multiple response (2–3 of 5–6), build list, drag-and-drop, options box, graphical, and scenario-based sets
Scoring All-or-nothing on every item; pass/fail against a single standard for all candidates
Results Usually posted to your National Registry account within three business days, provided all other requirements are met. If you don't pass, you see a score on a 100–1500 scale where 950 is passing; if you pass, you don't get a score breakdown.
Fee $159 per attempt
Where Pearson testing centers

Three rules to check in your prep. The 2019 AEMT handbook listed a 2-hour-15-minute limit; the current handbook and test plan say 3 hours. AEMT is fixed-length and linear. The AEMT test plan says you cannot return to an item after you submit it, and unanswered items at the time limit are scored wrong. Plan to answer each question once, carefully, and keep moving.

To practice the official item formats, try the National Registry's AEMT sample items on a desktop or laptop, and read the Clinical Judgment Domain Sample Packet.

What the AEMT exam covers

The test plan has six domains, with pediatric care woven through the clinical ones. This practice test allocates its questions within those published ranges:

What the AEMT exam covers
Domain Share of real exam Questions here
Clinical Judgment 31%–35% 13 (32.5%)
Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology 25%–29% 11 (27.5%)
Cardiology & Resuscitation 11%–15% 5 (12.5%)
Airway, Respiration & Ventilation 9%–13% 4 (10.0%)
Trauma 7%–11% 4 (10.0%)
EMS Operations 6%–10% 3 (7.5%)

Pediatric and newborn care appear in questions 10, 14, 26, 27, 28, 33.

Clinical judgment is the largest domain. It is the reasoning that ties the other domains together, which is why it shows up here as two full scenarios plus stand-alone questions.

Clinical judgment, step by step

The National Registry defines clinical judgment as a cycle you run again each time the setting changes — En Route, Scene, and Post Scene — plus communication and leadership. Here is what each step asks of you, and where this test practices it:

Clinical judgment, step by step
Step What you're doing Practice here
Recognize cues Pick out the findings that matter from the noise 14, 21, 36
Analyze cues Ask what those findings mean together Built into the hypothesis and action questions
Define hypothesis Name the most likely problem 22, 37
Generate solutions List the interventions within your scope Built into the hypothesis and action questions
Take action Choose and do the best one now 23, 38
Evaluation Check the response and change the plan if needed 6, 24, 39
Communication and leadership Handoffs, speaking up, closed-loop checks 25, 34, 40

A useful habit for these cases: fix the immediate threat before the interesting finding, and after every intervention, look again.

Review your misses

A missed question is only useful if you know why you missed it. For each one, name what changed the answer:

  • Fact: you didn't know the rule or number.
  • Cue: you knew it but overlooked a finding in the stem.
  • Priority or scope: you picked something reasonable, but not first — or not within AEMT scope.
  • Math: a calculation or unit slipped.
  • Instructions: you selected the wrong number of choices or misread the task.

Then read the explanation and the section of the source it links, close both, and explain the answer out loud in one or two sentences. Treat a lucky guess like a miss. A simple log keeps this honest:

Review your misses
Question My answer Correct answer Type of miss The cue or rule I'll use next time
Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry
Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry
Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry Blank: your entry

Redo your missed questions in a few days without looking at the explanations first. For everything else, the AEMT handbook points candidates to their textbook and course materials, the current American Heart Association CPR and ECC guidelines, and the National EMS Education Standards; the National Registry does not endorse any prep product. And keep your local protocols separate in your head: the national exam tests the national standard, while your state and medical director decide what you actually do on a shift (National Registry: certification and licensure).

Which guidelines should I study?

Study the current AHA guidelines alongside your course materials; the clinical explanations here cite current guidance, including the 2025 AHA CPR and ECC guidelines. The National Registry said in October 2025 that it is reviewing live exam questions against the 2025 AHA guidelines, removing any that conflict, and expects newly aligned questions to become operational within 12–15 months (NREMT, Oct. 27, 2025). So the exam's resuscitation content is changing in stages, not on one date.

Common questions

Who can take the AEMT exam?

For the full-education pathway, you need a current National Registry certification or state license at the EMT level or higher, plus a state-approved AEMT course that includes the required student competencies, or a qualifying higher-level state-approved EMS course. The course must have been completed within the past two years and verified by your program director. Already state licensed or returning after a lapse? Use the National Registry's pathway for your situation. See NREMT exam registration for the application steps.

What if I don't pass?

For initial AEMT certification, you can reapply once your results post if you remain eligible and have attempts left. You have up to six attempts; remedial education is required before the fourth. A 15-day wait applies, but the handbook and formal policy describe its starting date differently. See the NREMT exam retake policy for the full rules, and confirm your earliest test date before booking.

Are these real NREMT questions?

No. Every question here is original, written for practice and checked against the published guidelines cited in its explanation. National Registry exam content is confidential, and sharing or reconstructing it violates the candidate agreement.

Sources

Exam facts were checked against the National Registry pages and documents below on October 20, 2026. Clinical explanations were checked against the cited guidelines on the same date; your local protocols may differ.


Castleport Test Prep is an independent exam prep publisher. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. Exam and credential names identify their subjects, and trademarks belong to their respective owners. These original practice questions are for study only; they are not official exam items, do not predict your result, and are not a substitute for your EMS education, local protocols, or medical direction.

By the Castleport Test Prep Editorial Team.

Free NREMT AEMT Practice Test: 40 Questions + Explanations