ARE Project Planning and Design Exam Prep

Answer: A. In the Northern Hemisphere, glazing that faces within about 30° of true south, and stays unshaded from roughly 9 a.m. to 3 p.m. in the heating season, collects most of the useful winter sun. North glass gets almost no direct sun. East and west glass gets low-angle sun that is hard to control and adds unwanted summer heat.

Source: U.S. DOE, Guide to Passive Solar Home Design, "Elements of Passive Solar Design," item 1 (Aperture).

Answer: C. Late-day sun from the west sits low in the sky, so a horizontal overhang blocks little of it unless it covers the whole window. Federal daylighting guidance says to minimize east and west windows. A is the classic trap: overhangs work well on south façades because the summer sun is high there. B and D add to the problem.

Sources: DOE, Guide to Passive Solar Home Design, item 5 (Control); Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory, Tips for Daylighting with Windows (1997), pp. 3-3 and 3-10 (orientation and east/west glazing).

Answer: A, B, C, D. EPA identifies trees and vegetation, green roofs, cool roofs, and cool pavements as heat-island reduction strategies. For a cool roof, high solar reflectance matters most, and high thermal emittance helps too. E and F absorb more sun and re-radiate the heat.

Sources: EPA, Heat Island Reduction Solutions; EPA, Using Cool Roofs to Reduce Heat Islands.

Answer: C. The proposed bioretention area collects runoff and lets it soak into the ground, so less water leaves the site. EPA counts it as a low impact development practice that reduces and slows runoff. A and D change conveyance without reducing the runoff volume through infiltration. B changes when the water leaves, not how much. The stem tells you infiltration suits this site. Don't assume that about every site; soils and separation distances decide it.

Sources: EPA, Urban Runoff: Low Impact Development; EPA, Types of Green Infrastructure, "Bioretention (Rain Gardens)."

Answer: D. BFE is the elevation the 1%-annual-chance ("100-year") flood is expected to reach. Freeboard is extra height above BFE, added as a factor of safety. 12.0 + 2.0 = 14.0 ft. B ignores freeboard, and A and C misapply it. In this exercise, the local ordinance sets the required freeboard.

Source: 44 CFR 59.1, definitions of Base flood, Flood elevation determination, and Freeboard.

Answer: A. Low winter sun casts long shadows north of tall buildings. Pulling the library north puts more distance between its south windows and the obstruction, which improves the odds those windows stay unshaded through the midday heating hours. B puts the reading room in the deepest shadow. C gives up direct sun. D ignores exactly the neighborhood context that objective 1.3 tests.

Source: DOE, Guide to Passive Solar Home Design, item 1 (unshaded 9 a.m.–3 p.m. in the heating season).

Answer: C. FAR × lot area = maximum total floor area: 2.5 × 20,000 = 50,000 sq ft. Divide by 4 stories to get 12,500 sq ft each. D is the building total, not a floor. A divides the lot area by four stories and never applies the FAR. B also falls short of the 12,500 sq ft maximum.

Sources: arithmetic from the exercise inputs; New York City Zoning Resolution §12-10, definitions of floor area ratio and lot coverage. The numerical zoning limits here are exercise data, not a statement of New York City requirements.

Answer: A. The setbacks leave a buildable area of (100 − 10 − 10) × (150 − 25 − 20) = 80 × 105 = 8,400 sq ft. Lot coverage caps the footprint at 0.50 × 15,000 = 7,500 sq ft. When two rules apply, the stricter one controls. B forgets coverage, and C ignores the side setbacks (100 × 105). D ignores both limits.

Sources: arithmetic from the exercise inputs; New York City Zoning Resolution §12-10, definitions of floor area ratio and lot coverage. The numerical zoning limits here are exercise data, not a statement of New York City requirements.

Answer: D. A ramp's running slope can't be steeper than 1:12, and a single run can't rise more than 30 in. A 36 in rise therefore needs at least two runs. Landings are required at the top and bottom of each run, with at least 60 in of clear length; a landing where runs change direction needs at least 60 × 60 in clear. At 1:12, 36 in of rise takes a combined horizontal run of 432 in (36 ft), plus the required landings. For example, two 18 in-rise runs each need handrails because each run rises more than 6 in. A exceeds the 30 in rise limit. C is too steep for new construction. B invents a 12 in limit.

Source: 2010 ADA Standards §405.2, §405.6, §405.7–405.7.4, §405.8; U.S. Access Board, Guide to Ramps and Curb Ramps.

Answer: C. Table 208.2 requires 5 accessible spaces for a lot of 101–150 spaces. The fictional local ordinance requires 6, so 6 is the minimum that satisfies both. For every 6 accessible spaces, or fraction of 6, at least 1 must be van-accessible. Spaces serving a building go on the shortest accessible route to an accessible entrance. A and B fall short of the local count; A also falls short of the ADA count. D invents an exemption: shared aisles are allowed, but they don't remove the van requirement. The building type matters too. Hospital outpatient facilities, rehabilitation facilities specializing in mobility-related conditions, and outpatient physical therapy facilities have additional requirements for patient and visitor parking, so check the facility type before you read the table.

Source: 2010 ADA Standards Table 208.2, §208.2.1–208.2.4, §208.3.1, §502.3; U.S. Access Board, Guide to Parking Spaces.

Answer: A. Any walking surface steeper than 1:20 is a ramp by definition. At 1:16 it is within the 1:12 maximum, and because it rises more than 6 in it needs handrails. D misreads the rule: a route can be steeper than 1:20 if it is built as a compliant ramp. C invents a threshold.

Source: 2010 ADA Standards §106.5 ("ramp") in Chapter 1, and §403.3, §405.2, §405.8 in Chapter 4.

Answer: B. The rule sets a 32 in minimum clear opening, measured from the face of the open door to the stop. That is why a nominal 32 in leaf usually falls short once the door's thickness and stop are counted. A relabels without changing the geometry, C uses the wrong measurement, and D leaves the width unchanged. The stem gives the opening depth because openings deeper than 24 in need 36 in clear.

Source: 2010 ADA Standards §404.2.3.

Answer: C. Moment frames resist lateral loads through bending in beams and columns and their moment-resisting connections. They need no braces or structural walls, so they allow large open bays, though they can cost more to construct. A and B would block the storefront openings. D is a poor choice for resisting earthquakes.

Source: NIST, Seismic Design of Steel Special Moment Frames, GCR 16-917-41 (2nd ed., 2016), §2.3, p. 7.

Answer: A. A soft story has comparatively low lateral stiffness; a weak story has comparatively low lateral strength. The open parking level is a reason to evaluate that stiffness change early because lateral deformation can concentrate there. B and C overstate the problem: this is a lateral-load issue that good design can solve. D misses it entirely.

Sources: Zhang et al., Motivators and impediments to seismic retrofit implementation for wood-frame soft-story buildings (2022), introduction and Note 1 (soft versus weak story); NIST GCR 16-917-41, §3.1, p. 10 (concentrated story deformation).

Answer: D. A continuous load path needs every connection from roof to foundation. Connections between major assemblies are usually the weakest links, and if one fails, loads shift to parts that may not be strong enough. D repairs the missing link. A, B, and C strengthen other parts and leave the break in place. The actual connectors still need to be sized for the project's design loads.

Source: DOE Building America Solution Center, Continuous Load Path, "Scope" and "Description".

Answer: C. STC (Sound Transmission Class) describes how much sound a wall or floor assembly blocks from one room to the next. NRC (Noise Reduction Coefficient) describes how much sound a material absorbs, which controls echo within a room but does little to stop sound passing between rooms. A and B treat absorption, not isolation, and D doesn't address the wall.

Sources: NIH Office of Research Facilities, "Sound Design Metrics" (Sept. 2019); GSA, Building Systems Upgrades, acoustics guidance.

Answer: B. This is reverberation inside the room, and absorption (NRC) is the tool for that. A, C, and D improve isolation between rooms, which isn't the complaint. Compare PPD-16: same two ratings, opposite problem.

Source: NIH ORF, "Sound Design Metrics".

Answer: A. VAV terminal units modulate airflow to each space to match its load. Supply air temperature stays near a setpoint, though it may be reset modestly when loads are low. B does not vary airflow by zone to meet the stated loads. C describes a refrigerant-based system. D describes a ventilation-only unit.

Source: NIST, NISTIR 4605, §1.1.

Answer: A. A DOAS conditions and delivers outdoor ventilation air separately from the system that heats and cools the spaces, so ventilation can be controlled on its own. B can't guarantee the air quantity. C bundles ventilation with heating and cooling, and D provides no ventilation.

Source: PNNL, PNNL-34452, Appendix A.

Answer: D. Studs and other framing members conduct heat through the wall, acting as thermal bridges. DOE notes that framing can account for nearly one-fourth of a conventionally framed wall's area. Continuous exterior insulation covers the framing and cuts those losses. C adds more bridges, and B leaves the bridges untouched.

Source: DOE Building America Solution Center, Continuous Rigid Insulation Sheathing.

Answer: A. A meets both limits and has the lowest SHGC among the options that qualify. B qualifies but lets in more solar heat. C fails the U-factor limit, and D fails the VT minimum. Each rating measures something different. A lower U-factor means better insulation, a lower SHGC means less solar heat, and a higher VT means more visible light. A great number on one rating doesn't make up for failing another.

Source: ENERGY STAR, Independently Tested and Certified Energy Performance, "Performance Ratings."

Answer: B. The perimeters are 400 ft and 500 ft. Multiplied by 12 ft, that's 4,800 versus 6,000 sq ft of wall, so the bar has 25% more. Compact, simple shapes expose less envelope, so they gain and lose less heat. The bar might still win on daylight. Weighing that trade-off is what integration questions test.

Sources: Virginia Cooperative Extension, publication 2908-9019; arithmetic from the inputs given.

Answer: D. D combines an east–west long axis with most glazing on the north and south and shading at the south windows, reducing reliance on difficult-to-shade east and west glass. A and B put the most glass where low sun is hardest to shade. C spreads it everywhere.

Sources: LBNL, Tips for Daylighting with Windows (1997), p. 3-10 (orientation and east/west glazing); Virginia Cooperative Extension, 2908-9019.

Answer: C. For a standard side window, the useful daylit zone is about 1.5 × the window head height: 1.5 × 9 = 13.5 ft. The guide says a reflective light shelf may extend that zone to as much as 2.5× (about 22.5 ft). B applies that light-shelf allowance to a window without a shelf. Treat this as a planning rule of thumb, not a code requirement or a guarantee of performance.

Source: LBNL, Tips for Daylighting with Windows (1997), p. 3-2 (window head height and daylight depth).

Answer: B. North-facing openings usually receive mainly diffuse skylight, with less direct sun than the other choices. Early-morning and late-afternoon sun can still require shading. A, C, and D all admit direct sun, which brings glare, heat, or both.

Source: LBNL, Tips for Daylighting with Windows, p. 3-3 (north orientation and shading).

Answer: D. D combines operable openings on opposite façades with a 45 ft plan depth, within the supplied 5 × 10 = 50 ft screen. A is single-sided, C has no operable openings, and B exceeds the supplied screen. CBE identifies 5H for cross ventilation and 2H for single-sided ventilation as traditional rules with limited validation. They are preliminary planning aids; actual ventilation depends on opening size, wind, internal air paths, and other conditions.

Source: UC Berkeley Center for the Built Environment, Evidence-Based Natural Ventilation Guidelines.

Answer: A, B, C. These are DOE's core passive-solar moves for a cold climate. E blocks the low winter sun that C protects. D adds hard-to-control west glass, and F gets almost no direct sun.

Source: DOE, Guide to Passive Solar Home Design, items 1 and 5.

Answer: C. Equitable Use calls for the same means of use for all users, identical whenever possible, and for not segregating or stigmatizing anyone. One shared entrance does that. The other three are real principles but aren't the central issue here.

Source: NC State University, Center for Universal Design, The Principles of Universal Design (Version 2.0, 1997), Principle One.

Answer: A. Natural surveillance puts people and windows where they can see what's happening. B, C, and D all reduce visibility.

Source: North Carolina Department of Public Safety, Prevention Through Environmental Design, "Three Key Concepts" (Natural Surveillance).

Answer: B. Toilet rooms need turning space inside the room. That means either a circle at least 60 in across or a T-shape within a 60 in square, with arms and base at least 36 in wide. The T's arms need at least 12 in of clear extension beyond the intersection in each direction, and its base needs at least 24 in. Turning space must be coordinated with fixture clearances and door requirements; its dimensions alone do not determine the room's minimum size. A is too small, C does not provide a required turning-space configuration, and D invents an exemption.

Source: 2010 ADA Standards §603.2 and §304.3.

Answer: A and C. Photosensor dimming adjusts electric light to the daylight available. Automatic shades handle glare. B and E ignore daylight entirely. D confuses letting in more light with controlling glare. F throws away the daylight the owner wants to keep.

Source: GSA, Building Systems Upgrades, lighting and lighting controls.

Answer: B. At a 14 ft floor-to-floor height, B leaves 14 ft − 3 ft 6 in = 10 ft 6 in of clear ceiling. It also supports separate schedules and comes in under the cost cap. A leaves only 9 ft 6 in. C fails the scheduling requirement, and D is over budget. Being cheapest (C) or thinnest doesn't rescue an option that fails a stated requirement.

Sources: arithmetic from the inputs given; GSA, Building Systems Upgrades (zone HVAC systems and controls to separate space uses).

Answer: C. The contingency is defined as 10% of the base: 12,000 × $300 = $3,600,000; × 0.10 = $360,000; total $3,960,000. A switches the basis to 10% of the final total, which the estimate doesn't say. B deletes a stated allowance, and D uses a different percentage. This is the skill objective 5.2 now asks for: checking an estimate someone else prepared, not building one from scratch. Fixing the arithmetic doesn't prove the unit price is right for a real project.

Sources: arithmetic from the inputs given; NCARB, Updated ARE Guidelines for April 2026 Exam Changes, PPD objective 5.2.

Answer: B. Since April 27, 2026, objective 5.2 asks you to evaluate cost estimates prepared by others. You need to know how estimates vary with the estimating method and reconcile them with the budget by considering design alternatives. A jumps to a new detailed estimate before evaluating the basis of the consultant's schematic estimate. C puts off a known problem, and D skips the evaluation.

Sources: NCARB, Updated ARE Guidelines for April 2026 Exam Changes, PPD objective 5.2 description; GSA, P-120 Project Cost and Schedule Management Requirements (2022), §3.10, p. 29 (estimate evaluation and recovery alternatives).

Answer: A. Under GSA's P-120 framework, early estimates are parametric and carry allowances. Each phase adds more measured quantities and more detailed pricing, until the final construction-documents estimate uses measured quantities and detailed unit prices, with no lump-sum allowances. Early estimates are useful for decisions, but they carry more uncertainty. B overstates them, C dismisses them, and D confuses an estimate with a bid.

Source: GSA, P-120 Project Cost and Schedule Management Requirements (2022), Table 3-4, pp. 26–27.

Answer: C. $100,000 ÷ $9,000 per year ≈ 11.1 years. Simple payback ignores the time value of money and any savings after the payback point, which is why the owner also asked for a life-cycle comparison. B is the UPV factor from PPD-37, not a payback period.

Source: NIST, Handbook 135 (2022), §6.4–6.4.1, pp. 82–83 (simple payback and its limits).

Answer: D. UPV = (1.03²⁰ − 1) ÷ (0.03 × 1.03²⁰) ≈ 14.877. Present value of savings ≈ $9,000 × 14.877 ≈ $133,900. Subtract the $100,000 extra first cost to get a net life-cycle benefit of about $33,900. A is the undiscounted total ($9,000 × 20), which ignores the time value of money. B and C understate the savings calculated with the supplied factor. The net benefit depends on the case's equal-other-costs and timing assumptions. This is the objective 5.3 skill: weighing upfront cost against future costs.

Source: NIST, Handbook 135 (2022), §3.2.2.1, p. 26 (uniform present value factor); §4.3.1, pp. 41–42 (timing); §5.1.2, p. 65 (cost categories).

Answer: D. The terrace is the owner's lowest priority and exactly 600 sq ft. A cuts the top priority below its 2,500 sq ft minimum. C cuts the second priority in half. B removes the higher-priority staff work area. Objective 5.1 asks you to judge alternatives against the program, not just against cost.

Source: Resource 1 of the case study.